Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the only indication for RBC transfusion with normal Hb?

A

Tissue Hypoxia

Confusion (brain)
Angina (heart)

Even if Hb or Hct are normal

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2
Q

How do you calculate Hct?

A

3x Hb

if Hb is 8
then Hct is 24

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3
Q

WHat if Hb is below 8?

A

RBC transfusion

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4
Q

What is the first tests you always do in any anemia?

A

CBC and Peripheral Smear

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5
Q

What is Anemia Defined as?

A

HCT:
<41% in men
<36% in women

or
Hb
<13.5 in men
<12 in women

Note this is anemia.. but does not warrant RBC transfusion

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6
Q

Microcytic MCV <80 Causes

A
  1. iron deficiency
  2. Thalassemia
  3. Sideroblastosis
  4. Lead poisoning (part of sideroblastosis)
  5. Anemia of chronic disease
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7
Q

Whats the next step when CBC shows microcytic anemia?

A

Iron studies

If iron studies are normal then you do Electorpheresis (to rule out thalassemia)
or
Bone marrow biopsy

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8
Q

Macrocytic Anemias >100 Causes

A
B12 / folate deficiency
Alcohol
Liver Disease
Methotrexate
Zidovudine / phenytoin
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9
Q

what is the next step after CBC shows macrocytic anemia?

A

Peripheral smear

IF you see hypersegmented neutrophils –> B12 deficency

If you see normal PMNs (3-5 segments) then its either 
alcohol
liver disease
methotrexate
Zidovudine / phenytoin
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10
Q

Normocytic Anemia causes (80-100 MCV)

A

Hemolysis
Hemhorrage
Bone Marrow disorder

next step –> get the reticulocyte count

if retic count is low then its a bone marrow issue –> do BM biopsy

If reticulocyte count is high –> this is a sign of hemohrrage or hemolysis

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11
Q

Anemia symptoms

A

fatigue, tiredness, poor exercise tolerance.

DISEASE PROGRESSION :
dyspnea on exertion, light-headedness
systolic ejection murmur (flow murmur)
confusion, AMS

AMS (RBC transfusion!)

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12
Q

What does Red Cell Distribution Width tell you?

A

Measures Anisocytosis - the variation amongst the cells.

will help differentiate between IDA and Thalassemia

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13
Q

What is Coombs test for?

A

to differentiate Auto Immune Hemolytic Anemia vs Herditary Spherocytosis

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14
Q

What is Bone Marrow Biopsy useful for?

A

Normocytic anemia with low retic count

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15
Q

When you give 1 unit of RBCs how much should Hb and Hct go?

A

Hb - 1 point

Hct - 3 points

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16
Q

Hct Ranges?

A

For nomral young healthy people - can go as low as 20% (no lower)

For older patients with CAD - keep it above 30%

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17
Q

RBC appearance in IDA

A

in a normal RBC 1/3 of the rbc center should be pale

in IDA the RBC is microcytic and the 90% of it is pale in the center.

IDA has a very increased RDW (increased anisocytosis)

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18
Q

IDA in a young patient differential?

A

in women - heavy menstrual flow

in men - PUD

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19
Q

IDA in an older patient (over 50)

A

Do COLONOSCOPY!!

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20
Q

IDA in a 2 year old?

A

get a meckles scan!!

meckles diverticulum MCC

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21
Q

Pregnant woman with IDA?

A

caused by increased demand,

give her Iron and Folate (all pregnant women should be on iron and folate!)

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22
Q

what should you do for someone with IDA caused by poor oral intake or malabsorption?

A

you need Acid to absorb Iron. Give this patient vitamin C.. make their GI acidic.

if that doesnt work you have to to IV

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23
Q

IDA presentation

A

brittle nails
spoon shaped nails (poikilocytosis)
glossitis
pica

none of these are diagnostic. History helps - but you have to do iron studies to confirm diagnosis

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24
Q

IDA iron studies

A
Serum Iron - decreased
Serum Ferritin - Decreased
TIBC (transferrin)- increased
RDW - increased
Reticulocytes - Decreased

If Serum Ferritin is low (storage form) - then its automatically IDA

Remember Ferritin and Transferin are always opposite.

in IDA Ferritin is low! so transferin (TIBC) must be high

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25
Q

MAT for IDA?

A

Bone Marrow Biopsy (stainable iron stores)

rarely done.. not needed

Only do this if the patient has IDA and an inflammatory disease at the same time. This will cause ferritin to look high (anemia of chronic disease)

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26
Q

Treatment for IDA

A

Oral therapy - Ferrous Sulfate

If patients cant absorb it?
give IV

If patients are constipated
give IV

if patients have advanced kidney disease
give IV

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27
Q

What is anemia of chronic disease?

A

Defect in ability to sue iron sequestered in reticuloendothelial system

can be microcytic or normocytic

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28
Q

Anemia of chronic disease and hepcidin

A

Inflammatory mediators cause liver to release Hepcidin –>

Hepcidin blocks ferroportin –> thus cant absorb iron from GI tract or from Storage from in Macrophages

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29
Q

what kind of problem is anemia of chronic disease?

A

Iron Re-utilization problem!

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30
Q

Anemia of Chornic disease iron studies

A

remember always do iron panel as next step when you see microcytosis!

ACD iron panel:
Serum Iron - low
Serum Ferritin - starts normal then HIGH
TIBC- low
Reticulocytes- low
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31
Q

How do you treat anemia of chornic disease?

A

treat the underlying disease

this will cause decrease in inflammatory markers –> decreased hepcidin –> Iron released through ferroportin channels in GI and macrophages

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32
Q

Hereditary hemochromatosis

A

Absent HFE gene –> cant make Hepcidin.. Ferroportin channels stay open.. and Iron rushes into the body unchecked

Iron deposition in tissues

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33
Q

What happens if you give EPO or Iron supplements in Anemia of chronic disease?

A

in ACD you cant absorb or release iron.. giving more iron will cause hemochromatosis – dont do it

giving EPO will cause more RBCs to be made.. except they wont have iron.. no Heme.. dont do it

only time you do this is when ACD is due to:
Renal disease - Need EPO then
or
Chemo / radiation!

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34
Q

What causes Sideroblastic Anemia?

A

Hereditary Forms:
Defect in ALA synthase
Abnormality in B6 metabolism

Acquired Forms:
B6 deficency (INH will cause B6 deficency)

Lead poisoning –> blocks ALA dehydrogenase and Ferrochelatase

Alcohol – Poisons Mitochondria.. cant make Hb

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35
Q

What characterizes siderbloastic anemia?

A

ringed siderolbast (this is diagnostic)

The ring is Iron trapped in the mitochondria of Nucleated RBCs

To diagnose Sideroblastic Anemia you must do a BONE MARROW BIOPSY!! with Prussian Blue stain and find ringed sideroblasts (most specific test)

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36
Q

Sideroblastic anemia iron studies

A

Always do Iron study first for microcytosis!

Serum Iron - Increased
Serum Ferritin - Increased
TIBC (transferrin)- Decreased

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37
Q

What does basophilic stippling of RBCs show on peripheral blood smear?

A

basophilic stippling

blue dots around the RBC

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38
Q

Sideroblastic Anemia Treatment

A

Remove offending drug

Treat Lead poisoning (for kids use succimer, for adults use IV drugs (EDTA, Dimercaperol)

Give Pyridoxine (2-4mg/day)

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39
Q

Thalassemia definition

A

Underproduction of either alpha or beta globin chains of Hb molecule

Hypochormic, microcytic anemia

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40
Q

Thalaseemia types

A

Alpha thalassemia
One gene deletion (normal patient)
CBC,Hb, MCV all normal

two gene deletion
Mild anemia (HCT 30-40%, very low MCV)
three gene deletion (Hemogobin H)
profound anemia (HCT 22-33), very low MCV 

Four Gene deletion
Dead baby die inutero (Barts)

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41
Q

Thalassemia diagnosis?

A

Always start with Iron panel for microcytosis!

Thalassemia will have a normal iron panel. Next step is Hb Electrophoresis.. this will tell you which Thalassemia they have.

Beta thal Minor:
Heterozygous for mutation of Beta Hb Gene
Mild anemia with marked microcytosis
Electrophoresis will be abnormal –> low HbA and High HbA2 and HbF

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42
Q

How can you tell alpha thal minor and beta thal minor apart?

A

they both look the exact same.. Must do Hb electrophoresis to differentiate.

Alpha thal minor - normal electrophoresis
all HbA

In Beta thal minor - abnormal electrophoresis
low HbA, High HbA2, and High HbF

no treatment needed for thalassemia minors

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43
Q

Beta Thalassemia major presentation

A

Homozygous for mutations of both genes coding for beta hemoglobin gene

severly symptomatic
starts at 6 months:
growth failure
jaundice
hepatosplenomegaly
bony deformities secondary to extramedulary hematopoesis (chipmunk facies)
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44
Q

Treatment for Beta Thal Major?

A

Life long blood transfusions (once or twice per month)

these patients will die from Hemochromatosis –> cirrhosis, CHF etc.

Give Folic acid supplementation

Give oral deferasirox or Deferiprone for hemochormatosis. easier to give then deferoxamine which requires a sub cutaneous pump

For severe - do splenectomy - spleen is the major area of hemolysis. this will reduce that

Allogenic stem cell transplantation is the only cure

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45
Q

What Red Cell finding will all thalassemias have?

A

Target cells!

if you see microcytic + target cells = Thalassemia

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46
Q

What is RDW for thal vs IDA?

A

IDA - very high RDW (anisocytosis)

Thalassemia - normal RDW (cells are all small.. but the same size as each-other)

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47
Q

What is the only cure for thalassemia

A

allogenic stem cell transplant

treatment of choice for beta-thall major

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48
Q

Macrocytic anemia - B12 Deficency Causes

A

MCC is Pernicious anemia

vegetarian diet

Malabsorption - celiac sprue, regional enteritis, Pancreatic insufficiency (need pancreatic enzymes to absorb B12)

Tape worm (dipholorbium latum)

Patient will present with macrocytosis, neuro issues

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49
Q

Pernicious anemia etiology

A

MCC of B12 deficiency

Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

Autoimmune disorder involving gastric parietal cell antibodies –> results in decreased intrinsic factor –> cant absorb B12 in small intestine

Note: gastrectomy and atrophic gastritis can also cause decreased intrinsic factor production and thus B12 deficiency

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50
Q

B12 deficiency peripheral smear and CBC

A

Oval Macrocytes!!
(ROUND macrocytes are seen in other diseases like hemolysis, liver disease, myelodysplasia)

Retic count is decreased - Marrow is hypercellular

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51
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency diagnosis

A

Most specific and first test = low B12
However this doesn’t tell you if the issue is folate or b12.
Next test you MUST do after this is Methylmalonic acid

Methylmalonic acid is only elevated in B12 deficiency not in folate deficiency

Once B12 deficiency is confirmed check for antibodies to intrinsic factor and parietal cells to confirm etiology.

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52
Q

How does schilling test work? (we dont actually do this in real life.. but its tested on USMLE as a thought experiment)

A

give radioactive b12. If this is found in the urine, then this means ur body was able to absorb the b12 and then you excreted it.. so that means you have normal absorption of b12, but just had a b12 deficiency (correct by IM b12)

If you give radioactive b12 and its not in the urine, then you can either have a disorder of parietal cells or lack of intrinsic factor. If you give b12 + intrinsic factor and now the B12 shows up in the urine then the issue as intrinsic factor (issue is pernicious anemia)

If you give radioactive b12 and intrinsic factor and it still doesn’t show up in the urine. Then give pancreatic enzymes. When you give pancreatic enzymes and its hows up in the urine now.. then you know the issue is a lack of pancreatic secretions.

If B12, pancreatic enzyme and intrinsic factor dont result in b12 in the urine.. then give Antibiotics! bacterial overgrowth can block absorption. If the antibiotics fix the problem then the issue was bacterial overgrowth.

If B12, Pancreatic enzymes, intrinsic factor and ABX dont fix it. then the issue is in the terminal illeum itself. Look for chrons / UC (backwash illeitis) etc.

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53
Q

B12 deficiency treatment

A

Life long IM B12 replacement

Folic acid replacement can correct the hematologic abnormalities but not the neurologic abnormalities.

Giving folate in b12 deficiency will make the neuro symptoms worse, thats why its important to confirm the diagnosis first

Make sure you give potassium to patients when giving B12 –> Rapid creation of RBCs will lead to hypokalemia.. need to suplement potassium

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54
Q

What must you give in addition to B12?

A

Potassium

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55
Q

Folic Acid Deficiency causes

A

folic acid is in green leafy veggies

Alcoholics - dont eat green leafy veggies
Pregnancy (increased requirement for folic acid)
Eczema (losing skin cells - lose folate)
Dialysis - lose folate during dialysis
Phenytoin - decreased folate in these patients

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56
Q

Folic acid deficiency diagnosis?

A

FOLIC ACID LEVEL!

they will ask you if its red cell folic acid level or plasma folic acid level - answer is RED CELL FOLIC ACID LEVEL

treatment - replace folic acid - orally.

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57
Q

Intravascular vs extravascular hemolysis

A

Both will have jaundice / elevated bilirubin (breaking RBCs)

intravascular - destruction within blood cells
Decreased haptoglobin (this is specific to intravascular)
In intravascular you will see hemoglobinuria and hemosidurinuria (neither of these are seen in extravascular)

Extravascular - Splenomegally

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58
Q

Chronic vs Acute Hemolytic Anemias

A

Chronic:
Sickle cell
PNH
Heredictary spherocytosis

Acute:
Drug Induced
Autoimmune (comes and goes)
G6PD Deficiency

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59
Q

Hemolytic anemia CBC

A

Elevated Retic count (trying to make more)
Normal MCV
LDH (any time a cell dies LDH goes up) and Indirect bilirubin are elevated

bilirubin above 4 is unusual in hemolytic anemia - start thinking bile duct obstruction at that point

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60
Q

Hemolytic anemia diagnosis

A

Haptoglobin low (only in intravascular)

No urinary bilirubin - (indirect bilirubin is bound to albumin)

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61
Q

Hemolytic anemia treatment

A

Transfusion - needed in all forms of anemia when the hematocrit becomes low

Hydration - to protect kidneys

Specific therapy to the cause of the anemia

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62
Q

sickle cell inheritance pattern and issue

A

autsomal recessive

replacement of valine instead of the normal glutamic acid in 6th position of beta globin chain

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63
Q

patient with sickle cell has sudden drop in Hb and low Retic - what is it?

A

When there is hemolysis of RBCs normally in all patients (including sickle cell) the bone marrow should make more (elevated retic)

However if a sickle patient has hemolyis and low Retic (HCT) that means there is a aplastic issue. Must do a bone marrow biopsy to confirm the diagnosis:
Parvo B19 infection or Folate deficency can cause this

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64
Q

Sickle cell chronic manifestations

A
Isosthenuria (concentrating defects)
Hematuria
SHINs infections (autosplenectomy) --> make sure to vaccinate these patients for H influenza and Pneumococcus

Growth retardations / skin ulcerations/ bilirubin gallstones / aseptic necorsis of femoral head / ostemoyelitis (salmonella) / retinopathy

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65
Q

What are the causes of death in sickle cell?

A

1 cause is sepsis - infection from encapsulated organisms

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66
Q

How do you treat acute painful crisis and acute chest syndrome in sickle cell?

A

Acute Painful Crisis:
O2 + IVF + Morphine

if there is signs of infection
then add ABX (3rd gen ceph - ceftriaxone) covers encapsulated organisms

If there is…
Acute CHest Syndrome / Priapism / Eye infarcts or CNS infracts (confusion / focal signs) then you must do a:

RED CELL EXCHANGE TRANSFUSION

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67
Q

Sickle Cell Diagnosis

A

first test = peripheral smear - will show sickled cells

if it doesnt and you are suspecting sickle cell anemia then do the Sickle prep (scikledex) - quick screening test used to diagnose sickle cell trait (cannot distinguish between trait and homozygous disease)

GOLD Standard and MAT = Hemoglobin electrophoresis (thiis will distinguish between trait and disease)

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68
Q

Chronic sickle cell management

A

(not painful crisis / acute chest syndrome)

Chronic:
Folic acid replacement
vaccinations - pneumo and h.influ
Hydroxyurea (to decrease frequency of vasoocclusive painful crisis) - preventative measure. Increases HbF. Start Hydroxyurea if patient is having 4 or more crisis per year

BMT

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69
Q

Acquired Hemolytic anemia types (3 types)

A

autoimmune - IgG mediated
cold agglutinin disease - IgM mediated –> C3. destroys Complex destroys RBC in liver
Drug - induced

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70
Q

How to differentiate between Autoimmune homolytic anemia and Cold Agglutinin?

A

Do a Direct Coombs test!

If direct cooms shows IgG = Warm Auto Immune Hemolytic Anemia

If Direct Coombs shows C3 = Cold Agglutinin

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71
Q

Acquired Hemolytic Anemia Smear

A

Spherocytes - ROUND RBCs with NO central Palor!!

Both AIHA and Hereditary spherocytosis have:

  1. spherocytes
  2. splenomegaly
  3. Increased MCHC
  4. Increased Osmotic Fragility

BUT ONLY AIHA will have a positive coombs test.

how do you know difference between autoimmune and hereditary spherocytosis?

Do Direct Coombs:
if its positive (shows IgG or C3) then its autoimmune

If its negative - then its hereditary spherocytosis

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72
Q

How do you treat acquired hemolytic anemia?

A

causes:
autoimmune (warm), cold agglutinin and drug induced

treatments:
drug induced - stop drug.

warm (auto Immune)
Mild disease - no treatment
Severe disease - STEROIDS!
Splenectomy - Done for patients not responsive to steroids

Cold agglutinin
Avoid cold
Rituximab (Anti-CD20 antibody) - found in B cells
Cant use steroids here (not antibody mediated, caused by C3.. also Spleenectomy wont work here since cells are destroyed in liver not spleen)
* Must check for HepB and HepC before starting Rituximab!@!@

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73
Q

Cold Agglutinin disease etiology

A

IgM antibody against RBCs in association with:
Malignancies - Lymphoma , waldenstroms Macroglobulinemia

Infections - Mono, mycoplasma

Ulcerative colitis

50% of patients will have no underlying disorder

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74
Q

Cold agglutinin presentaion

A

cyanosis of ears, nose, fingers, toes

weakness, pallor, jaundice, dark urine

Cold Agglutinin - C3 destroys RBCs in liver

Treatment with steroids wont work here (thats for antibodies)
Splenectomy wont work (cells are destroyed in liver not spleen)

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75
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis

A

Chronic mild hemolysis with spherocytes, jaundice, splenomegally

Autosomal dominant

Loss of spectrin in RBC membrane
caused by a mutation in one of 3 genes:
spectrin
ankyrin
protein 4.2

Hemolysis occurs because spheres are not able to pass through the narrow passages of the spleen

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76
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis presentation

A

Chronic disorder with mild to moderate anemia

splenomegaly and jaundice –> bilirubin stones often occur, leading to cholecystitis, often at a young age.

Severe anemia occurs when co-infection with Folate deficiency or Parvo B19 infection

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77
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis Labs.. what are the following?

MCV
MCHC
LDH
Indirect Bili
Retic count
Coombs test result
A

Elevated LDH (hemolysis.. anytime cells are lysing of any kind.. there is elevated LDH)

Normal to slightly decreased MCV

Elevated MCHC!! concentration of hemoglobin / volume is increased

Elevated indirect bilirubin and Retic count (just like any hemolysis)

Negative COOMBs!! helps differentiate from autoimmune or cold agluttinin

Cells have increased sensitivity to lysis in hypotonic solutions (osmotic fragility test)

Treatment:
folate replacement frequently
splenectomy (symptoms will resolve but spherocytes remain)

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78
Q

Confirmatory test, and treatment for PNH

A

Flow Cytometry to see ABSENCE of DAF (decay accelerating factor) = Gold standard

absence of CD55 and CD59

Flayer assay is flow cytometry for GPI. THis is actually the most accurate test, but most hospitals cant do it yet. So if this is on the test then this is the answer.

Treatment:

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79
Q

Paraoxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) cause?

A

Red cell membrane defect leading to intermittent dark urine and venous thrombosis and chornic form of hemolysis.

damaged PIG-A gene –? No GPI on the RBC membrane..if there is no PIG-A gene then CD55 (Decay Accelerating Factor) cant attach to the RBC membrane and protect the RBC –> without this complement are free to lyse the RBC.

For anemia - give RBCs
for Thrombosis give Warafrin!!

80
Q

What are PNH patients at increased risk for?

A

PNH is a clonal stem cell disorder that can develop into Aplastic Anemia or Lukemia

81
Q

What is the MCC of death for patients with PNH?

A

VENOUS thrombosis!

Hepatic vein thrombosis - Budd-Chiari Syndrome

82
Q

PNH treatment?

A

Eclizumab blocks C5 and also lowers amount of venous thrombosis

83
Q

What do you have to look out for before perscribing the following Monoclonal Antibodies (MABs)?
Etanercept
Eclizumab
Rituximab

A

Etanercept - make sure patient doesn’t have Tb

Eclizumab - vaccinate against Nisseria

Rituximab - look for hepb and hep c first

84
Q

Whats the number one cause of G6PD related Hemolysis?

A

Infection.

G6PD patients are normal until they have some type of a stress.
#1 cause is infection

Drugs often can cause the oxidative stress that slips G6PD patietns into hemolytic states “in question stem look for hemolysis after drug ingestion”

Fava beans

85
Q

G6PD findings

A

IV hemolysis (everything you see in any IV hemolysis you see here)

High LDH (anytime cells break you have high LDH)
Bilirubin
Elevated retic count

Normal MCV
Low haptoglobin
Hemoglobinuria

Definitive test for G6PD deficiency?
G6PD level (best if tested 1 week after event)
86
Q

what is the Definitive test for G6PD deficiency?

A

G6PD level (best if tested 1 week after event)

87
Q

How do you diagnose G6PD deficiency during an acute event?

A

Do a peripheral Smear with a Supravital stain (you can only see heinz bodies with a supravital stain!)

Heinz bodies - precipitated hemoglobin inclusions seen in RBCs

Bite Cells - Indicate removal of Heinz bodies

G6PD level to confirm disease is done at least 1 week later

Where else do you see heniz bodies?
Alpha thalassemias. thus to confirm that this is G6PD must do G6PD level one week later.

88
Q

G6PD treatment?

A

No specific therapy beyond HYDRATION and TRANSFUSION if hemolysis is severe.

Main therapy is to avoid the trigger that led to the oxidant stress in the first place.

89
Q

Aplastic anemia findings?

A

Failure of all 3 cell lines produced in bone marrow:
Anemia (RBCs)
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia

On CBC all 3 cell lines are low.

Bone Marrow will be empty (no precursors)

Thus MAT is Bone Marrow Biopsy

Causes of Aplastic anemia:
Radiation
Toxins (benzene) –> leads to myelodysplastic syndrome, lukemia/lymphoma
Drugs –> nasaids, chloramphenocol, alcohol
Infections –> hepatitis, HIV, CMV, EBV, ParvoB19

90
Q

What are symptoms of aplastic anemia?

A

RBC deficency –> anemia –> fatigue
WBC deficency –> neutropenia –> infections
Thrombocyte deficency –> Bleeding

Must do Bone Marrow biopsy to confirm!!!

91
Q

What is seen on bone marrow biopsy in Aplastic Anemia

A

CBC - pancytopenia

Bone marrow biopsy will show Hypoplastic marrow and fat filled, with NO abnormal cells seen.

92
Q

Aplastic anemia treatment?

A

Mild disease:
growth factors- EPO / Darbepoetin; Filgastrim / sargramostim

Severe disease
BMT - for patients young and healthy (less than 40yo)
can cure up to 80-90%

If BMT not possible for patient then use immunospuppresive agents like:
antithymocyte globulin, cyclosporine, and prednisone
these therapies can lead to remission in 60-70% of pts.

93
Q

What are the two types of WBC tumors?

A

Lukemia and Lymphomas

whats the diff?
Location. They are the same tumors in diff locations.

Lukemia - blood
Lymphoma - LN

94
Q

How do you diagnose all Lymphomas and what are the 2 kinds?

How do you diagnose the two?

A

Biopsy the Lymph nodes… (lymphomas are WBC tumors in LNs.. biopsy it.)

2 types:
Hodgkins—> has Reed Sternberg cells
Non-Hodgkins –> does not…

After you figure out non-hodg vs hodg then you STAGE THE TUMOR!

95
Q

How do you treat lymphomas?

A

Identify –> stage

Then treat with Chemo!

96
Q

How do you diagnose lukemia?

A

CBC or Bone Marrow Biopsy (will see the abnormal WBCs here)

There is 2 types of lukemia
Acute –> more than 20% blasts in BM (must check BONE MARROW for acute)
Chornic- Mature cells –> must DO CBC check blood for chronic

97
Q

what if you have acute lukemia with blasts below 20%

A

if you have blasts that are elevated but below 20% then its not acute lukemia!! its called myelodysplastic syndrome (precursor)

98
Q

Acute Lukemia Definition and disease progression

A

Rapid onset of Bone Marrow Failure form derangement of pluripotent stem cells –> relentless destruction of normal production in entire BM – > blood cells lose ability to mature and function

Eventually Lukemic blast cells crowd out all normal cell lines in the bone marrow –> leading to pancytopenia
Anemia –> fatigue
Infections –> No productive WBCs
Bleeding —> thrombocytopenia

99
Q

What disorder is ALL associated with?

A

down syndrome

100
Q

what are symptoms associated with acute lukemias?

A

bone pain - crowding of BM with blasts causes bone pain.

Enlargement of liver / spleen
Enlargment of lymphnodes seen in ALL (Lymphoblasts going home to nodes)

High numbers of Lukemic cells can cause Leucostasis –> sludging of blood in vasculature –> Depending on which vessele the slugging is happening in you can get the following symptoms headaches, dyspnea, confusion, hemohrage.
For patients having these symptoms do Leukophoresis! this works quick.. you cant wait for chemo.. that will take to long.. these are acute symptoms.

101
Q

What is seen in M3 (promeyelocytic lukemia)?

A

M3 is a subtype of AML!

M3 is associated with DIC

In M3 you see Auer Rods

102
Q

What kind of symptoms do you get in M4 and M5?

A

M4 and M5 are subtypes AML

They “M”imic “Meningitis” like symptoms.

103
Q

What is leucostasis? and what is treatment?

A

High numbers of Lukemic cells can cause Leucostasis –> sludging of blood in vasculature –> Depending on which vessele the slugging is happening in you can get the following symptoms headaches, dyspnea, confusion, hemohrage.
For patients having these symptoms do Leukophoresis! this works quick.. you cant wait for chemo.. that will take to long.. these are acute symptoms.

104
Q

What are other disorders with pancytopenia and how do you differentiate from Acute Leukemia?

A
Pancytopenia seen in:
Aplastic Anemia
Bone Marrow Infections
Metastatic cancer involving marrow
B12 Deficiency
SLE
Hypersplenism
Myelofibrosis

None of these will have BLASTS! On BMB. Must do BMB

IF you see high number of blasts (>20%) its acute leukemia not another cause.

105
Q

How do you differentiate between AML and ALL?

A

Must do a Stain! cant tell just off seeing blasts in biopsy.

AML:
Auer rods / myeloperoxidase - M3
Esterase - M4 and M5
PAS+ = M6

ALL:
TdT (Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transferase) - this is diagnostic
You see blasts with TdT = ALL
also will see CALLA (common ALL antigen) AKA CD10 - Blasts with CALLA = ALL

ALL can be B cell or Tcell how do you differentiate?
CD <10 = T cell
CD ~ 20 (19-23) = B cell

T cell tumors are much more malignant. “T” stands for terrible.

MAT = Flow Cytometry. This can give you info on CD number and thus what kind of specific subtype it is.

106
Q

What is the MAT to diagnose AML and ALL?

A

Flow cytometry

107
Q

Acute Lukemia treatment

A

Chemo –> Goal is to get patient to remission

If there is relapse –> BMT

108
Q

AML Treatment?

A

AraC (cytosine arabinoside)
+
Danorubicin or Idrarubicin
Both have cardiotoxicity!

Add Methotrexate if on spinal tap you see blasts - only scenario that you give methotrexate in AML.

If AML M3 (15:17) give the above + ATRA (all trans retinoic acid)

109
Q

ALL treatment?

A

Danorubicin (cardio tox)
Vincristine (peripheral neuropathy)
Prednisone
Methotrexate - Give to all ALL patients!

110
Q

CML definition

A

Massive overproduction of Myeloid cells

All cells are being overproduced – but mostly Myeloid (WBCs)

WBC count will be so high that it often results in leukostasis –> do leukopheresis when symptoms present

CML caused by (9;22) translocation = Philadelphia chromosome

Philadelphia chormosome characteristics:
BCR; ABL translocation –> increased Tyrosine Kinase activity (always phosphorylating)

Treatment = Imantinib (blocks tyrosine kinase)

‘tinib’ = tyrosine kinase inhibitors.

111
Q

Does Imantinib cure CML?

A

no. It stops Tyrosine Kinase, and thus the Tumor Cannot grow. But it doesnt shrink the tumor or anything.

112
Q

CML presentation

A

Abdominal pain
splenomegally (spleen gets huge, same size as liver almost)
Leukostasis (dyspnea, priapism, blurry vision)

113
Q

CML Diagnosis and treatment

A

B12 is often elevated in CML

Need to see the philadelphia chormosome to make diagnosis –> PCR or FISH for BCR-ABL is the most accurate test.

Elevated platelet count

Imatinib, Dasatinib, Nilotinib
These Tinibs are the best initial therapy.

If the tinibs dont work then do BMT (this is 2nd line.. always try tinibs first)

114
Q

Chronic Lymphocytic Lukemia

A

Seen in OLDER PEOPLE (>50 for sure)

Massive overproduction of mature, but still leukemic, lymphocytes usually from the monoclonal production of B lymphocytes

Etiology is unknown

Asymptomatic elevation of WBCs - found on routine evaluation / during investigations for other problems –> mainly Lymphocytes

This is a lukemia.. but it may have 1 or 2 enlarged nodes also

115
Q

CLL prognosis

A

Survival for stages 0 and 1
10-12 years even without treatment

Survival of stage 3 and 4
1-2 years

What dictates a higher stage?
when there is anemia - stage 3
when thre is thrombocytopenia - stage 4

stage 0- lymphocytosis alone
stage 1- lymphadenopathy
stage 2- splenomegaly
stage 3 - anemia
stage 4 - thrombocytopenia
116
Q

CLL diagnosis

A

Elevated WBCs with Lymphocytic predominance (80-90%)

Strongly associated with CD19

Smudge cells seen on smear are characteristic of CLL

Diagnosis confirmation will be with Flow Cytometry finding B and T cells.
Will be positive for B-cell (CD19-23) AND T-cell (CD-5) = this is characteristic

117
Q

CLL treatment

A

treat high stage only (anemia and thrombocytopenia) stage 3 and 4.

Treat with Fludarabine - DOC choice.. has greater efficacy then chlorambucil.
Also Give:
Prednisone - for patients with autoimmune hemolysis or thrombocytopenia (stage 4)
Rituximab - Patients with hemolytic anemia, ITP, Or those who express CD20

Chlorambucil only used when patient cant come to the office every week for chemo with fludarabine.

118
Q

Hairy Cell Lukemia

A
Middle aged man with:
pancytopenia
splenomegaly
monoctyopenia
dry tap despite hypercellular bone marrow on Biopsy.
119
Q

Hairy cell lukemia best initial test and most accurate test and treatment

A

BIT - Smear showing Hairy cells (must use TRAP stain)
MAT - Immunotyping by flow cytometry - and finding CD11c, CD103, or CD25

Treatment- cladaribine / pentostatin = adenosine deaminase inhibitors. they cause deoxyadenosine to accumulate in hairy cells.. this is toxic and kills the hairy cells.

120
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome findings and treatment

A

Precursor to lukemia Acute Lukemia (less than 20% blasts).

Most common defect is 5q deletion - if this is seen there is a special treatment.

elderly patient with pancytopenia, elevated MCV, fatigue, infections or bleeding.

Give periodic transfusions and control infections as they arise
Give EPO as needed
Disease specific therapy:
if 5q present - give Lenalidomide
If not present then treat with Azacitidine or Decitabine

only known cure - BMT

121
Q

What is the MCC of death from Myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Infections or bleeding.

they develop these far before developing AML

122
Q

Myelodysplastic cells are megalsoblastic how do you differentiate from B12 / Folate deficency?

A

Screen for B12 / folate levels.

Also do a peripheral smear - you will see bi-lobed neutrophils (mature)

Also check the 5q deletion.

123
Q

Polycythemia Vera pathophysiology

A

Normally when there is hypoxia the body triggers EPO production and you make more RBCs.

Normally - when HcT is High then EPO is turned off.

In PCV you will see HIGH HcT and LOW EPO!!

Over expression of JAK2 Kinase

124
Q

Essential Thorombosthenia signs and symptoms and treatment.

A

Same pathophys as PCV –> over-expression of JAK2

Will see either thrombosis or bleeding

Platelet count can be above 1 million sometimes.

Treatment - Hydroxyurea - reduce cell count
Use Anagrelide when hydroxyurea supresses RBCs too much.. this will suppress RBCs less.. but its second line.. use hydroxyurea first!

125
Q

PCV signs and symptoms

A

RBCs produced in excessive amounts in absence of hypoxia or increased EPO levels

Patients present with:
eleveated hematocrit
splenomegaly
sometimes elevated Platlets and WBCs (myeloproliferative - can do other cell lines too)
Thrombosis
Plethora, Redness / fullness of face
Itching after warm bath (use antihistamine)

Confirm diagnosis by viewing high levels of JAK2 = MAT

126
Q

PCV Treatment

A

phlebotomy and aspirin - thrombosis prevention

Hydroxyurea - lowers cell count

Allopurinol / Raburicase - protects agains uric acid rise

Antihistamines

Ruxolitinib - Jak2 inhibitor. Second line for patients not responsding to hydroxyurea or not on it.

127
Q

Multiple Myeloma Overview

A

Clonal Abnormality of Plasma cells (B cells).

Unknown etiology
Over production of functionless immunoglobulins

Disease of Bone Marrow! –> over production results in replacement of BM

Bone Pain:
Punched out lesions in bone (most common clinical manifestation is bone pain in MM)
Bone pain most common in back and ribs, secondary to pathologic fracture

Renal Failure:
Caused by Bence Jones Proteins
high cell turn over can also lead to elevated uric acid.

Hypercalcemia:
Polyuria, Polydipsia, AMS, Short QT interval on EKG

128
Q

What is the MCC of death in multiple myeloma?

A

infections - all the immunoglobulins are useless

Vaccinate these patients against encapsulated organisms. Problem is vaccine wont be super effective since they cant make the right immunoglobulins.. however theyll be able to make some.. so it is still worth doing.

129
Q

First test done with bone pain in MM?

A

X- ray to see lytic lesions

NOT BONE SCAN!

130
Q

Multiple Myeloma Diagnosis

A
  1. x-ray of affected bone –> punched out lesions
  2. Protein Electropheresis –> Markedly elevated monoclonal immunoglobulin (gamma) spike. This can be stated as “elevated total protein with normal albumin”

Everyone has a spike at Albumin.. these patients will have a second spike at the Gamma range (IgG or IgA)

  1. Beta2 Microblobulin is elevated in 75% of patients and corresponds to severity of disease
  2. Hypercalcemia (bone destruction)
  3. Elevated BUN / Cr - damage to kidneys from bence jones and hypercalcemia
  4. BMB - greater than 10% plasma cells confirms the diagnosis
131
Q

Multiple myeloma treatment

A

Best initial therapy = Combination of Dexamethasone + Lenalidomide, Bortezomb or both.

Lenalidomide (proteasome inhibitor) only used in two diseases:

  1. Multiple Myeloma
  2. Myelodysplastic syndrome with 5q deletion

Mephlan + Prednisone is used in older patients
*very important (board question) - if youre going to do a BMT on a patient, then DO NOT use mephalan

Autologus BMT for younger healthy patients (will improve survival but not cure cancer) - candidates for transplant should get thalidomide (or lenalidomide) and Dexamethasone

132
Q

Autologus vs Allogenic BMT

A

Autologus = your own marrow being put back into you

Allogenic = someone elses marrow being put into you

Autologus will prolong survival in some diseases like MM.. because it will take the tumor a while to grow again in the new area.

Allogenic will cure the disease.. but you also have to find the perfect match so the recipient does not reject the marrow.

133
Q

Monoclonal Gammopathy of Unknown Significance (MGUS)

A

Overproduction of a particular immunoglobulin by plasma cells without anything else seen in Multiple myeloma.. so patients will NOT have:

  1. Bone lesions
  2. Renal failure
  3. Hypercalcemia
  4. Anemia
  5. nomral beta2 microglobulin levels
  6. Bone marrow has less than 2% plasma cells

No “M” spike.

This can eventually become Multiple Myeloma down the road.

No treatment for MGUS - just watch it. If it becomes MM then we treat.

134
Q

Hodgkin disease: Definition

A

Neoplastic transformation of lymphocytes particularly in lymph nodes.

CHaracterized by presence of Reed-Sternberg cells

Reed-Sternberg cells spread in orderly, centripetal fashion to contiguous areas of lymph nodes.

135
Q

What virus is associated with hodgkins lymphoma?

A

EBV found in 30%

136
Q

Hodgkins presentation

A

Hallmark - enlarged, painless, rubbery non-erythematous, non-tender lymphnodes.

B Symptoms:
Drenching night sweats
10% weight loss
Fevers

Hurts more with alcohol use.

137
Q

Lymphoma Staging

A

Stage1 = 1 node involved
Stage 2 = 2 or more lymph nodes on same side of diaphragm
Stage 3 = 2 or more lymphnodes on both sides of diaphragm
Stage 4 - Distant metastasis to organs / nodes / tissues

138
Q

Lymphoma workup

A

1st Step = Excisional lymph node biopsy to confirm RS cells or other cells.

2nd Step = stage the cancer via CT or PET scan

3rd Step - Do BMB (to make sure that it didnt spread to BM).. if it did spread to BM then its automatically stage 4! MUST CHECK BM!!

In Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma – Brain is frequently involved.. so in this you will ADD an LP

139
Q

Hodgkin Disease Treatment

A
All patients get Chemo with ABVD:
Adriamycin (Doxorubicin) - cardiotoxic
Bleomycin - pulmonary firborsis
Vinblastine (Bone Marrow tox)
Dacarbazine
140
Q

Non-Hodgkins Lymphomas and associations

A

HIV and EBV - Burkits Lymphoma
HTLV-1 = Adult T-Cell lymphoma
H.Pylori = Maltoma
Hep C = Splenic Marginal Zone lymphoma

141
Q

Non Hodgkin Lymphoma presentation

A

Same B symptoms as Hodgkins:
drenching night sweats, 10% weight loss, fevers

Same Hallmark symptoms - painless enlarged rubbery non-tender lymph-nodes.

However in this the lymph nodes dont hurt more with alcohol usage.

142
Q

NHL treatment

A

Radiation + Chemo

Chemo = CHOP
Cyclophosphamide (hemorrhagic cystitis - treat with MESNA)
Hydroxy-Adriamycin (same as doxorubicin - cardiotox)
Oncovin (vincristine) - peripheral neruopathy
Prednisone

If it is CD20+ - then first do serology to make sure there is no HEP B or C and then add Rituximab (CD 20 antibody)

143
Q

Bleeding disorders:

Platelet vs Coagulation disorders

A
Platelet disorders - present with Superficial bleeding
Skin:
Petechia
Ecchymosis
Purpura
Bruising
Mucus Membranes:
Nosebleeds
Menses
GI/GU
Coagulation disorders - present with Deep Bleeding:
Joints:
Hemarthrosis
Tissue:
Hematoma
Circumcision - heavy bleeding
teeth loss - heavy bleeding
144
Q

How do you work up platelet disorders?

A
  1. platelet count

2. PFA (platelet function assay)

145
Q

How do you work up coagulation disorders?

A

Coag studies - PT / PTT (these two measure everything except factor 13)

Factor Assay - looking at D-dimers (Fibrin split product)

Mixing studies

146
Q

ITP Cause

A

Thrombocytopenia of uknown origin

Idopathic production of paltelet anitbodies

Phagocytosis of platelet-antibody complexes by macrophages in spleen.
Sleenectomy will help in these patients (but not first line)

First line = Steroids!

IF its severe and uncontrolled with steroids –> spleenectomy

147
Q

Presentation of ITP

A

Bleeding form superficial areas
skin, nasal, oral mucosa, GI tract, heavy periods

Petechiae, purpura, and ecchymoses are often found on exam

NO SPLEENOMEGALY

“healthy woman, comes in with excess bleeding.. all you find is low platlets” - ITP until proven otherwise

Normal peripheral smear and creatnine

148
Q

Diagnosis of ITP

A

Antiplatlet antibodies - high sensitivity and low specificity

Next - must do BMB to prove its not a production issue. When you do BMB In these patients you will see normal amount of megakaryocytes.. thus the issue is with platelet desctruction not production.

This is a diagnosis of exclusion - Must rule out the other platlet destruction problems:
HUS - Renal problems (cant be this.. ITP is healthy patients)
TTP- CNS problems (cant be this.. ITP is healthy patients)
DIC - bleeding everywhere - Cant be this..

149
Q

ITP Treatment

A
No bleeding and platlets > 30,000 = no treatment
mild bleeding or platelets <30,000 = steroids
severe bleeding (GI / CNS) or platelets <10,000 = IVIG / Anti-Rho + Platelet transfusion

Recurrent episodes, steroids fail = spleenectomy or rituximab

spleenectomy or steroids not effective?
Romiplostim or eltrombopag

150
Q

VWD disease

A

Autosomal dominant
Most common cause of congenital disorder of hemostasis

Decreased amount of vWF

Decreased ability of platlets to adhere to endothelial lining due to no VWF

Aggregation is NORMAL
ADHERENCE is ABNORMAL

Ristocetin is the ability of platelets to adhere. THis is only abnormal in 2 diseases:

  1. Von willebrand disease
  2. Bernard souiler syndrome (missing 1B)
151
Q

vWD presentation

A
platlet type bleeding - similar to ITP:
mucosal and skin bleeding:
periods
epistaxis
petechiae
bruising
Excess bleeding after aspirin use

In VwD –> platelet count and production are normal.. but there is still bleeding.. so it must be a quality problem.

labs:
Normal platelet count
elevated bleeding time
Platelet function assay - will show abnormal ristocetin

152
Q

vWD diagnosis and confirmation

A

Normal platelet count
elevated bleeding time
Platelet function assay - will show abnormal ristocetin

  1. vWF ag decreased
  2. ristocetin is abnormal
  3. Factor 8 is normal to low. If Factor 8 is low then the PTT will be elevated.
153
Q

Von willebrand disease treatment?

A

Give DESMOPRESSIN!

desmopressin causes vonwillebrand factor and factor 8 release from ENDOTHELIAL cells.

Since desmopressin also releases factor 8 from endothelial cells... what other disease can it be used for?
Hemophilia A (deficient factor 8)

If Desmopressin isnt working then you have to give the patient HUMAN factor 8 (not recombinant). Because Human Factor 8 has vonwillebrand factor in it. Recombinant factor 8 does not.

Human factor 8 = Humate P.

154
Q

Hemophilia A and B: definition

A

Hemophilia A = deficiency of factor 8
Hemophilia B = deficiency of factor 9

This is x- linked –> moms will pass it to the sons.

Discovered by age 2 in most patients.

Symptoms - typical of coagulation disorders:
Hemarthrosis
Hematomas
GI bleeding
Urinary bleeding
Bruising
CNS bleeding
155
Q

Hemophilia A and B - diagnosis

A

It will be a male with Increased PTT!
PT is normal
Bleeding time is normal
Platelet count is normal.

1st step - do a mixing study:
Mix patients blood with normal blood –> PTT becomes normal. thats a positive Hemophilia test.
This will only tell you that a factor deficiency is present.. will not tell you which factor!

If PTT does not correct with mixing then antibody inhibitor of factor is suspected.

So if mixing study is positive.. then to find out which specific hemophilia it is you have to check the Factor 8 and Factor 9 levels.. this will give you the definitive diagnosis.

156
Q

What are the only diseases which increase only PTT?

A

Factor 8 deficiency - hemophilia a
Factor 9 deficiency - hemophila b
Factor 11 deficiency - Hemophilia c (very uncommon)
Factor 12 deficiency - but this one doesn’t bleed so its not in the differential.

8, 9, 11

157
Q

Hemophilia A and B treatment

A

Hemophilia A = Desmopression ( will cause release of factor 8 from endothelial cells)
If desmopressin doesn’t fix it then give recombinant factor 8

Hemophilia B = give recombinant factor 9

In hemophilias you can give recombinant factors 8 and 9 because you dont need the vWF. In vWF disease you have to give HUMAN factor 8 because only that has vWF with it.

158
Q

Vitamin K deficency

A

results in decreased production of factors:
2,7,9,10
this results in increased PT and PTT

Factor 7 usually runs out first –> thus PT is elevated first.

Caused by - dietary deficiency, malabsorption, use of antibiotics that kill vitamin K producing bacteria in the colon.
Warfarin overdose causes vita k deficency

Clinical presentation - bleeding that mimics hemophilia
May occur at sites of venapuncture.

159
Q

Vita K deficiency diagnosis and treatment

A

Give vita K –> if this corrects PT and PTT then the diagnosis is confirmed.

Treatment:
For active bleeding - Fresh Forzen Plasma.
give vitamin K at the same time to correct the underlying production defect.

160
Q

Coagulopathy of liver disease

A

Coagulopathy caused by decreased production of clotting factors by the liver.

The liver produces ALL clotting factors EXCEPT factor 8 and vWF - these are produced in the endothelial cells of blood vessels.

Any severe liver disease or cirrhosis will cause this

Elevation of both PT and PTT
PT elevates first (because factor 7 runs out first)

CLinically indistinguishable form Vitamin K deficency

161
Q

How do you distinguish coagulopathy of liver disease from vitamin K deficency?

A

Give vitamin k.

If PT and PTT correct.. then its vita k deficency. If it doesnt.. then its coagulopathy of liver disease.

162
Q

Treatment of coagulopathy of liver disease?

A

FOr acute bleeding - fresh frozen plasma

long term managment is based on nature of liver disease – liver transplant.

163
Q

DIC

A

consumptive coagulopathy. use up all the plattlets to make clots. And then they lyse and you bleed to death.

causes are:
Delivery (amniotic fluid embolisim, abruptio placentae)
Infections - all infections but espcially nisseria
Cancers ( adenocarcinomas / M3 (promyelocytic lukemia)

M3 is a classic association with DIC.

164
Q

DIC Labs

A
Decreased platlet count
Elevated both PT and PTT
Low fibrinogen level (Factor 1)
Elevated D-dimer level (fibrin split products)
Schistocytes on peripheral smear

Confirmatory test = elevated D-dimer

165
Q

DIC treatment

A

FFP - Fresh frozen plasma and sometimes platelet transfusions to correct severe bleeding

Heparin - rarely used except when presenting with predominantly thrombosis

Correct the underlying cause!!!!

166
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

A

Look at HISTORY! must have recieved Heparin.. one week later platelet count drops by 50%

Caused by antibodies against heparin - platelet factor 4 complexes.

167
Q

Diagnosis of HIT

A

You can do an ELISA to see the antibodies that are activating the platelets

CHeck serotonin levels –> this will show that the platelets have been activated

Once patient gets HIT.. they can never get heparin again for the rest of their lives.

168
Q

Treatement of HIT

A
  1. stop heparin
  2. and start Argatroban or Bivalirudin (direct thrombin inhibitors)
  3. Then start Coumadin!
169
Q

Acute Hemolytic Transfusion reaction

A

Fever, Flank Pain, Hemoglobinuria, Renali failure and DIC within 1 hour of transfusion!

Positive coombs test *Antiboidy mediated

Caused by ABO incompatibility

170
Q

Febirile non-hemolytic anemia (most common reaction from transfusion)

A

Fever and Chills ONLY

occurs within 1-6 hours of transfusion

Caused by cytokine accumulation durring blood storage. can be prevented by reducing WBCs in stored blood.

171
Q

Delayed Hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Mild fever and hemolytic anemia

occurs within 2-10 days after transfusion.

Positive direct coombs and positive new antibodiy screen

Caused by amanestic antibody response

172
Q

Anaphylactic reaction to transfusion

A

Rapid onset of shock! –> angioedema / urtricaria and respiratory distress.

Within seconds to minutes of a transfusion.

Caused by recipient anti-IgA antibodies

173
Q

Utricarial / Allergic transfusion reaction

A

Utricaria, flushing, angioedema, and pruritis

Within 2-3 hours of transfusion

Caused by recipient IgE antibodies and mast cell activation

174
Q

Seminoma

and

Mixed Germ-cell tumors

A

Seminoma :
Elevated B-HCG with NORMAL AFP

Mixed Germcell tumors:
Elevated B-HCG and AFP

175
Q

What is the preffered antigocagulation therapy in ESRD?

A

Warfarin - cant ever start warfarin alone because it inhibits 2,7,9,10 and anticoagulant proteins C and S

Inhibition of C and S causes a prothromobhotic state initially and thus needs to be bridged with heparin.

Start patients with unfractioned heparin (IV) and then on warfarin (same day.. typically that evening) until the INR is theraputic (usually 4-5 days).. then the patient can be DCd on warfarin.

176
Q

What two anticogaulants can you not give in ESRD?

A

LMWH and Rivaroxaban (direct 10a inhibitor) are metabolized by the kidney, and are thus CONTRAINDICATED in ESRD

177
Q

Wiskott - aldrich syndrome

A

X-linked recessive defect in WAS protein gene –> impaired cytoskeleton changes in leukocytes and platelets.

The impaired cytoskeleton leads to immunce dysfunction due to impaired cellular migration and immune synapse formation.

Clinical features:
exczema
microthrombocytopenia (small platelets, low count)
Reccurent infecitons

Treatment - stem cell transplant

178
Q

Ataxia Telangiectasia

A

T-cell deficiency associated with a defect in DNA repair.

Causes immune dysfunction, cerebellar degeneration and a high risk for cancer.

179
Q

Chornic Granulomatous Disease

A

Results from an inability of phagocytes to produce hydrogen peroxide in their lysosomes.

Abscesses due to fungi or catalase positive bacteria (s.aureus) are characteristic

180
Q

SCID

A

Severe T-cell deficiency.

Interleukin-7-driven maturation of Tcells in the thymus is inhibited. Patients with SCID have virtually no T cells.

THe lack of T cells inevitably causes B cell dysfunction also.

181
Q

When is dronabinol useful?

A

Preventing cachexia in advanced HIV!

Not useful in cancer related cachexia

182
Q

Treating cancer related cachexia

A

Progesterone analogues (Megestrol Acetate and Medroxyprogesterone Acetate) and Corticosteroids are the treatments of choice in cancer related cachexia treatment.

183
Q

SSRIs and cachexia

A

SSRIs can treat anoreixa related to depression. But if the patient has no underlying depression then SSRIs are not useful

184
Q

GVHD pathophysciology

A

Caused by recognition of host major and minor HLA antigens by DONOR T-Cells (seen in up to 50% of patients with transplant from matched siblings)

Attacks the following:
skin - maculopapular rash on palms, soles, and face

Intestine - bloody diarhea

Liver - abnormal liver function tests and jaundice

185
Q

Warfarin induced skin necrosis

A

Occurs in patients with protein C deficiency. Manifests as a edemeatous / purpuric rash that appears within the first few days of warfarin therapy.

Stop wafrarin! ang give Protein C concentrate

186
Q

What is the MCC of pediatric stroke?

A

Sickle cell disease

Storke;; 
Focal neuro deficits
Hemiparesis
aphasia
seizures
AMS

Diagnose with Hemoglobin Electrophoresis

If you are concerned about the stroke must perfomr an MRI to confirm the diagnosis.

187
Q

How does Heparin Work?

A

Heparin activates Antithrombin 3. Which in turn inactivates factor 2a (thrombin),9a and 10a.

188
Q

Which factor is thrombin?

A

2a

189
Q

How does clopidogrel work?

A

Clopidogrel is an anti-platelet which prevetns platelet activation by blocking ADENOSINE DIPHOSPHATE receptors on the surface of platelets

190
Q

How does aspirin work?

A

it in hibits cox-1, therby inhibiting synthesis of Thromboxane A2

191
Q

What will be elevated with either B12 or Folate Deficency?

A

Homocysteine.

Both FOlate and Cobalimin are involved in the conversion of Homocysteine to Methionine. If either are missing then Methionine levels drop and Homocysteine levels Rise!

192
Q

How do you distinguish between folate and b12 deficency

A

check levels.

but you can look at Methylmalonic acid concentrations. Cobalimin (unlike folic acid) is involved in the conversion of Methylmalonyl-CoA to Succinyl-CoA.

A deficecny in cobalimin –> high levels of Methylmalonic acid.

193
Q

How long does it take to develop B12 or folate deficiency from a lack of nutrition?

A

B12 - comes from meats. would take 5+ years to deplete body stores and become deficient.

folate - green leafy veggies. would take 5-10 weeks to develop nutritional deficiency.

194
Q

Number of RBCs in IDA vs Thalassemia

What kind of RBCs wil you see on peripheral smear in thalassemia?

A

In IDA # of RBCs is decreased (normal = 3.7-6MM)

In Thalassemia - # of RBCs is NORMAL

Peripheral smear of Thalassemia = TARGET CELLS

195
Q

How do you diagnose MM?

A

Screening tests of choice is Serum or urine protein electrophoresis or free light chain analysis.

Confirmation of diagnosis is done with BMB

196
Q

For patients with sickle cell disease on Hydroxyurea.. how many of their cells will be HbF?

A

Sickle cell disease NOT on on hydroxy urea = 80-95% will be sickle cells and 10-15% will be HbF.

Patients on Hydroxyurea will have ABOVE 15% HbF!!

197
Q

Parathesias post transfusion cause?

A

WHole blood and PRBCs are stored with Citrate (as a preservative).

Citrate chelates both Calcium and Magnesium. leading to decreased plasma levels in the recipient.

THis leads to parsthesias.