Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

___________ is the main component of RBCs that carry O2 and CO2

A

Hemoglobin

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2
Q

T/F: Hemoglobin levels may be lower in African American children

A

True

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3
Q

____________ is the ratio of RBC volume to whole blood volume

A

Hematocrit

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4
Q

______ _______ _______ is the measure of RBC size

A

Mean Corpuscular volume (MCV)

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5
Q

T/F: RBC’s are larger in adulthood than at birth?

A

False

Large at birth –> can remain larger through puberty

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6
Q

________ _________ ______ is the amount of hemoglobin in each RBC

A

Mean Corpuscular Hgb (MCH)

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7
Q

________ _______ _____ ________ is similar to MCH but measures the concentration of Hgb in each RBC and measures chromicity

A

Mean Corpuscular Hgb Concentration (MCHC)

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8
Q

What types of disorders/diseases can lead to microcytic hypochromic anemia?

THREE

A

Iron deficiency
Lead poisoning
Thalessemia

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9
Q

Anemias due to chronic inflammation result from failure to mobilize ______ from storage sites through the transferrin system, thus erythroid precursors are insensitive to _____.

A

Iron

EPO

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10
Q

__________ anemia is a very rare condition which is confirmed by the presence of ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow

A

Sideroblastic Anemia

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11
Q

_________ hemolytic anemias result from a high reticulocyte response

A

Extrinsic (Aquired)

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12
Q

_________ hemolysis results from microangiopathic damage to RBCs.

What types of diseases are associaed with this?

A

Fragmentation Hemolysis

Can result from……

TTP
HUS
Giant Hemangioma
Artifical heart valves

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13
Q

_______-_______ hemolytic anemia is a hemolytic disease of a new born and is mediated by antibodies

A

Immune-mediated

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14
Q

What types of diseases or disorders are associated with immune-mediated hemolytic anemias?

A

Collagen Vascular Disease
Lymphoma
Drugs

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15
Q

What disorders or diseases are associated with normocytice anemias with a low reticulocyte response?

A

Inadequate bone marrow response / RBC aplasia
Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood (TEC)
Diamond Blackfan Anemia
Aplastic crisis

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16
Q

Aplastic crisis is typically transient and results from what virus?

A

Parvovirus B19

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17
Q

T/F: Aplastic crisis WOULD NOT result in significant exacerbation of anemia in patients with hemolytic diseases

A

False

It would

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18
Q

What history “factors / questions / information” is important to obtain when evaluating a patient for a possible anemia?

A
  1. Birth History (Prematurity)
  2. Family Hx
  3. Gender
  4. Diet
  5. Socioeconomic
  6. Travel Hx
  7. Drug Use
  8. Hx of Jaundice / Stones
  9. Systemic / Chronic Illnesses
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19
Q

Clinical presentation and Sx vary in patients with anemia but are typically dependent on the rate and reduction of ____.

Typically, physiologically disturbances are not seen until _______ is lower than ____

A

Hgb

Hgb

<7-8

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20
Q

What Sx may you see in a patient who is anemic?

A
Fatigue
SOB
Syncope
Pallor
Hypotension
CHF Sx
AMS
Pica
Tachycardia
Anorexia
Palpitations 
Vertigo 
Sore Tongue
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21
Q

What important lab values within a CBC should be checked when evaluating a patient for anemia?

Is one set of abnormal values enough to determine a patient’s anemia status?

A

Hgb
Hct
MCV
RBC#

No, these need to be abnormal on TWO draws

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22
Q

Other than a CBC what additional lab tests are helpful when evaluating a patient for anemia?

A
Reticulocyte count
Peripheral Smear
UA
Comb's Test
Guaiac stool 

(Always remember the ‘pediatric rule of thumb’ in peds patients)

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23
Q

If you a NEWBORN is anemic what may likely be the cause of their anemia?

In early infancy?

6 mo - 12 yo?

Adolescence and beyond?

A

Newborn: Blood loss or hemolysis

Early Infancy: RBC Aplasia, Physiological anemia

6mo - 12yo: Nutritional anemia, inflammation, bone marrow infiltration

Adolescence: Iron Deficiency

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24
Q

_____ ________ is used for children with sickle cell disease who present with a fever of 101 or higher

A

Fever Protocol

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25
Q

T/F: Individuals with sickle cell disease have an increased risk of septicemia, especially in childhood

A

True

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26
Q

_______ is typically the herald of on of the acute complications of SCD such as ACS or Osteomylitis

A

Fever

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27
Q

What is a common source of infection in patients with SCD?

A

Venous Catheterization

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28
Q

In a SCD patient presenting with a fever, other than a history and physical, what should be immediately obtained?

A

CBC with Diff

Blood and urine Cx

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29
Q

A SCD patient with a fever of 103.1 or higher should be _________ for observation and given IV ___

A

Hospitalized

IV Abx

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30
Q

A febrile SCD patient presents with SOB, Dyspnea, Cough, and Rales…..

Other than CBC and Cx, what should be obtained?

A

CXR

Evaluating for acute ACS

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31
Q

A febrile SCD patient presents with multifocal bone tenderness accompanied with erythema and swelling…..

What is the most concernning DDx?

A

Acute bacterial osteomylitis

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32
Q

Immediately after blood Cxs are drawn on a febrile SCD patient what should be given?

What could be added in combination with this?

A

50 mg/kg of Ceftriaxone IV

15 mg/kg of Vancomycin can be added in combination in some patients

(Observe following this)

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33
Q

What is the admission criteria for febrile SCD patients?

What additional findings would raise concern and likely lead to admission?

A
  1. < 9-12 months old
  2. Problematic follow up
  3. Unstable during observation following ABx

Others….

Hx of sepsis
Temperature >104
Pain
Anemia
Leukocytosis
Luekopenia
Thrombocytopenia
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34
Q

If a febrile SCD patient is able to be discharge from the ED, what needs to occur?

What should the patient’s parents be educated on?

A

Follow up within 24 hr with pediatrician of sickle cell doctor for re-check and 2nd ABx dose.

Patient’s parents need to be educated that if the patient worsens they need to return to the ED

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35
Q

Acute worsening anemia in patients with a history of anemia is classified by Hgb values less than what?

A

a Hgb >2 below known baseline

a Hgb <6 if the baseline is unknown

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36
Q

What are common causes of acute anemia?

A
  1. Associated w/ a vaso-occlusive crisis or ACS
  2. Associated w/ infection
  3. Hydroxyurea toxicity
  4. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
  5. Aplastic episode (parvovirus B19, more common in children, adolescents)
  6. Splenic sequestration (more common in children, adolescents)
  7. Hepatic sequestration
  8. Acute blood loss due to papillary necrosis
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37
Q

If a patient is acutely anemic and presenting with symptoms of tachycardia, dyspnea, lightheadedness, hypoxia, and pain what should be given?

A

Simple Blood Transfusion

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38
Q

RBCs that are transfused should include matching for ___, __, and __ antigens

A

C, E, and K antigens

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39
Q

T/F: Transfusion should be avoided in a Hgb >10

A

True

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40
Q

Other than a Hgb >10, when should blood transfusion be avoided?

A
  1. Iron Overload

2. RBC Alloimmunization (Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, patients become non-transfusable)

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41
Q

This type of pain in SCD patients results in tissue damage often described as crushing, pounding, or squeezing

A

Inflammatory or nociceptive pain

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42
Q

This type of pain in SCD patients is a primary dysfunction of the nervous system that affects the somatosensory system resulting in damage to the peripheral or central nervous sytem

A

Neuropathic pain

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43
Q

Name the clinical charateristic of neuropathic pain in a SCD patient from the description below…..

  1. Exaggerated pain from a stimulus that normally produces pain
  2. Pain precipitated by a stimulus that is not normally painful
A
  1. Hypersensitivity

2. Allodynia

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44
Q

How is Neuropathic pain in a SCD patient typically described?

A
Burning
Aching
Cold
Numb
Radiating
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45
Q

_________ _________ pain crisis typically onsets suddenly (can be gradual) is triggered by cold, stress, or infection and manifests as severe pain in the chest, extremities, and in the back.

A

Vaso-occlusive

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46
Q

T/F: Labs, biomarkers, and imaging are able to include/exclude a pain crisis and validate the severity

A

False

Those can not

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47
Q

Are vaso-occlusive crisis patients at a high-risk for developing complications?

A

Yes

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48
Q

How is a vaso-occlusive crisis typically managed?

A

Analgesics

Typically opioids

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49
Q

The _____ _____ ____ is a scoring system used by more than half of the ED’s in the USA to triage SCD patients.

A

Emergency Severity Index

Level 2 = very high priority

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50
Q

A patient presenting with a vaso-occlusive crisis should receive analgesics within ____ minutes of triage or ___ minutes of registration

A

30

60

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51
Q

______ are commonly used to treat vaso-occlusive crisises if the patient has mild-moderate pain

A

NSAIDs

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52
Q

Should use transfuse just to treat pain in a SCD patient?

A

No

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53
Q

T/F: Incentive Spirometery should be encouraged during a pain crisis and ambulation should occur to avoid ACS

A

True

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54
Q

If a patient severely deteriorates during a vaso-occlusive pain crisis, what should you evaluate for?

A

Multi-organ failure

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55
Q

_______ _______ _______ is the exposure of blood to pro-coagulation such as tissue factor and cancer which forms fibrin in circulation leading to fibrinolysis and the depletion of clotting factors.

This ultimately leads to end organ damage.

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

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56
Q

T/F: 25% thrombotic events in pts w/ inherited thrombophilia are associated w/ additional presence of an acquired risk factor

A

False

50%

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57
Q

Pts w/ >1 form of ______ thrombophilia or >1 from of _______ thrombophilia appear to have greater risk for thrombosis

A

Inherited

Acquired

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58
Q

What THREE anatomical disorders result in an increased risk for the patient to be in a hypercoaguable state?

A
  1. Paget-Schroetter syndrome (Subclavian/axillary vein compression)
  2. May-Thurner syndrome (Iliac vein compression syndrome)
  3. Congenital venous malformations of the inferior vena cava (Absent IVC syndrome)
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59
Q

What do patients in hypercoaguable states commonly present with?

A

DVT or PE

Remember Virchow’s Triad

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60
Q

Patients with DVT/PE should be treated with what type of anticoagulants and for how long?

A

Direct factor Xa inhibitors:
Rivaroxaban, Apixaban, Edoxaban

Indirect factor Xa inhibitors:
Enoxaparin, Fondaparinux

3 months (Occasionally 6 months in PE tx)

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61
Q

Acquired thrombophilia can occur as a result of what?

A
  1. Surgery / Hospitalization
  2. Malignancy
  3. Travel / Prolonged bed rest / Immobility
  4. Pregnancy
  5. OCPs
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62
Q

If a patient presents with any combination of the following….

Petechiae 
Ecchymosis
Menorrhagia 
Epistaxis 
Bleeding gums
Hemarthosis 

What type of disorder should you suspect?

A

Bleeding disorder

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63
Q

What type of medications may result in a patients increased risk for bleeding?

A
  1. Anticoagulants
  2. NSAIDs
  3. Beta-lactam ABx
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64
Q

What labs would be most helpful in evaluating a patients bleeding risk?

A
  1. PT, aPTT

2. Platelet Count / Function test

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65
Q

What can be given to treat bleeding as a result of Warfarin?

Severe bleeding?

Bleeding as a result of Heparin?

Factor Deficiency?

vWB?

A

Warfarin: Vitamin K

Severe Bleeding: FFP

Heparin: Protamine

Factor Deficiency: Replace the factor

vWB: Intranasal ddAV

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66
Q

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

A

von Willebrand Disease

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67
Q

Factor ___ deficiency would have a prolonged PT and normal aPTT

A

VII

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68
Q

Warfarin use or vitamin K deficiency would have a prolong ___ and normal ___

A

PT

aPTT

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69
Q

What factor deficiencys may be seen in a patient with a normal PT and a prolonged aPTT?

A

Factor VIII Deficiency (Hemophilia A)
Factor IX Deficiency (Christmas Disease)
Factor XI Deficiency
Factor XII Deficiency (will NOT cause bleeding)

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70
Q

If a patient has a normal PT and a prolonged aPTT what anticoagulant may have been administered?

A

Heparin

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71
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) would have a ________ PT and aPTT

A

Prolonged

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72
Q

______ ______ is a macrocytic anemia that commonly results from EtOH abuse, poor diet, or malaborsption.

CBC: Megaloblastic anemia
MCV: High
Folate: <3 (Low)

A

Folate Deficiency

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73
Q

How is folate deficiency treated?

A

Supplemental oral folate

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74
Q

_____ __ ______ is a macrocytic anemia that commonly results from poor dietary history or gastric bypass with neuropathy.

CBC: Megaloblastic anemia, hypersegmented neutrophils
MMA: High
MCV: High
Folate: Normal

A

Vitamin B12 Deficiency

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75
Q

How is Vitamin B12 deficiency treated?

A

B12 Replacement (Typically IM)

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76
Q

Symptomatically, how can folate deficiency and vitamin B12 deficiency be distinguished from one another>

A

The presence of neurological symptoms would indicate Vitamin B12 deficiency

These include….

Loss of proprioception
Vibratory Sense
Swollen red tongue
Anorexia
Paresthsias
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77
Q

______ ______ occurs with vitamin B12 deficiency secondary to decreased intrinsic factor

A

Pernicious Anemia

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78
Q

What is a useful lab value in distinguishing between folate and vitamin b12 deficiency?

A

MMA (Methylmalonic acid)

This will be elevated in Vitamin B12 deficiency

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79
Q

Pernicious will have a positive _______ test with ________ levels of intrinsic factor

It will also have a ________ antibody to intrinsice factor

A

Schilling Test

Decreased intrinsic factor levels

Positive antibody

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80
Q

______ ______ is the most common cause of anemia

A

Iron Deficiency

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81
Q

What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in Men?

Women?

A

Men: Chronic occult bleeding

Women: Menstrual blood loss

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82
Q

Is iron deficiency anemia microcytic or macrocytic?

A

Microcytic

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83
Q

What is a unique symptom of iron deficiency anemia?

what additional symptoms may be present?

A

Pica

Pallor (Skin, Conjunctiva)
Spoon Nails
Fatigue
Weakness

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84
Q

In a patient with iron deficiency anemia what would you expect the values to be (High or low) in a…..

TIBC?

MCV?

MCH?

Ferritin?

A

TIBC: High

Everything else is low

(Remember low MCV = microcytic, low MCH = hypochromic)

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85
Q

How is iron deficiency anemia treated?

When is this treatment given?

When are changes most likely to be seen?

How long until the anemia is corrected?

A

Iron Salts
Saccharated Iron

Given 30 minutes before meals

Changes are likely to be seen after 2 weeks of therapy

The anemia should be corrected in 2 months

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86
Q

If a patient fail to improve on the standard iron deficiency treatment, what may be occuring?

A
  1. Hemorrhage
  2. Infection / Cancer
  3. Insufficient iron intake
  4. Malabsorption
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87
Q

What is an additional cause low MCV?

A

Lead poisoning

88
Q

_______ anemia is the premature breakdown of cells

A

Hemolytic anemia

89
Q

_______ hemolytic anemia is due to an abnormal RBC cytoskeleton which produces accelerated RBC destruction in spleen

90
Q

___ _______ is X-linked and commonly presents following an acute illness or medication use and is more common in african american populations and in males.

A

G6PD Deficiency

91
Q

G6PD Defficiency is ___-linked and common in _______ ________ that can result in hemolysis after acute ______ or intake of certain drugs that produce peroxide and causes oxidation of Hb and RBC membranes.

A

X-Linkes

African Americans

Illnesses

92
Q

What medications are commonly associated with G6PD Deficiency?

(THINK: anything that damages RBCs)

A
  1. Antimalarials (Primaquine)
  2. Analgesics (Phenacetin, ASA)
  3. Sulfonamides
93
Q

G6PD Deficiency is typically asymptomatic.

What symptoms may you notice if there was active hemolysis occurring?

A

Malaise
Lumbar Pain
Abdominal Pain

  • Anemia
  • Jaundice
  • Dark Stool

(*Indicative of progressive disease)

94
Q

Heinz bodies and bite cells seen on peripheral smear are indicative of what deficiency?

A

G6PD Deficiency

95
Q

What is the most diagnostic lab value is diagnosing G6PD Deficiency?

A

G6PD Assay

High levels during hemolysis

96
Q

How is G6PD Deficiency treated?

What should be avoided?

A

Avoid Triggers
Supportive Care

Rarely give transfusions

AVOID fava beans

97
Q

What is the most concerning complication of G6PD Deficiency?

A

Hemoglobinuria

AKI

98
Q

_____ ____ _____ is a normocyctic, normochromic anemia that is more prevalent in the African american population

Crisis in this disease is typically caused by infection.

A

Sickle cell anemia

99
Q

2 parents with sickle cell trait have ____% chance of having a child with Hgb SS.

100
Q

What is the most common bacteria that causes crisis in sickle cell?

Most common cause of osteomyelitis?

A
  1. Pneumococcal
  2. Salmonella
  3. Staph Aureus
101
Q

Sickle cell is autosomal _______.

102
Q

Sickle cell often results due to a defective ___-chain

103
Q

What do pain crisises result from in sickle cell patients?

A

Sickled RBCs stick together and clog capillaries causing organ ischemia

104
Q

What are some of the MANY symptoms associated with sickle cell anemia and crisis?

A

Anemia
Jaundice
Arthralgias
Fever

More severe Sx….

Poor-healing ulcers in the pretibial area
Hemiplegia (CN Palsies)
Pulmonary Dysfunction
Renal Dysfunction
Cardiomegaly
Hepatosplenomegaly
Cholelithiassis 
Aspetic femoral head necrosis
105
Q

In a patient with sickle cell anemia what would you expect the lab values to be/show in a……

Reticulocyte count?

Peripheral smear?

CBC?

A

Elevated reticulocytes (especially in crisis)

Peripheral smear would show sickled ells with Howell-Jolly bodies

CBC may show a leukocytosis with left-shift

106
Q

What is the most definitive diagnostic test for sickle cell anemia?

A

Positive Hgb S chains on hemoglobin electrophoresis

107
Q

How is sickle cell anemia treated?

A
  1. High flow o2
  2. Pain control in crisis (Corticosteroids)
  3. Treat underlying infection
  4. Update vaccinations
108
Q

What can be used to decrease the recurrence of crisis in sickle cell anemia patients?

A

Hydroxyurea

109
Q

If osteomyelitis is diagnosed in a sickle cell anemia patient, how should this be treated?

A
  1. Fluoroquinolone x4-6 weeks with Rifampin
  2. Pnuemococcal vaccination
  3. Genetic counseling
  4. Prophylatic Abx (Penicillin in kids < 5 yo)
110
Q

Transfusion should only be considered and is only supportive in sickle cell anemia if the hgb is ___.

111
Q

What are two potentially fatal complications of sickle cell anemia and crisis?

A

Acute Chest Syndrome

Splenic Sequestration

112
Q

__________ are in general the most common inherited hemoglobin production disorders

A

Thalassemias

113
Q

___-thalessemia results from unbalanced Hb synthesis caused by dec production of at least 1 globin polypeptide chain (β, α, γ, δ) that result in abnormally shaped microcytic RBC that are prone to hemolysis causing anemia

A

Beta-thalessemia

114
Q

Are thalessemias microcytic or macrocytic?

A

Microcytic

115
Q

In Beta-thalessemias….

Are heterozygous typically symptomatic or asymptomatic?

Homozygous?

A

Heterzygous are typically asymptomatic

Homozygous are typically more severe and show bone marrow hyperactivity

116
Q

Hgb in thalessemia can be normal at birth, why?

When would a patient become symptomatic?

A

The presence of fetal Hgb

6 months of age

117
Q

What is a common symptom in thalessemia?

(Think: RBC Sequestration)

What additional symptoms may be seen?

A

Splenomegaly

  1. Delayed Puberty
  2. Jaundice
  3. Leg Ulcers
  4. Cholelithiasis
118
Q

What shape would you expect to see cells on a blood smear of a thalessemia patient?

A

Teardrop shaped

119
Q

In a patient with thalessemia……

What would the MCV be?

Reticulocyte count?

TIBC?

Ferritin?

RBC Count?

A

MCV: Low

Reticulocyte COunt: Low

TIBC: Normal

Ferritin: Normal

RBC Count: Normal to high

120
Q

T/F: Thalessemia would look less microcytic and hypochromic than iron deficiency

A

False

It appears MORE microcytic/hypochromic

121
Q

What is the life expectancy in a patient with beta-thalessemia Major?

minor?

A

Major: Many people do not live to puberty

Minor: Normal life expectancy

122
Q

How could you treat beta-thalessemia major?

Minor?

A

Major:

Splenectomy (to decrease number of transfusions)
RBC transfusion (limit number to decrease iron overload)
Chelation Therapy

Rarely due stem cell transplant

Minor:

No Tx

123
Q

What are three concerning complications of Beta-thalessemia?

A
  1. HF (from iron deposits)
  2. Cirrhosis
  3. iron Overload
124
Q

What would be seen on electrophoresis and blood smear in a beta-thalessemia patient?

A

+ HB on electrophoresis

Smear: many nucleated erythroblasts, target cells, small RBCs, etc…

125
Q

What is the most diagnostic test for Beta-thalessemia diagnosis?

A

Elevation of Hb A2

126
Q

In alpha-thalessemia….

How does it effect heterzygotes?

Heterozygotes with 2 of 4 gene defects?

Defects in in 3 of 4 genes?

All 4 genes?

A

Heterzygotes: Clinically normal

2 of 4 genes: mild-moderate microcytic anemia without symptoms

3 of 4 genes: Impairs alpha chain production resulting in increase beta and gamma chains

All 4 genes: Lethal in utero

127
Q

How is alpha-thalessemia diagnosed?

A

Normal HbF and Hb A2 with +HB on electrophoresis

128
Q

Alpha-thalessemia is typically not treated but if severe anemia and splenomegaly occur what is an option?

A

Splenectomy

129
Q

This form of anemia results from a history of iron deficiency, chronic infection, inflammation, cancer, RA, HIV, or Cirrhosis.

A

Anemia of chronic disease

130
Q

Anemia of chornic disease can be either ________ or ________

A

Macrocytic or normocytic

131
Q

_________, produced by the liver binds to ferropotin which ______ the exportation of iron into the blood.

A

Hepcidin

Inhibits

132
Q

Renal insufficiency with a low serum EPO would be indicative of what?

A

Anemia of renal failure

133
Q

In anemia of chronic disease…..

What would you expect the lab values to be for ferritin?

TIBC?

MCV?

Serum EPO?

A

Ferritin: High (Sometimes normal)

TIBC: Low

MCV: Low

Serum EPO: Low (in renal failure anemia)

134
Q

How is anemia of chronic disease treated?

A
  1. Treat the underlying disorder

2. Recombinant EPO and iron supplements

135
Q

Why should EPO analogs be stopped once Hgb gets above 11?

A

To reduce the risk of MI/CVA

136
Q

_________ anemia commonly occurs in the young, can result as a side effect of drugs, and is the only anemia that effects all three cell lines resulting in pancytopenia.

137
Q

Aplastic anemia is __________ and normochromic

A

Normocytic

138
Q

Aplastic anemia often results from loss of blood cell ______ and results in _________ of bone marrow, RBC, WBC’s and platelets.

This is anemia without ________

A

Precursors

Hypoplasia

Reticulocytes

139
Q

What types of drugs/medications are associated with aplastic anemia?

What virus (especially in sickle cell patients)?

A

Drugs/Medications:

ACEi
Sulfonamides
Chemotherapy
Radiation

Virus:

Parvovirus B19

140
Q

__________ anemia accounts for 25% of all aplastic anemia cases.

141
Q

Sx of aplastic anemia vary depending on the severity of pancytopenia…..

what Sx would you expect to see?

What Sx would you see if the patient was thrombocytopenic?

What symptoms would not be present in an aplastic anemia patient?

A

Sx:

Fatigue
Weakness
Pallor
Pupura

Thrombocytopenic:

Petechiae
Ecchymosisi
Gingival Bleeding

Sx NOT Present:

Hepatosplenomegaly
Bone pain
Lymphadenopathy

142
Q

In an aplastic anemia patient, what would you expect the lab values to be in a…..

CBC?

Serum Iron?

MCV?

Reticulocyte count?

A

CBC:

Low WBCs, RBCs, Platelets
Normocytic

Serum Iron: High

MCV: Normal

Reticulocyte count: Low

143
Q

If an aplastic anemia patient’s lab showed a normocytic anemia, rectiulocytopenia, with normal WBCs and platelets…..

This patient is said to have pure _____ aplasia

144
Q

How is aplastic anemia treated?

A
  1. Stop the offending agent

2. Transfusion

145
Q

If an aplastic anemia patient severe enough, what can be given to increase the survival?

What additional treat option is available?

A

antithymocyte globulin [ATG] + cyclosporine

  • If severe and > 40 y.o
  • If severe and < 40 y.o. and no HLA-identical sibling donor
  • If not severe but are transfusion-dependent

Bone marrow transplant is also an option

146
Q

_____________ is a decrease in the number of platelets

A

Thrombocytopenia

147
Q

What are THREE causes of thrombocytopenia?

A
  1. Decreased production (ie: leukemia)
  2. Increased destruction (ie: ITP)
  3. Medication induced (ie: HIT)
148
Q

_________ ___________ ________ commonly occurs following a viral illness can be insidious and chronic in adults but acute and self-limiting in children and is regarded as an autoimmune process.

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic puupura (ITP)

149
Q

Describe the pathphysiologic process of ITP

A

Autoimmune antibody reaction to platelets which results in splenic platelet destruction often after an acute infxn

150
Q

What Sx are commonly seen in ITP?

What Sx is NOT seen in ITP?

A

Petechiae
Purpura
Mucosal Bleeding

NO splenomegaly

151
Q

In a patient with ITP what would be the lab values in a…..

CBC?

A

CBC would show low platelets with the rest being normal

152
Q

Other than a CBC what additional labs should be ordered in a ITP patient if you suspect underlying infection like Hepatitis or HIV?

A

Coags

LFTs

153
Q

ITP is a diagnosis of __________

A

Exclussion

154
Q

A ______ needs to be ordered in ITP patients to assess for the Philadelphia Chromosome or JAK2 Mutation

155
Q

How is ITP treated in children?

Adults?

A

Children:

Supportive Care
IVIG is refractory

Adults:

Prednisone

156
Q

____________ ________ _________ typically results following a febrile illness and can be seen with multiorgan thrombsis

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

157
Q

What Sx are commonly seen with TTP?

What would be a key symptom if there was cardiac damage in a TTP patient?

A

Sx:

FEVER
Thrombus
Weakness
Confusion
N/V/D

Cardiac Damage would result in arrhythmias in a TTP patient

158
Q

What would be seen on a blood smear of a TTP patient?

A

Schistocytes

159
Q

In a TTP patient what would you expect the lab values to be in a…..

CBC?

Reticulocyte count

LDH?

Bilirubin?

Comb’s Test?

A

CBC:

Low platelets
Anemia

Reticulocyte Count: High

LDH: High

Bilirubin: High

Comb’s Test: Negative (negative direct antiglobulin)

160
Q

How is TTP treated?

How often?

What can be added in adults?

A

Plasmaphoresis

This occurs daily until platelet count normalizes

Corticosteroids can be added in adults

161
Q

T/F: Kidney failure can be seen in patients with TTP

A

False

It is NOT seen

162
Q

________ _____ ______ is similar to TTP but is more common in children and involves renal failure.

It can also be seen in patients with a Hx of E. coli infections and recent diarrheal illnesses.

A

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

163
Q

Is HUS considered autoimmune?

164
Q

What deficiency is associated with HUS?

A

ADAMTS13 Deficiency

165
Q

What Sx are seen in a patient with HUS?

A

DIARRHEA
Fever
Nuerologic Sx
Renal Failure

Microangiopathic Anemia
Thrombocytopenia

166
Q

What lab would be noticeably low in a HUS patient?

Other than renal function

A

Platelet count

167
Q

How is HUS treated?

How often?
What is given to reverse renal failure?

A

Plasmapheresis [plasma exchange]

Daily until platelet normalizes

Eculizumab

168
Q

____ ________ is the most common genetic bleeding disorder and s autosomal dominant/

It is described as a missing protein important to platelet function and limits their ability to adhere to a vessel wall at the site of injury.

A

von Willebrand’s (vWB)

169
Q

What types of things can improve clotting because they stimulate production of vWF?

A
Hormonal Changes
Stress
Pregnancy
Inflammation
Infection
170
Q

What Sx are associated with vWB?

A

Excessive bleeding (cuts, surgery, menorrhagia)
Superficial Bleeding
Petechiae

LACK of hemarthosis

171
Q

In a patient with vWB what would you expect the lab values to be in a……

vWF?

PT?

aPTT?

Platelets?

A

vWF: Low (Factor VIII may be low too)

PT: Normal

aPTT: Normal

Platelets: Normal

172
Q

How is vWB treated?

A

Most do not need treatment

173
Q

What can be given to a vWB patient about to undergo surgery who DOES NOT want transfusion?

A

DDAVP (Desmoporesis)

174
Q

What can be given to vWB patients if excessive bleeding is present?

A

Intermediate-purity Favtor VIII

175
Q

What can be used in women with vWB who are experiencing menorrhagia?

176
Q

________ is more common in males and is X-linked recessive

A

Hemophilia

177
Q

Hemophilia __ is the most common and involves Factor VIII

Hemophilia __ involves Factor IX and is also referred to as Christmas Disease

178
Q

What is the most common Sx seen in patients with hemophilia?

A

Hemarthosis (most commonly in the knee)

179
Q

In a patient with hemophilia, what would you expect the lab values to be in a…..

PTT?

Factor VIII or IX?

Platelets?

A

PTT: High

Factor VII or IX: Low

Platelets: Normal

180
Q

How is mild hemophilia treated?

severe?

What should be avoided?

A

Mild:

Aminocaproic acid / desmopressin

Severe:

Transfusion (Cryoprecipate)
Replace Factor

AVOID:

NSAIDs
ASA

181
Q

What is a concerning complication of hemophilia?

A

Development of antibodies to transfused clotting factors

182
Q

What are THREE ways a patient could have a hypercoaguable state?

(Not diseases)

A
  1. Problems with platelets (HIT)
  2. Vascular Injury
  3. Clotting Factors
183
Q

_______-________ ________ typically occurs in 1% of patients after the administration of unfractionated heparin.

Platelet counts typically drop within 7-10 days following exposure

A

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)

184
Q

_____________ HIT results in global thrombocytopenia and thromboembolism due to immune reaction with platelet factor 4²

A

Immunologic

185
Q

Describe how HIT could result in MI or CVA

A

Platelets clump excessively and obstruct vessels leading to venous and arterial thromboses

LETHAL

186
Q

T/F: Bleeding is commonly seen in patients with HIT

A

False

Rarely seen

187
Q

What lab tests are used to diagnosis HIT?

Would the the patient be thrombocytopenic?

A
  1. ELISA followed by platelet assay confirm

Yes

188
Q

How is HIT treated?

Other than heparin, what anticoagulant should be avoided until the platelet count improves?

A
  1. Stop heparin
  2. Antibody testing to platelet factor 4
  3. Anticoagulation (obviously without heparin)

AVOID:

Warfarin (Can give after platelet count improves)

189
Q

______________ ___________ occurs in patients with a Hx of SLE an is referred to as a autoimmune disorder.

This results in thrombosis and (in pregnancy) fetal demise caused by antibodies acting against phospholipid binding proteins

A

Antiphospholipid Syndrome

190
Q

In a patient with antiphospholipid syndrome, what would you expect a aPTT to be?

191
Q

T/F: A lupus anticoagulant is present in a patient with antiphospholipid syndrome

192
Q

How is antiphospholipid syndrome treated?

A

Anticoagualtion:

Heparin
Warfarin
ASA

Prophylatically and for Tx

193
Q

_____ ___ ______ ______ is the most common genetic hypercoaguable state and often is seen in younger patients with recurrent thromboembolic events without the presence of risk factors.

A

Factor V Leiden Mutation

194
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Factor V Leiden?

A

Factor V is resistant to normal inactivation by protein C

195
Q

What is a common Sx in patients with Factor V Leiden?

A

Venous thrombosis

196
Q

What is the most definitive test for diagnosing Factor V Leiden?

What other test can be done?

A

Definitive:

Genetic testing for Factor V gene

Other:

Activated Protein C resistance Assay

197
Q

How is venous thrombosis treated in a patient with Factor V Leiden?

What is given prophlyatically?

A

Parenteral Heparin OR LMWH followed by oral Warfarin

Prohpylaxis: Warfarin

198
Q

______________ ____ is common in males 60 or older and commonly is associated with erythrocytosis involving a JAK2 mutation

A

Polycythemia Vera

199
Q

What are two common symptoms seen in patients with polycythemia vera?

What additional symptoms may be seen?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly
Erythromelagia (LE erythema, warmth, pain, distal infarction)

Other:

Vertigo
Tinnitus 
HA
Visual Changes
TIA
HTN
Hepatic Vein Thrombosis
200
Q

in a patient with polycythemia vera, what would you expect the lab values to be in a…..

Hgb?
Hematocrit?
WBC?

EPO?

A

Hgb: >20

Hct: > 60%

WBC: High

EPO: Low to unmeasurable

201
Q

Why would you order an abdominal US in a patient with Polycythemia Vera?

A

To assess for splenomegaly

202
Q

What is the most definitive test for diagnosis of polycythemia vera?

A

Assay for JKA2 V617F

203
Q

How is polycythemia vera treated?

What else can be done to reduce RBC mass and expand plasma volume?

A

Hydroxyurea

Phlebotomy

204
Q

What TWO complications are associated with polycythemia vera?

A

Increased incidence of PUD associated with H plyori

Increased incidence of nonlymphocytic leukemia

205
Q

_______ polycythemia is often associated with tissue hypoxia, abnormal EPO production, and peptic ulcer disease.

A

Secondary polycythemia

206
Q

In a secondary polycythemia patient…..

Increased levels of EPO with a normal o2 saturation and a non-smoker what may be abnormal?

A
  1. Abnormal Hgb not delivery O2 to tissues

2. Ectopic source of EPO production not responding to normal feedback loops

207
Q

Sx of secondary polycythemia are similar to polycythemia vera (ie: splenomegaly)….

but what additional symptoms may be appreciated?

A

Ruddy Complex
Easy Bruising
Epistaxis
GI Bleed

Hypoxia Sx (Cyanosis, HA, fatigue, impaired mental status)

208
Q

T/F: In a patient with secondary polycythemia, Hgb will be > 20 and Hct will be > 60%

209
Q

In a patient with secondary polycythemia….

What will assess for increased RBC mass?

A

Isotope dilution via Cr-labeled autologous RBC & sample blood radioactivity over 2 hrs

210
Q

In a patient with secondary polycythemia….

If the RBC mass is normal what may be present?

A

Spurious / Relative polycythemia

211
Q

In a patient with secondary polycythemia….

If RBC mass is increased what should be assessed?

A

EPO levels

212
Q

What mutation should you always check for in a patient with secondary polycythemia?

213
Q

In a patient with secondary polycythemia….

if the arterial O2 is < 92% what should you assess for?

A

Heart and lung disease if not living in a hypoxic environment

214
Q

In a patient with secondary polycythemia who is also a SMOKER….

What lab value with be elevated?

What does this diagnose?

A

Elevated COHb level

This diagnoses “Smoker’s polycythemia”

215
Q

In a patient with secondary polycythemia….

A CT Abdomen/Pelvis is great for assessing what?

A

EPO producing neoplasms

216
Q

In a patient with secondary polycythemia….

If a patient has elevated O2-Hgb affinity, what does this diagnose?

A

Abnormal Hgb

217
Q

What is a concerning complication of secondary polycythemia and hypoxia

A

Cor Pulmonale