Hematology 1.c.6 Flashcards
1
Q
formed elements of blood are
A
- erythrocytes (red blood cells)
- leukocytes (white blood cells)
- thrombocytes (platelets)
2
Q
____ + _____ = whole blood
A
formed elements + plasma = whole blood
3
Q
what kind of tissue is blood considered to be and why?
A
connective tissue
because it contains:
- cells
- ground substance (fluid component)
- fibers
4
Q
what is the definition of blood
A
connective tissue consisting of cells and cell components (formed elements) suspended in an intercellular matrix (plasma)
5
Q
blood is the only ___ tissue in the body
A
liquid tissue in the body
6
Q
how many liters and body weight does blood make up of the adult human body?
A
6-8 liters
8% body weight
7
Q
cellular components is what percentage of blood volume?
A
45%
8
Q
plasma is what percentage of blood volume?
A
55%
9
Q
what is plasma?
A
viscous fluid the formed elements are suspended in
10
Q
what is plasma made of?
A
90% water and 10% solid matter (protein, carbs, electrolytes, minerals, fats)
11
Q
all blood cells develop from where?
A
stem cells that reside in bone marrow
12
Q
what are stem cells
A
immature and undifferentiated cells
13
Q
what is bone marrow
A
the soft, spongey center of bone
14
Q
what is the production of blood cells called?
A
hematopoiesis or hemopoiesis
15
Q
what are blasts
A
new immature blood cells
16
Q
how many blood cels are generated each day
A
around 1 trillion blood cells
17
Q
what kind of process is hematopoiesis considered?
A
ongoing process
blood cells are constantly regenerated
18
Q
hemocytoblast to megakaryoblast to
A
megakaryocyte
to thrombocytes
19
Q
hemocytoblast to monoblast to
A
monocyte to agranulocytes
20
Q
hemocytoblast to lymphoblast to
A
lymphocyte to agranulocytes
21
Q
hemocytoblast to myeloblast to
A
progranulocyte to
granulocyte to granulocytes
22
Q
hemocytoblast to proerythroblast to
A
polychromatic erythroblast to
erythrocytes
23
Q
what are the three kind of granulocytes
A
basophil
eosinophil
neutrophil
24
Q
what are the two types of agranulocytes
A
lymphocyte to monocyte
25
what are the two types of leukocytes
granulocytes to agranulocytes
26
what are the most abundant type of cells
neutrophils
27
what are the least abundant type of cells
basophils
28
what are the 4 critical life supporting functions of blood
1. delivers oxygen, hormones, and nutrients to body cells and picks up cell waste
2. prevents blood loss by healing wounds
3. acts as primary carrier of immunity
4. helps control body temperature
29
what are the three mechanisms of blood
1. transportation
2. regulation
3. protection
30
what are the three things does transportation of blood entail
1. carting O2 and nutrients to cell
2. removing CO2 and nitrogenous wastes from tissues to lungs and kidneys to be excreted
3. carrying hormones from endocrine glands to target tissues
31
what three things does regulation of blood entail
1. helping control body temp by removing heat from active areas
2. fluid and electrolyte balance
3. pH regulation via buffers in the blood, histidine
32
what three things does protection of blood entail
1. prevents blood/fluid loss from hemorrhage when damaged
2. protects against infections and diseases via cola with immune system
3. protect from offending agents via antibodies in the plasma
33
composition of blood
top: plasma
middle: "Buffy coat" - WBCs and platelets
bottom: red blood cells
34
what are RBC also known as
erythrocytes
35
what is the most numerous of the formed elements?
RBCs
36
what is the shape of RBC and what doe it help with
- tiny biconcave disks that are thin in middle and thicker around the periphery
- helps with flexibility for moving through capillaries with maximum surface area for diffusion of gases
37
what is the primary function of RBC and what must the do to carry out this function
to transport O2 (and CO2)
-must stay flexible and permeable to O2, CO2, nutrients and waste products
38
the flexibility in RBC are dependent on what?
ability to generate ATP
39
what happens to a RBC when ATP is lost
red cell becomes rigid and removed from circulation via the spleen
40
life span of RBC
approx 120 days
41
what do RBCs not contain once they are in circulation
nucleus
42
three reasons for absence of nucleus
1. decease space available for O2 and CO2
2. would increase blood's weight and increase workload on heart about 20%
3. do not require a nucleus to carry out function
43
low RBC indicates
anemia
44
high RBC indicates
erythrocytosis
45
what is polycythemia vera and what does it indicate
pathological increase in red cells
| -indicates hematopoietic bone marrow
46
what defines anemia
- hgb concentration <7 g/dL
| - not enough red cells in circulation to transport sufficient amounts of O2
47
it is important to remember that anemia is not a disease of the ____, it is an indicator of...
not a disease of blood
indicator of disease process elsewhere in the body
48
what causes anemia
- iron deficiency
- vitamin/enzyme deficiencies
- hemolysis
- autoimmune
- chemo/radiation
- large amount of blood loss
- ESRD
49
what is polycythemia vera
- aka primary polycythemia
- high RBC count of >18 g/dL
- disorder of bone marrow that produces red cells independently of erethropoetin
50
what is the concern when it comes to primary polycythemia
high RBC = thick blood = increased viscosity = circulatory problems
51
what is oxygen transport made possible by
hgb
52
when blood circulates through the lungs, ___ becomes fully saturated with ___ and makes the blood bright red
hgb becomes fully saturated with O2 and makes the blood bright red
53
what happens to blood when red cells perfuse capillary beds of other organs
O2 is released to the tissues and blood becomes dark red
54
what does HgA consists of
- 2 alpha and 2 beta chains = 4 polypeptide chains = 4 binding sites
- heme molecule attached to each chain
55
what is the site where O2 binds to Hgb?
heme molecule
56
what is responsible for the red color of blood
heme molecule that contains iron atom
57
where does the production of heme occur?
mitochondria of immature RBCs
58
_____ enter circulation from bone marrow and lose what?
mature red cells enter circulation from bone marrow and lose mitochondria and nucleus
59
saturation in regards to hgb is what?
saturation = measure of O2 combined with Hgb
60
deoxyhemoglobin
Hgb that has released O2
61
each Hgb has what
4 heme sites, which means it is able to bind 4 O2 molecules
62
what is oxyhemoglobin
fully saturated hemoglobin
| 1.34 ml O2/gram of hbg
63
which has a higher affinity for O2? oxyhemoglobin or deoxyhemoglobin?
oxyhemoglobin
64
which has a higher affinity for CO2? oxyhemoglobin or deoxyhemoglobin?
deoxyhemoglobin
65
where does O2 bind to oxyhemoglobin at?
lungs
then transported via bloodstream to target tissues and eventually used for aerobic respiration
66
deoxyhemoglobin carries what?
CO2 back to lungs where its released via exhalation
67
the oxygen tissue receive depends on 3 conditions:
1. blood flow to tissues
2. hgb concentration in blood
3. affinity of hgb for O2
68
what happens when an individual doesn't have one of these conditions for optimal tissue perfusion?
automatically compensates by adjusting one or both of the other factors so optimal tissue perfusion in maintained
69
what is oxygen affinity
hemoglobin's ability to bind or release O2
70
Bohr effect
influence of pH and CO2 on Hgb's affinity to bind and release O2
71
in terms of affinity, when O2 is released in the tissues, what is the pH and CO2 levels
low pH (more H+)
high CO2 (metabolically active)
72
in terms of affinity, when Hgb picks up O2 more easily in the lungs, what are the pH and CO2
high pH
low CO2
73
oxygen affinity is regulated by what 3 factors in the blood
1. hydrogen concentration (pH)
2. partial pressure of CO2
3. level of 2,3-DPG
74
2,3-DPG is a byproduct of the pathway of
glycolysis
75
why is 2,3-DPG present in the same concentration as Hgb
because it is bound to Hgb
76
what is the most important allosteric effector of positive cooperativity?
2,3-DPG
-one molecule is all that is required to change the affinity of an entire hub tetramer
77
the presence of 2,3-DPG stabilizes the ___ state of _______, decreasing the affinity for oxygen
T state of deoxyhemoglobin, which decreases its affinity for oxygen
78
what does fresher/older blood have to do with oxygen loading and unloading
the fresher the blood, the more response you are going to get for oxygen loading and unloading
older the blood, less it works for transport
79
what is the function of 2,3-DPG
lower hgb's affinity for O2 so it realizes O2 to tissues more easily
80
what would happen if 2,3-DPG was not there?
O2 would remain bound to Hgb and could not be released to tissues
81
when does an increase in 2,3-DPG happen and what does it cause?
- happens in response to hypoxia or erythropoietin
| - shifts the curve to the right
82
when does a decrease in 2,3-DPG happen and what does it cause?
- happens as a red cell storage lesion
| - shifts the curve to the left
83
erythropoietin is dependent on what kind of system?
feedback system
84
Erythropoietin levels in the absence of anemia
Low
| around 10 mU/mL
85
in hypoxic stress, what are EPO levels
- EPO production may increase up to 1000 fold
| - levels reaching 10,000 mU/mL of blood
86
in adults, where are EPO synthesized?
interstitial cells of the renal cortex
additional amounts being produced by liver and pericytes in brain
87
Since EPO relies on a feedback mechanism, what is the transcription factors for EPO
hypoxia-inducible factors are broken down in the presence of oxygen and iron
-made and released into circulation by the kidneys
88
what is hypoxia and what is a result from?
hypoxia is low levels of O2 in the tissues
results from low O2 concentration in the blood
89
what happens in the EPO cycle during hypoxia?
flow through kidneys stimulates an increased production of EPO
then stimulates stem cells in bone marrow to produce more red cells
90
if you are in a planned surgery, what might they put you on to control the production of red cells after surgery?
they put you on EPO at home so you can produce more red cells after the surgery
91
what does hematocrit measure
percentage of red cells in whole blood
also an indirect measure of O2 carrying capacity
92
what is the Hct for a normal adult?
38-54%
males usually higher at 46-54%
females 38-44%
93
hematocrit levels are approx _____ the value of Hgb
ex
94
one unit of RBCs transfused elevates Hct by about ____%
3-4%
95
what is red cell hemolysis
destruction of red cell membrane
| plasma free hgb can no longer transport O2
96
what does red cell hemolysis lead to
release and diffusion of hgb
97
what causes red cell hemolysis
immune/autoimmune reaction
admin wrong ABO blood unit
sepsis
high suction pressure
98
in the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve, what causes a shift to left
O2 not released to tissues easily
99
in the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve, what causes a shift to the righ
O2 readily released to tissues
100
what are the physiological factors that influence the affinity of hgb for oxygen
```
CO2
pH
2,3-DPG
presence of unusual hemoglobin
temperature
```
101
how does the partial pressure of CO2 influence the affinity of hgb for oxygen
-increasing CO2 shifts the curve to the right
102
what does hyperventilation and hypocapnia shift the curve for affinity of hgb to oxygen
shifts the curve to the left
103
decreasing pH (acidosis) shifts the curve to the
right
104
alkalosis shifts the curve to the
left
105
increase 2,3-DPG in response to hypoxia or erythropoietin shifts the curve to the
right
106
decreased 2,3-DPG as a red cell storage lesion shifts the curve to the
left
107
Presence of methemoglobin, carboxyhemoglobin and fetal hemoglobin shifts the curve to the
left
108
Presence of sulfa hemoglobin shifts the curve to the
right
109
hyperthermia shifts the curve to the
right
110
hypothermia shifts the curve to the
left
111
the interaction of two competing actions results in a useful homeostatic mechanism for affinity of hgb for oxygen. what are the two competing actions
- low pH by itself decreases the affinity of hgb for oxygen
| - inhibiting the production of 2,3-DPG causes low pH increases the affinity of hgb for oxygen
112
2,3-DPG opposes the ______
Bhor effect
- acidosis shifts the curve to the right and decreases the oxygen affinity of hgb
- this results in decrease in 2,3-DPG which shifts the curve to the left again
113
fetal hemoglobin chains are
2 alpha chains and 2 y chains
114
Hgb F is designed to _____ from maternal umbilical ___.
Hgb F is designed to extract O2 from maternal umbilical vein
115
what is the p50 for Hgb F vs Hgb A
Hgb F P50 is 19 mmHg
| Hgb A P50 is 26 mmHg
116
at PaO2 of 30-25, what is the Hgb F saturation
80%
while Hgb A is only 50-60% saturated
117
what is the normal fetal pH and what does it help with
7.25-7.35
lower than adults
helps with unloading oxygen from hgb at the tissues
118
which has a greater affinity for O2, Hgb F or Hgb A
Hgb F
119
why does fetal hemoglobin have a decreased affinity for 2,3-DPG and what does it result in
the absence of the histidine (replaced with serine) is the reason for decreased affinity
this results in an increased affinity for oxygen
120
when is Hgb F replaced with Hgb A
between 3rd and 6th month following birth
121
characteristics of methemoglobin
- Fe2+ oxidized to Fe3+
- brown color
- cannot bind to O2
122
characteristics of sulfa hemoglobin
- irreversible
| - decrease O2 carrying capacity
123
characteristics of carboxyhemoglobin
-increase CO poisoning (smokers)
124
characteristics of sickle cell anemia (Hgb S)
- inherit a defective Hgb gene from each parent
- always anemic and susceptible to infections
- found in individuals with African, Middle Eastern, Indian, or Mediterranean
125
when exposure to low O2 concentration, what happens to red cells
red cells take on sickle shape
126
what do sickle cell block and what does it destroy
block microvasculature
destroys surrounding tissues and cause ischemia
127
sickled cells are ____ and can ____ easily
fragile and can hemolyze easily
128
what kind of transfusion is done on CPB and sickle cell patient
exchange transfusion
129
what is exchange transfusion
sequestering the initial CPB venous drainage from the patient after priming the extracorporeal circuit with whole blood whole blood containing hemoglobin A
130
what is the goal of exchange transfusion
hemoglobin A of 60-70%
131
what are WBCs also known as
leukocytes
132
WBC must be ____ ___ to carry out intended functions
high mobile
133
leukocytes mostly work with
the immune system
134
what do WBC use as transport and where do most of the work take place
use blood as a transport medium and do most of work in tissues
135
diapedesis
property that allows white cells to squeeze through capillary pores and move into tissues
136
what is the normal white cell count in adult
4.5-11 x 10^3/uL
137
what is high WBC count known as
leukocytosis
138
what is low WBC count known as
leukopenia
139
generally leukocytes are ____ than erythrocytes but ____ in number
generally leukocytes are larger than erythrocytes but fewer in number
140
how do leukocytes communicate among themselves
complex network of glycoproteins called cytokines
141
how to cytokines work
communication among leukocytes
| -alert other white cells to move to site of infection/invasion
142
what are the three main groups of leukocytes
granulocytes
monocytes
lymphocytes
143
what are the most numerous of all white cells
granulocytes
-neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils
144
what do monocytes become
become macrophages once leave circulatory system and enter tissues
145
what are the most complex leukocytes
lymphocytes
146
what do lymphocytes differentiate into
B cells and T cells
147
what is generally the first cell to enter infected/inflamed area
neutrophils
148
what are the primary function of neutrophils
phagocytosis which is the ingestion of bacteria
149
when you see swelling, pus, and inflammation, what is that an indication of?
presence of numerous neutrophils
150
where do eosinophils resides and what are they highly involve din
reside in tissues
| highly involved in combating allergic reactions
151
basophils usually circulate in the blood, when they move into tissues, they are called
masts
152
what is the main function of basophils
serene heparin and histamine
153
what is the function of lymphocytes
specific immune response when foreign matter invades the body
154
which cell plays a big role in body's rejection of transplanted organs
lymphocytes
155
thrombocytes are also known as
platelets
156
what is the lifespan of thrombocytes
9-12 days once released from spleen into circulation
157
what is the functions of thrombocytes
essential in maintaining hemostasis (preventing blood loss)
| -involved in wound healing and inflammation
158
what is the normal adult platelet count
150-450 x 10^3/uL
159
what is thrombocytosis
high platelet count
160
what is thrombocytopenia
low platelet count
161
where are thrombocytes produced
in one marrow by megakaryocytes
162
what are the 2 hemostatic functions of platelets
1. form platelet plug over area of endothelial damage
| 2. provide platelet factor-3 which make it possible
163
what is the main function for plasma
tranportation
164
plasma accounts for ____ bw
about 4%
165
plasma vs serum
plasma is fluid separated from unclothed blood
serum is fluid separated from clotted blood
166
what is serum
plasma - fibrinogen
167
where are plasma proteins produced
in the liver and remain in vascular space
168
why are plasma proteins essential in helping maintain constant blood volume throughout the body
because they exert osmotic pressure in the vasculature
169
what does plasma proteins consist of
albumin, clotting proteins, globulins (antibodies)
170
what is the function of plasma proteins
```
nutrition
clot formation
act as a transport molecule
repair cellular damage
maintain blood volume
form antibodies
contribute to buffering capacity of blood
```
171
what is albumin used for
protein replacement and volume expansion
172
albumin maintains ____ pressure between blood and body tissues
osmotic pressure
173
how does albumin work as a volume expansion
increases oncotic pressure within vasculature when admin I.V., there increasing blood volume
174
when you have albumin deficiency, that results in
edema
175
what is the normal amount of albumin in the blood
3.5-5.5 g/dl
176
with a little bottle of 25% of 100 mL of albumin, what does that do
raise oncotic pressure and balance fluid levels
177
big 5% of 100 mL of albumin does what
no volume bc same oncotic pressure and add volume
178
what is fibrinogen and what does it do
inactive form of fibrin
clotting protein used to stabilize platelet plug
179
what do globulins refer to
general term for all proteins in plasma
except fibrinogen and albumin
180
what are the 4 types of globulins
alpha 1
alpha 2
beta 1
immunoglobulins
181
what is the function of globulins
- act as enzymes in metabolic processes
- humoral immunity
- transport of heme to bone marrow which is recycled to produce new Hgb
- transport of metals such as copper and iron
182
what process immunoglobulins and what is their major role
produced by B cells (plasma cells)
major role in defending body from infection
183
what is the most numerous immunoglobulins
IgG class
184
when the blood is collected and stored, it can either be stored whole or it can be stored....
as packed red blood cells
185
when the blood is stored as packed RBC, how much plasma has been removed and how do they remove it?
70% of the plasma has been removed
done by light centrifugation
186
what can be done to the plasma that was removed from the packed RBC?
the plasma can be centrifuged heavily a second time to separate the platelet rich plasma
remaining plasma is used as a platelet pack
187
the plasma that has been centrifuged twice can be stored into a third bag known as
fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
188
each donated unit of blood is test for
ABO-Rh typ e
-hep B & C
-HIV I and II
HTLV-I/II (rare leukemia)
-Syphilis
-West Nile Virus
189
what are platelets screened for
bacterial contamination
190
what are the lab tests that must be completed before blood or blood products can be transfused
determination of blood type with a crossmatch
screening for antibodies
screening for possible infectious agents
191
what are the MANDATORY tests that must be done on all units of blood
- ABO group and Rh type
- screening for blood-group antibodies
- serologic test for syphilis
- serologic test for human retroviruses (HIV 1, 2, p24 antigen, HTLV1 antibody)
- serologic test for hepatitis (hep B surface antigen, Hep B core antibody, Hep C antibody)
192
solutions placed in blood bags by manufacturer have 3 functions:
1. prevent clots
2. provide nutrients to maintain and preserve the viability of RBCs
3. help maintain pH
193
what are 4 solutions used to store whole blood
1. ACD - acid citrate dextrose
2. CPD - citrate phosphate dextrose
3. CPDA-1 - citrate phosphate dextrose adenine
4. heparin
194
citrate is an
anticoagulant
chelates calcium (prevents clotting)
195
phosphate and dextrose are
preservatives
196
what does phosphate help prevent in storing solutions
prevents pH changes and maintain ATP levels
helps maintain 2,3-DPG
197
what does dextrose do in storing solutions
maintain red cell viability
198
how long does whole blood collected in CPD and ACD last?
21 days storage
199
how long does blood collected in CPDA-1 last?
35 days storage
200
how long does red cells stay in storage and what are the storage conditions?
35 days
| stored at 1-6 degree C to decrease glycolysis
201
under 2 degrees C for storage of red cells causes
freezing injury to cells
202
over 8 degrees for storage of red cells causes
bacterial overgrowth
203
how long can FFP stay in storage and what are the storage conditions?
1 year
stored at -18 C or colder
factors V and VII retain most of their effectiveness
204
if storage is colder than -20 degrees C for FFP, what happens?
factors V and VII lose some effect
205
how long and at what conditions can platelets stay stored?
5 days
| 20-24 C
206
what will storing platelets at a degree below 22 C cause?
increase in large aggregates
207
what is the shelf life and at what conditions for cryoprecipitate?
shelf life of 1 year at -18 C
208
what are the blood components of bank blood?
packed red cells for anemia and improving O2 carrying capacity
platelets treat thrombocytopenia/dysfunction
plasma (FFP) treats coagulation defects/deficiencies
209
what does cryoprecipitate treat?
fibrinogen deficiency
hemophilia A
von Willebrand's disease
210
where do you cryoprecipitate from?
when FFP is thawed, white precipitate called cryoprecipitate remains
211
cryoprecipitate is rich in ___, especially ___ and ____
rich in coagulation protein
| especially FVII and fibrinogen
212
what must be done before any recipient receives blood
ABO/Rh identification
213
what is blood grouping
ABO/Rh identification
214
what is crossmatching
determining compatibility b/w donor and recipient
215
what is the final step of pretransfusion testing
crossmatching
a portion of donor blood is combined with patient plasma or serum and checked for agglutination
216
once a properly labelled specimen from recipient received at the blood bank, what happens
ABO/Rh typing and antibody screening
217
what happens when an antibody screen is negative
proceed with computer crossmatch and issue RBCs
218
what happens when an antibody screen is positive
identify antibody
if clinically significant, locate antigen-negative, ABO-compatible RBCs
219
what are the four groups Karl Landsteiner determined that all blood belongs to
A
B
AB
O
220
There are two antigens and two antibodies that are mostly responsible for the ABO types
A antigen
B antigen
anti-A antibody
anti-B antibody
221
antigen is on the
RBC
222
antibody is in the
plasma
223
Type A characteristics
Antigen A
Anti-B antibody
can't have B or AB blood
can have A or O blood
224
Type B characteristics
Antigen B
anti-A antibody
can't have A or AB blood
can have B or O blood
225
Type AB characteristics
Antigens A+B
neither antibody
can have any type of blood
universal recipient
226
Type O characteristics
Neither A or B antigen
both antibodies
can have only O blood
is the universal donor
227
Rh typing is also called
D antigen
228
Rh+ means
presence of antigen on cell
229
Rh-means
absence of antigen
230
___% population is Rh+
85%
231
what are the most common distribution of blood types in the US
O Rh+
2nd place: A rh+
232
what is the least common distribution of blood types in the US
AB Rh-
233
what is the term for transfusion reactions with adverse event due to non immune
transfusion complication
ie circulatory overload
234
what is the most serious transfusion reaction
anaphylaxis
can kill in minutes
235
when a transfusion reaction is acute, when do the events occur
shortly after transfusion
236
when the transfusion reaction is delayed, when do the events occur
over 24 hours after transfusion
237
what does it mean when a transfusion reaction is localized
remain at site of antigen entry such as a rash
238
what does it mean when a transfusion reaction is systemic
reaction takes place throughout body such as hypotension
239
what does it mean when a transfusion reaction is hemolytic
involves rupture of red cells (Ag-Ab complex)
240
what is acute HTR
acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
-serious and life threatening caused by Ag-Ab response to ABO incompatibility
241
acute HTR immune response leads to
intravascular lysis of donor red cells
242
what are signs of acute HTR
anaphylactic shock, DIC, renal failure
243
what is delayed HTR
delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
-usually non life threatning and occurs about 2 weeks after transfusion
244
what are the signs of delayed HTR
drop in H/H
245
when does febrile transfusion reaction occur
usually in patients who have received multiple transfusions
246
what is the most common transfusion reaction
febrile transfusion reaction
generally non hemolytic
247
what are symptoms of febrile transfusion reaction
temp increase of 1 degree C
chills
248
characteristics of transfusion related acute injury (TRALI)
- pulmonary edema unrelated to cardiac problems or volume overload
- occurs 1-6 hrs following admin of blood products with plasma
249
what causes TRALI
when plasma containing HLA or granulocyte specific antibodies that correspond to antigens found on donor WBCs
-granulocyte enzymes are released and increase capillary permeability leading to pulmonary edema
250
what are symptoms of TRALI
```
respiratory distres
fever
cyanosis
tachycardia
hypotension
hypovolemia
```
251
what is the most common type of incidence of transfusion reactions
allergic
252
what is the least common type of incidence of transfusion reactions
hemolytic,fatal
253
how is Hep B transmitted
blood transfusion
sexual contact
contaminated needles
occupational or prenatal exposure to contaminated blood
254
what is the diagnosis and incubation period of Hep B
incubation period: 2 months - 6 months
diagnosis: symptoms and presence of HBsAg or HBcAg
255
what will the Hep H vaccine have
surface antibody present
| not HBsAg or HBcAg
256
what is the risk of transmission (RT) for Hep B
1/66,000 - 1/200,000
257
what is the most widespread and deadliest type of hepatitis
hep C
258
how is Hep C spread
contaminated IV needles
sexual contact w infected person
contaminated blood transfusion
259
what test is available for Hep C
detect HCV antibodies
260
what is the mean incubation time and risk of transmission for Hep C
mean incubation time: 6-8 weeks
| RT = 1/121,000
261
what can human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) cause
AIDS
262
how is HIV transmitted
through sharing of contaminated IV needles or contact with infected person's body fluids
263
what does the HIV-1 antigen test
presence of p24 antigen of HIV vs presence of antibodies produced in response to HIV
264
RT for HIV
1/563,000 - 1/825,000
265
what is the human T-lympocytotrophic virus (HTLV-1)
retrovirus that is endemic to Caribbean and Japan
266
how is HTLV-1 transmitted
through blood cell component transfusion
NOT PLASMA TRANSFUSION
267
HRLV-1 is also involved with
leukemia
lymphoma
neurological disease
268
what is CMV
cytomegalovirus
| in herpes daily
269
what can CMV do and who is at risk
can infect kidney, lung, liver, leukocytes, epithelial cells
at risk is people with incompetent immune system
270
how to prevent potential problems of CMV
transfusing CMV negative blood or frozen deglycerolized RBCs
271
donors traveling to high risk malaria areas are excluded from donating blood for
six months
272
other disease that are rarely transmitted by RBC
malaria
babesiosis
lyme disease
Chagas' disease
