Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is yellow bone marrow also known as?

A

Adipose

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2
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A

Production of blood cells

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3
Q

What is a stem cell?

A

Inmatture blood cell that is able to self renew

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4
Q

What are the 3 major functions of blood?

A

Transport oxygen, nutrition, hormones and waste
Protect coagulation and infection
Regulate fluid and electrolytes, acid bases, and thermoregulation

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5
Q

What are the 2 major components of blood?

A

Plasma (serum)
Cells (RBC, WBC, Platelets)

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6
Q

What are RBC’S?

A

erythrocytes

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7
Q

what are WBC’s?

A

leukocytes

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8
Q

what are platelets?

A

thrombocytes

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9
Q

what does erythrocytes (RBC) do?

A

transport and acid base regulation of oxygen and carbon dioxide

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10
Q

what is erythropoietin?

A

production of RBC in response to tissue hypoxia

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11
Q

what is hemolysis?

A

destruction of RBC

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12
Q

what are the two type of WBC?

A

Granulocytes
Agranulocytes

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13
Q

what are the 3 granulocytes (WBC)?

A

Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils

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14
Q

what do neutrophils do?

A

Increase during inflamation and infection

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15
Q

what do basophils do?

A

Increase duriing inflammation and allergic rx

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16
Q

what do eosinophils do?

A

Increase during allergic rx or parastie infections

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17
Q

what are the 2 agranulocytes?

A

lymphocytes
monocytes

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18
Q

what do lymphocytes do?

A

regulate cellular and humoral immune response
regulate B&T cells

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19
Q

what do monocytes consume?

A

bacteria
dead cells
tissue
debris
old RBC

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20
Q

what are thrombocytes and what do they originate from?

A

platelets
stem cells within the bone marrow

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21
Q

what is the clotting process regulated by?

A

thrombopoietin (production of platelets)

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22
Q

where is normal iron metabolism obtained from?

A

food and dietary supplements

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23
Q

what carries plasma proteins for iron?

A

transferrin

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24
Q

what are the normal clotting mechanisms?

A

vascular injury and subendothelial exposure
platelet adhesion
platelet activation
platelet aggregation
platelet plug fomration
clot retraction and dissolution

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25
Q

what is the spleen?

A

2nd largest secondary lymphoid organ

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26
Q

what are the 4 functions of the spleen?

A

Hematopoietic: produce RBC during fetal development
Filtration: remove old RBC and reuse iron
Immunologic: has a rich supply of lymphocytes, monocytes and immunoglobins
Storage: holds RBC and platelets

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27
Q

what does the liver do?

A

makes proagulants
secretes billirubin and bile
stores iron
makes hepcidin (key regulator of iron balence)

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28
Q

what is lymphatic fluid and when does it occur?

A

lymphedema
-occurs when to much interstitual fluid develops

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29
Q

what does a left shift and a right shift refer to?

A

WBC differential

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30
Q

what is a left shift?

A

indicates increased number of inmatture neutrophils (bands)
-infection or inflammation

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31
Q

what is a right shift?

A

indicates a high number of mature neutrophils (segs)
-anemia or liver disease

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32
Q

what can low platelet count lead to?

A

<100,000: thrombocytopenia and bleeding
<10,000: spontaneous hemmoraging

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33
Q

what can a high platelet count lead to?

A

> 400,000: thrombocytosis or excessive clotting

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34
Q

what is the procedure for a bone marrow aspiration?

A

sign consent
prone or side laying
time out
conscious sedation
clean skin aseptically (posteior illec crest)
bone marrow needle inserted into cortex
5-10ml aspirated
apply pressure for 5-10 min with sterile gauze
cover with sterile dressing

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35
Q

what can kidney problems cause r/t hematology?

A

it can cause problems producing RBC (erythropoiesis)

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36
Q

if a patient has a splenectomy, what are the nursing interventions post op?

A

monitor platelt count to prevent clotting
give blood thinners

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37
Q

what are signs of low HGB?

A

Pale
fatigue
confusion
increased RR
decreased o2
pruritis due to increased bile salts

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38
Q

what should the nurse do for low platelets?

A

put on bleeding precautions
watch for bleeding

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39
Q

if a patient has fallen and is pale which lab should you check?

A

HGB

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40
Q

what could neutropenia (low WBC) mean?

A

<1000
sepsis or infection

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41
Q

what are the symptoms of low platelets?

A

bruising
blood in urine and stool
nosebleeds
bleeding gums
petechie eye
pruritis
purpura

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42
Q

if platelets are lower than 100,000 what should the nurse hold?

A

lovenox

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43
Q

what side should a pt lay on for a bone marrow aspiration?

A

if the biospsy is on the right side, then lay on the right side for 30-60 min to decrease risk of bleeding

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44
Q

what are the blood transfusion guidlines?

A

16yo with parent consent
110lbs
not donated blood in the last 56 days

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45
Q

What is the first thing you ask your pateint when educating about blood transfusion?

A

“Have you had a blood transfusion before?”

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46
Q

What can the PCT do r/t blood transfusions?

A

Get vitals

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47
Q

What are the s/s of an allergic reaction r/t blood transfusions?

A

Itching
Hives
Flushing

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48
Q

What do you do if a pateint has an allergic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Slow infusion
Get vitals
Notify HCP

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49
Q

What do you anticipate to give for an allergic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Antihistamines
Antipyretcs
Steroids

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50
Q

What are the s/s of a febrile, nonhemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Chills, fever
N/V
Flushing
Anxiety
Tachycardia
Muscle aches

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51
Q

What do you do for a febrile, nonhemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Stop infusion
Keep IV site open with NS (need new tubing)
Get vitals
Notify HCP
Send blood and tubing to the lab

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52
Q

What do you anticipate for a febrile nonhemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Antipyretic
Blood and urine sample

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53
Q

What are the s/s of an acute hemolytic reaction to a blood trasfusion?

A

Fever
Flushing
SOB
Anxiety
Chest and abdominal pain
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Hypotension
Bronchospasms
Shock
Renal failure
Cardiac arrest or death

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54
Q

What do you do for an acute hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Stop transfusion
Keep IV open with NS
Stay with pateint
Call for help
Get vitals
call HCP
Start CPR
Send blood and tubing to the lab

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55
Q

What would you anticipate for an acute hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Bolus
Diuretic
Foley
Epinephrine
Blood and urine sample

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56
Q

What are the s/s of a delayed hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Fever
Jaundice
Decreased HGB

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57
Q

What is the treatment for a delayed hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

No treatment is needed

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58
Q

When does a delayed hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion occur?

A

After the blood is transfused

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59
Q

What are the s/s of an anaphylatic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Wheezing
Cyanosis
Restless
Anxiety
Shock
Cardiac arrest

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60
Q

What do you do for an anaphylatic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Stop infusion
Keep IV open with NS
Stay with pateint
Call HCP
Call a code or CPR
Send tubing and blood to lab

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61
Q

What would you anticipate for an anaphylatic reaction to a blood transfusion?

A

Epinephrine
Urine and blood sample

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62
Q

What are the s/s of a circulatory overload r/t blood transfusions?

A

Cough
Frothy speutum
Distended neck veins
SOB
Crackles
HA
Tachycardia
HTN

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63
Q

What do you do for a circulatory overload r/t blood transfusions?

A

Stop infusion
Place in high fowelers
Call HCP

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64
Q

What would you expect for a circulatory overload due to blood transfusions?

A

Chest xray
Diuretics
O2
Morphine

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65
Q

what is anemia?

A

decreased erythrocytes (RBC)
decreased quality of HgB

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66
Q

what does anemia do?

A

reduces O2 capacity

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67
Q

what level is low with anemia?

A

HgB

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68
Q

what are the symptoms of anemia?

A

Pallor, jaundice, pruritis
increased HR and RR
angia
fatigue
dyspnea on exertion
night cramps
heart failure
edema, ascites
HA, dizzy, dim vision

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69
Q

what are the 3 major causes of anemia?

A

decreased RBC production
blood loss
increased RBC destruction (hemolysis)

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70
Q

what chronic disease or disorders can cause anemia?

A

kidney disease
cancer
autoimmune

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71
Q

what is sideroblastic anemia?

A

production of sideroblast instead of erthrocytes
-fatugue
-SOB
-enlarged liver and spleen

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72
Q

what happens when kidneys are diseased or damaged?

A

they dont make enough erythropoietin
so bone marrow makes less RBC causing anemia

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73
Q

what can defective DNA synthesis lead to?

A

defiencey of Vit B12 and folate

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74
Q

what can cause acute blood loss?

A

trauma
ruptured vessels
splenic sequestration crisis

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75
Q

what can cause chronic blood loss?

A

Gastritis
menstruation
hemmorids

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76
Q

what stimulates erythropoiesis?

A

Epetin Alfa
may also need iron preparation

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77
Q

what is the Epoietin alfa used to treat?

A

anemia associated with renal disease, chemo induced anemia, and zidovuudine therapy

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78
Q

when do you not give epoetin alfa?

A

if a pateint is on dialysis
HgB is above 11

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79
Q

when do you not give iron?

A

with meals, milk, or antacids

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80
Q

what doyou do or not do when administering erythropoiesis stimulating agents?

A

do not admin with other products
do not shake the vial
vit b12 can be given

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81
Q

which lab level needs to be assessed before giving epoietin?

A

HgB

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82
Q

what is the long acting form of epoeitin for erythropoiesis?

A

Dorbepoeitin

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83
Q

what is hyperchromic?

A

dark and cellular

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84
Q

what is hypochromic?

A

pale or light

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85
Q

what is associated with microcytic RBC?

A

Thalassemia
iron deficency anemia
chronic anemia
sideroblastic anemia

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86
Q

what is associated with macrocytic RBC?

A

Vit B12 or folate deficiency
Liver disease
MDS
chemo (methotrexate)

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87
Q

what must dietary iron be converted by in order to be absorbed?

A

gastric juices

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88
Q

what are the symptoms or iron deficency anemia?

A

pallor
glossitis
cheilitis

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89
Q

what are the diagnostics for iron deficency anemia?

A

Hgb and Hct
ferritin levels
bone marrow aspiration
hemocult stool
colonoscopy

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90
Q

what foods are high in iron?

A

spinach
whole grain breads

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91
Q

what foods enchance iron absorption?

A

orange juice
veal
fish
ascorbic acid

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92
Q

what foods impair iron absorption?

A

eggs
beans
corn
cereal containing phytates

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93
Q

what are oral iron preparations available as?

A

Ferrous salts

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94
Q

when should oral iron supplements be taken?

A

2hr before or 1 hour after milk or antacids

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95
Q

how should a pateint take liquid oral iron preparations?

A

through a straw to avoid staining teeth

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96
Q

what are the parenteral iron preperations?

A

Iron dextran
iron sucrose
ferric gluconate
ferumoxytol

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97
Q

what should a pateint do after having a parenteral iron supplement?

A

lay in recumbant position for 30 min to prevent orthostatic hypotension

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98
Q

what can iron preperations cause?

A

black tarry stools

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99
Q

what are the contradictions of iron supplements?

A

Hemochromatosis (to much iron)
Hemoltyic anemia (thalassemia)

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100
Q

what is thalassemia?

A

Microcytic and hypochromic
decreased HgB and RBC

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101
Q

what is Cooleys anemia?

A

Thalassemia Major
life threatening
symptoms develop by age 2

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102
Q

what are the symptoms of thalassemia?

A

growth deficits
splenomagaly, cardiomegaly, and hepatomegaly
bone marrow hyperplasia
pulmonary disease
HTN
jaundice

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103
Q

what can cause jaundice in thalassemia?

A

hemolysis of RBC

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104
Q

what do you not give for thalassemia?

A

iron supplements

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105
Q

what is used in the treatment of thalassemia?

A

pRBC transfussions
chelating agents
folic acid
splenectomy

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106
Q

what are the chelating agents used for thalassemia?

A

Deferasirox
Deferiprone
Deferoxamine

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107
Q

what is the only cure for thalassemia?

A

HSCT

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108
Q

which hematoligic problem are microcytic and hypochromic?

A

iron deficient anemia
thalassemia

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109
Q

which hematologic disorder is macrolytic?

A

megaloblastic anemia

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110
Q

what is megaloblastic anemia?

A

B12 (cobalmin) defiency
folate defiency

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111
Q

what is pernicuous anemia?

A

most common cause of cobalmin (B12) deficency
60 yo is common age of diagnosis
another name for megaloblastic anemia

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112
Q

what is the difference in pernicuous anemia and megaloblastic anemia?

A

pernicuous doesnt have an intrinsic factor to absorb B12
megaloblastic is just low b12

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113
Q

how would B12 be administered to a pateint with pernicuous anemia?

A

nasal spray or injection because stomach cant absorb it

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114
Q

what are the symptoms of megaloblastic anemia vitamin B12?

A

mild jaundice
weakness
sore, smooth, beefy, red shiny tounge
paresthsia
confusion
ataxia
anorexia
vitiligo
premature greying

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115
Q

what are the diagnostic studies for megaloblastic anemia?

A

Vit B12 and folate levels
serum b12
serum methylmalonic acid (MMA)
serum homocysteine
schilling test

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116
Q

what diagnostic differentiates btwn pernicuous anemia and megaloblastic anemia?

A

shilling test for intrinsic factor

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117
Q

what foods should you eat with megaloblastic anemia but not pernicuous?

A

red meat
liver
eggs
dairy
grain

not pernicuous because intrinsic factor cant absorb b12 from foods

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118
Q

what medication is given for megaloblastic anemia (pernicous anemia)?

A

cyanocobalamin - lifelong

119
Q

what are the drug interactions of cyanocobalamin?

A

dont give with cimetidine, colchicine, or potassium
dont mix with other drugs
IM or subQ
burning at injection site

120
Q

what are the nursing responsibliites for megaloblastic anemia?

A

gait and stablity
small amounts of soft bland foods
frequent mouth care

121
Q

what are the symptoms of megaloblastic anemia folate deficency?

A

same as B12 but no neuro symptoms

122
Q

what will folate levels look like with megaloblastic anemia folate deficency?

A

low folate
normla coalbumin

123
Q

what can decrease folate?

A

alcohol

124
Q

what causes folate defiency?

A

malabsorption

125
Q

what can untreated pernicuous anemia progress to?

A

neurologic damage

126
Q

what is folic acid essential for?

A

erythropoesis

127
Q

when should folic acid be given?

A

not until the cause of anemia is determined because it is contradicted in pt with pernicuous anemia

128
Q

what hematoligic problem is normocytic and normochromic?

A

aplastic anemia

129
Q

what is aplastic anemia?

A

body stops producing new blood cells (RBC, WBC, and platelets)
-panctopenia
-hypocellular bone marrow

130
Q

what is pancytopenia?

A

decrease in RBC, WBC, and platelets

131
Q

what are the nursing interventions for aplastic anemia?

A

dont share room with a pateint who has an infection such as pneumonia because they cant fight off infections

132
Q

what are the diagnostic for aplastic anemia?

A

CBC
iron studies
H/H
bone marrow biopsy

133
Q

what are the symptoms of aplastic anemia?

A

fatigue
pallor
weakness
exertional dyspnea
petechieae
echymosis
tachycardia
susceptible to infections

134
Q

what is the treatment of aplatic anemia?

A

HSCT
-hematopoietic stem cell transplant
cyclosporin
cyclophosphamide
ATG
-antihymocyte globulin

135
Q

what is ATG (treatment for aplastic anemia)?

A

antithymocyte globuliin
hoarse serum
can delay immune response, fever, rash, anaphyaxis

136
Q

what is acquired hemolytic anemia?

A

lysis (destruction) of RBC by extrinsic factors

137
Q

what is the treatment for aquired hemolytic anemia?

A

preserve kidney function
-immunosuppresants
-folate
-hydration
-corticosteroids
-blood transfusion
-splenectomy

138
Q

what are the signs of a severly anemic patient ?

A

dyspnea
tachycardia

139
Q

What is hemochromatosis?

A

To much iron in the body
Genetic

140
Q

What foods should you avoid with hemochromatosis?

A

Vitamin C
Uncooked seafood
Iron rich foods

141
Q

What are the symptoms of hemochromatosis?

A

Fatigue
Arthralgia
Impotence
Abdominal pain
Wt loss

Late:
Enlarged liver
Cirrhosis
Heart disease
Arthrirtis
Testicular atrophy
Diabetes

142
Q

What are the diagnostics for hemochromatosis?

A

Iron studies: serum iron, ferritin, TIBC
Genetic testing
Liver biopsy

143
Q

How do you treat hemochromatosis?

A

Blood removal
Chelating agents
Manage organ involvement

144
Q

What is chelating therapy?

A

Decreases red blood cell production by binding with iron and then removes iron from the bloodstream

145
Q

What medication is a type of parenteral chelation therapy?

A

deferoxamine

146
Q

What should you monitor when recieving chelating therapy of deferoxamine?

A

Platelet count

147
Q

What type of meds can you not give to a pregant or patient with renal disease?

A

Chelating agents

148
Q

What is an oral chelating agent?

A

Deferiprone

149
Q

What can the chelating agent deferiprone cause?

A

Reddish, brown urine

150
Q

what is polycythemia?

A

Erythrocytosis
abnormally high RBC
HCT>50

151
Q

what can polycythemia lead to?

A

stroke

152
Q

what is a complication of the hyperviscosity of polycythemia?

A

thrombosis

153
Q

what is polycythemia often confused with and why?

A

dehydration because they have the same lab levels (increased HgB and HCT)

154
Q

what are the nusing actions for polycythemia?

A

TED hose (DVT)
ambulate
monitor I/O
no iron supplements

155
Q

what is polycythemia vera (primary)?

A

elevated erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes
Genetic not inherited

156
Q

what are the symptoms of polycythemia vera?

A

HTN
HA
dizzy
decreased concentration
tinnitis
visual disturbnaces
paresthsia
erythromelagia
dusky reddness and cyanosis of lips, nails, and mucous membranes

157
Q

what are the lab levels for polycythemia vera (primary)?

A

Inncreased platelets
increased HgB and Hct
increased BP

*dont call physician

158
Q

if a patient with polycythemia vara (primary) suddenly has pain in their legs, what do you do?

A

notify HCP, could be a clot

159
Q

what are the diagnostics of polycythemia vera?

A

increased RBC, WBC and platelets
uric acid
cobalamin and histamine
decreased erythropoietin
splenomegaly

160
Q

what is the non-medication treatment for polycythemia vera (primary)?

A

phlebotomy (300-500ml)
hydration

161
Q

why can aspirin be given for polycythemia vera (primary)?

A

helps prevent clotting

162
Q

why is allopurinol given for polycythemia vera (primary)?

A

prevent gout

163
Q

what is the first line treatment for polycythemia?

A

Hydroxyurea

164
Q

if previoius meds dont work for polycythemia, what is the 2nd line of treatment?

A

Ruxolitnib

165
Q

what does Ruxolitnib do for the treatment of polycythemia?

A

helps control the number of blood cells the body makes

166
Q

what does anagrelide do for the treatment of polycythemia?

A

decreases the number of platelets

167
Q

what does allopurinol do for the treatment of polycythmia?

A

prevents uric acid production

168
Q

what is secondary polycythemia?

A

hypoxia driven or hypoxia independent

169
Q

what is the difference between polycythemia vera (primary) and secondary polycythemia?

A

secondary polycthemia doesnt enlarge the spleen

170
Q

what is the main treatment for secondary polycythemia?

A

relieve hypoxia

171
Q

what kind of disease is sickle cell?

A

the most severe anemia
inherited autosomal resessive

172
Q

what can sickle cell lead to?

A

renal failure and stroke

173
Q

what are sickle cell episodes cause by?

A

low 02 in the blood

174
Q

what is the primary symptom of sickle cell?

A

pain

175
Q

what are the nursing interventions for a sickle cell crisis?

A

increase fluids and provide rest due to decreased blood flow
avoid crowds because of increased risk of infection
treat pain

176
Q

what is the most importnat factor for assessing a pateint with sickle cell?

A

the pain that the patient states their in

177
Q

what is the main cause of death in sickle cell patients?

A

infection

178
Q

what is the treatment of sickle cell?

A

o2 to prevent tissue damage
morphine
rest
F/E
keep pt warm
transfusion when aplastic occurs

*relieve hypoxia

179
Q

if o2 is normal in a patient with sickle cell, what do you do?

A

still give more o2

180
Q

what medication can be used for treatment of sickle cell?

A

Hydroxyurea

181
Q

what is hemostasis?

A

control of bleeding
interactions between platelets and clotting mechanisms

182
Q

what can thrombocytopenia lead to?

A

bleeding and hemmorage
petechiae
purpura
-mucous membranes of mouth nose and GI

183
Q

what happens to blood pressure when bleeding?

A

it decreases

184
Q

what is immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)?

A

autoimmune
platelets are coated with antibodies, so they are attacked when they reach the spleen
platelet life is shortened 8-10 days

185
Q

what do you do is you have an order to give platelets for a pateint with immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)?

A

check platelet count
if normal, notify HCP

186
Q

what are signs that a platelet transfusion may be appropriate?

A

bleeding from IV
decreased blood pressure
petecheia

187
Q

what is thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)?

A

medical emergency

188
Q

what is thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP) associated with?

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

189
Q

what can cause thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

A

autoimmune disorders
-lupus
-scleroderma
-drug toxicites
-preclampsia

190
Q

what is heperin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

A

veneous and arterial thrombi form leading to infarctions, strokes, and necrosis
pateint will rarely bleed
happens 5-10 days after heparin therapy

191
Q

what can signal heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

A

if platlets fall less than 50%
or less than 150,000

192
Q

what do you do for a heperin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

A

stop heparin
maintain anticoagulation with thrombin (give Argatroban)
plasmaphereisis- clears platelet aggregatingg IgG from blood

193
Q

what do you not do for treatment of heperin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

A

platelet transfusion bc it could cause thrombosis

194
Q

when can you start warafrin if a patient has heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

A

when platelet count reaches 150,000

195
Q

what are the diagnostics for all thrombocytopenias?

A

CBC, platelets, antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
Pt, aPTT, H/H, ITP antigen assay, PF4-heparin
bone marrow

196
Q

what education may be given to a patient with thrombocytopenia?

A

apply pressure longer
avoid straining, picking/blowing nose
use soft toothbrush
rinse mouth with NS q 2 hr
avoid alcohol based mouthwashes

197
Q

what is the treatment for immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)?

A

platelet transfusion
splenectomy
corticosteroids
IV immunoglobin

198
Q

why are corticosteroids given for the treatment of thrombocytopenia?

A

they inhibit the spleen which increases lifespan of platelets

199
Q

what is the treatment of thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)?

A

plasmaphoresis- remove pt plasma and replace with FFP
splenectomy
corticosteroids

200
Q

what does the nurse do for thrombocytopenia?

A

discourage OTC aspirin (can cause thrombocytpenia)
observe for s/s of thrombocytopenia in pt receiving chemo drugs
educate ways to reduce risk of bleeding
closely monitor platelet count, coagulation studies, HgB and Hct

201
Q

what is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

intravascular clotting and bleeding
life threatning
profuse bleeding

202
Q

what can clotting and bleeding with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) lead to?

A

multi-organ failure

203
Q

what is the priority education/treatment for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

DIC cannot be treated until the underlying cause is solved
*treat underlying cause

204
Q

what are the signs of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

oozing blood
occult hemmorage
tachyonea, orthopnea
tachycardia, hypotension
pulmonary emboli
cyanosis
bloody stools
hematuria
dizzy, HA
irritiable
bone/joint pain

205
Q

what is the treatment of disseminated intravasculat coagulation (DIC)?

A

stabalize
treat underlying cause
blood products
Heparin

206
Q

when can heparin be given for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

only if there is more clotting than bleeding

207
Q

what is hemophilia?

A

group of hereditary diseases that lead to persistant, severe bleeding
x linked recessive genetic

208
Q

what is the most common type of hemophilia?

A

A, factor VIII
men

209
Q

what happens with hemophilia?

A

platelet plug is formed but clotting deficit does not allow stable fibrin clot
bleeding occurs from trauma which leads to hemarthrosis (bleeding in joints)

210
Q

what are the symptoms of hemophilia?

A

slow persistant bleeding from an injury
delayed bleeding
uncontrollable hemmorage
hemarthosis
bruising
oral and GI bleeding

211
Q

what is hemarthrosis and what do you do?

A

bleeding in joints
immobilize that joint until bleeding stops

212
Q

what is the treatment for hemophilia?

A

clotting factors
desmopression acetate(DDAVP)
antifibrinolytic therapy
treat minor bleeding episodes

213
Q

what is the nursing management for hemophilia?

A

teach daily oral care
non contact sports only
wear gloves for household chores and yardwork
wear med alert tag

214
Q

what 2 meds are given for hemophilia and what do they do?

A

Desmopressin
Tranexamic acid

215
Q

you can not give desmopressin to a patient who has?

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

216
Q

what is leukocytosis?

A

excess WBC

217
Q

what is the first part of a WBC to arrive to a sight of injury?

A

neutrophils

218
Q

what will happen to neutrophils with infection or inflammation?

A

they will increase

219
Q

what is the formula for absolute neutrophil count?

A
  1. add your polys (segs) to your bands
  2. multiply by WBC
  3. Mutiply by 10
220
Q

what will lab levels look like for neutropenia?

A

decreases neutrophils
normal WBC

221
Q

what is neutropenia diagnosed with?

A

CBC
then a bone marrow biopsy for the cause

222
Q

if a patient has neutropenia and develops a low grade fever, what do you do?

A

Immediate interventions, bc any change could mean infection

223
Q

what are the nursing interventions for neutropenia?

A

prevent infection, - reverse isolation
strict handwashing and hygeine
screen visitors for sickness

224
Q

what should you educate a pt on with neutropenia?

A

Dont share personal items
use a soft toothbrush
get immunizations
avoid crowds

225
Q

what foods does a patient need to avoid with neutropenia?

A

no raw meat
no unpeeled fruit
no fresh flowers

226
Q

what medicine is used to treat neutropenia and what does it do?

A

FIlgrastim (Neupogen)
-stimulates neutrophils

227
Q

what are the adverse effects of Neupogen thats given for neutropenia?

A

muscle aches, bone pain, and fever

228
Q

what is myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?

A

the disruption of the production of blood cells

229
Q

what is the sign of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?

A

infection or bleeding

230
Q

what is myelodysplastic also known as?

A

preleukemia

231
Q

whatis the definitive diagnosis for myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?

A

bone marrow biopsy

232
Q

what medications are used to treat low risk myelodisplastic syndrome (MDS)?

A

Erythropoeitin
Neupogen -G-CSF
Sargramostim (Leukine) -GM-CSF

233
Q

what can increase effects of Sargramostim (leukine)?

A

corticosteroids
lithium

234
Q

what medicines are used to treat high risk myelodisplastic syndrome (MDS)?

A

Antimetabolite Chemotherapy Drugs
-Azacitidine
-Decitabine

235
Q

what is the difference in acute and chronic leukemias?

A

acute is acute onset with rapid progression
chronic is gradual onset with prolonged course

236
Q

what is the major cause of death in chronic leukemia?

A

hemorrage or infection

237
Q

what is acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)?

A

bone marrow is filled with myeloblast

238
Q

what are the signs of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)?

A

fever
infection
weakness
bleeding
petechiea
purpura
enlarged liver and spleen

239
Q

what is the main interventions for all leukemias?

A

prevent infection
report fever, increased neutrophils or any changed r/t infection

240
Q

what medications are given for acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)?

A

Antimetabolite (cytarbine)
Idarubicin
Daunorubicin

241
Q

what is acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

A

uncontrolled numbers of inmatture lymphoid cells (B cells)
most common in children

242
Q

what are the signs of acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

A

fever
bone pain
weakness
HA
CNS symptoms
enlarged liver and spleen

243
Q

what commonly happens before a diagnosis of acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

A

kids will come in with vague symptoms and be diagnosed with a viral infection until lab test are drawn

244
Q

what are the lab levels with acute lymphocytic leukemia?

A

decreased RBC, HgB, and HcT
increased platelts
normal WBC

245
Q

what is used to treat (non-medication) acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

A

Chemotherapy
Radiation
HSCT
Corticosteroids

246
Q

what medicines are used to treat acute lympocytic leukemia (ALL)?

A

methotrexate into subarachnoid
- Asoaraginase (Antimetobalite)
-clofarabine (Antimetobalite)
-doxorubicin

247
Q

what is chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?

A

excess mature neoplastic granulocytes in bone marrow

248
Q

what is the hallmark sign of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?

A

Philedelphia chromosomes

249
Q

what is the treatment of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?

A

chemo with cytarbine, daunorubicin, or methotrexate (antimetabolite)

250
Q

what is the most common leukemia in adults?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

251
Q

what is chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?

A

lymphocytes fill into bone marrow, spleen, and liver

252
Q

what do chronic leukemias have r/t symptoms?

A

no symotoms until it progresses to acute leukemia

253
Q

what medicines are given for chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?

A

Chlorambucil
Rituximab
Vincristine
Methotrexate

254
Q

what is the non medication treatment for chronic lymphcytic leukemia (CLL)?

A

chemotherapy
steroids
radiation
splenectomy
HSCT

255
Q

what are the diagnostics for leukemia?

A

CBC
Platelet
bone marrow exam
lumbar puncture or CT

256
Q

what are used for treatment of leukemias?

A

Chemotherapy (induction, remission, and maintence)
corticosteroids
radiation
HSCT

257
Q

what is the induction phase of chemotherapy?

A

severly ill patients
-anemia
-thrombocytosis
-neutropenia

258
Q

what can the nurse do when a pateint has chemotherpay side effects?

A

symptoms can be really bad so use therapeutic communication and open ended questions

259
Q

what does HSCT increase the risk for?

A

infection

260
Q

if a patient has a fever of 101 after a HSCT, what do you do?

A

it requires an immediate follow up

261
Q

what is the nursing managment for leukemia?

A

report s/s of infection
provide infection protection measures
Vitals
monitor neutrophil levels
weigh regulary
culture lesions
mouth care
give antifungal agents

262
Q

what is Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

lymphatic tissue cancer
most common in young adults and children older than 10

263
Q

what are the signs of an insidious onset of Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

painless, enlarged lymph nodes
fever
night sweats
fatigue
weight loss

264
Q

what do you assess for in a pateint with Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

lymph nodes

265
Q

what can cause pain in a lymph node with Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Alcohol
if node is pressing on a nerve

266
Q

what are the diagnostics for Hodgkins disease?

A

CBC -mild anemia, increased neutrophils and esinophils
Increased SED rate
chest xray
chest/ abdominal CT
PET scan
* biopsy of noadal and extranodal sites (Reed Sternberg cells)

267
Q

what are the stages of Hodgkins lymphoma?

A
  1. single region of nodes
  2. 2 or more region of nodes above diaphram
  3. 2 or more ragion of nodes above and below diaphragm
  4. widespres, organs, with or without nodes

A- no symptoms
B-symptoms

268
Q

what is the treatment od Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Chemotherpay
Radiation
ABVD regimen

269
Q

what is the ABDV regimen for Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Adriamycin
Bleomycin
Vinldastine
Dacarbazine

270
Q

what is not needed in Hodgkins lymphoma that is needed in leukemias?

A

does not need maintence chemotherapy
-does not impact fertility

271
Q

why is a follow up needed for Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

to look for a 2nd malignancy
- another cancer is possible

272
Q

what is nonhodgkins lymphoma?

A

malignant neoplasms of B, T or natural killer cells
-Bcells invaid lymphatic system

273
Q

what are the signs of nonhodgkins lymphoma?

A

painless nodes
airway obstruction
CNS disease
renal failure
GI complaints
fever
sweats
wt loss

274
Q

what does nonhodgkins lymphoma not have?

A

no reed sternberg cells

275
Q

what are the diagnostics for non-hodgkins lymphoma?

A

MRI
lumbar puncture for CNS
Endoscopies for GI
bone marrow biopsy
CBC for anemia, increased neutrophils and eosinophils
Chest/ abdominal xray or CT

276
Q

what is the treatment for non hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Chemotherpay
Radiation
HSCT
Rituximab
CHOP regimen

277
Q

what is the CHOP regimen?

A

Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin
Vincristine
Prednisone

278
Q

if a patient just had a HSCT, what are the nursing interventions?

A

screen visitors
reverse isolation
no live plants or flowers

279
Q

what can Rituximab cause and what should you do?

A

decreases platelets and WBC
*if patient gets any signs of infection, notify HCP

280
Q

whats the difference in Hodgkins lymphoma and non Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin is localized, lymph nodes are rarely involved
Non hodgkins is peripheral nodes, nodes are involved

281
Q

what is mutiple myeloma?

A

maligancy where plasma cells multiply uncontrollably and move into the bone marrow, lymph nodes and spleen
Bcells

282
Q

what can increase the risk of multiple myeloma?

A

radiation
chemicals
herbacides

283
Q

what happens with multiple myeloma and what should you check?

A

the bone is destroyed
check calcium levels

284
Q

what can lead to dysfunction of immune and bone destruction r/t multiple myeloma?

A

M (monoclonal) proteins (IgA)

285
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of multiple myeloma?

A

bone pain
osteoporosis- lytic lesions
hypercalcemia
neuro dysfunction
recurrent infections
renal failure
anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia

286
Q

what are signs of hypercalcemia?

A

Polyuria
constipation
bone pain
stones
decreased DTR
muscle weakness
confusion
stupor or coma
seizure

287
Q

what are signs of hypocalcemia?

A

trousseu
chvostek
diarrhea
tingling
weak bones

288
Q

what are the diagnostics of multiple myeloma?

A

MRI, PET, CT
bone marrow exam
CBC
urinalysis-m protein in blood and urine
Bone biposy
serum creatnine

289
Q

what will a patient have in their urine with multiple myeloma?

A

Bense jones protein

290
Q

why is a pateint with multiple myeloma a priority pateint?

A

increased risk for fractures which could lead to internal bleeding

291
Q

what is the treatment dor multiple myeloms symptoms?

A

NO CURE
-corticosteroids
-chemotherapy
-immunotherapy
-HSCT

292
Q

what are the nursing interventions for multiple myeloma?

A

control pain
avoid fractures
ambulate to absorb calcium
increase fluids to dilute calcium

293
Q

what medications are used for multiple myeloma?

A

Cyclophosphamide
DOxorubicin
Bortezomib
Dexamethasone
*NSAIDS and acetiminophen for pain