Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Anemia gen info

A
  1. A reduction in the number of circulating red blood cells, as measured by hemoglobin or hematocrit
  2. When red cell mass decreases, several compensatory mechanisms maintain oxygen
    delivery to the tissues, including:
    a. Increased cardiac output
    b. Increased oxygen extraction ratio
    c. Rightward shift of the oxyhemoglobin curve (increased 2,3-diphosphoglycerate [2,3-DPG])
    d. Expansion of plasma volume
  3. Symptoms are highly variable, depending on the severity of anemia, the rate at which it developed, and the underlying oxygen demands of the patient. If anemia develops rapidly, symptoms are more likely to be present, because there is little time for
    physiologic compensation. If the onset is gradual, compensatory mechanisms are able to
    maintain adequate oxygen delivery to tissues, and symptoms may be minimal or absent.
  4. As general rule, blood transfusion is not recommended unless either of the following
    is true:
    a. Hb <7 g/dL OR
    b. Patient requires increased oxygen-carrying capacity (e.g., patients with coronary
    artery disease or some other cardiopulmonary disease)
    Pseudoanemia or dilutional anemia > decr Hb of Hct secondary to volume infusion or overload
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2
Q

Anemia gen sxs

A
  1. Fatigue
  2. Dyspnea
  3. Headache
  4. Palpitations
  5. Tachycardia
  6. Pallor– best noted in conjunctiva
  7. Signs/symptoms of the underlying cause: orthostatic lightheadedness, syncope, or
    hypotension if acute bleeding; jaundice if hemolytic anemia; blood in stool if Gl bleeding
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3
Q

Anemia gen dx

A
  1. Decreased Hb and Hct
    a. Formula for converting Hb to Hct: Hb × 3 = Hct (1 unit of packed RBCs increases Hb level by 1 point and Hct by 3 points)
    b. Hb of 7 to 8 provides sufficient oxygen-carrying capacity for most patients– anemia is not tolerated as well in patients with impaired cardiac function
  2. Reticulocyte index
    a. Reports the number of reticulocytes present as a percentage of the total number of RBCs
    b. The reticulocyte count is an important initial test in evaluating anemia because it
    indicates whether effective erythropoiesis is occurring in the bone marrow.
    c. Effective erythropoiesis is dependent on adequate raw materials (iron, vitamin B12, folate) in bone marrow, absence of intrinsic bone marrow disease (e.g., aplastic anemia), adequate erythropoietin from the kidney, and survival of reticulocytes (no premature destruction before leaving the bone marrow)
    d. Reticulocyte index >2% implies bone marrow is responding to increased RBC requirements
    e. Reticulocyte index <2% implies inadequate RBC production by bone marrow
  3. RBC indices
    a. MCV > average size of RBCs
    b. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) > average Hb content of RBCs
    c. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) > average Hb concentration in each RBC
    d. RDW > variation in RBC size
  4. Peripheral blood smear
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4
Q

Transfusion pearls

A

PRBCs (contain no platelets or clotting factors)
• Mix with normal saline to infuse faster (not with lactated ringer solution because calcium causes coagulation within IV line)
• One unit raises hematocrit by 3-4 points
• Each unit may be given for over 90-120 minutes
• Always check CBC after the transfusion is completed
FFP
• Contains all of the clotting factors
• Contains no RBCs/WBCs/platelets
• Given for high PT/PTT, coagulopathy, and deficiency of clotting factors– FFP can be given if you cannot
wait for vitamin K to take effect or if patient has liver failure (in which case vitamin K will not work)
• Follow up PT and PTT to assess response
Cryoprecipitate
• Contains factor VIll and fibrinogen
• For hemophilia A, decreased fibrinogen (DIC) and vWD
• Platelet transfusions– 1 unit raises platelet count by 10,000
• Whole blood only for massive blood loss
• Massive blood loss > ideal ratio of platelets: FFP: PRBCs transfused should be 1:1:1. Blood should be warmed to prevent a decrease in core body temperature.

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5
Q

Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions

A

Intravascular Hemolysis (aka acute hemolytic reactions):
• Very serious and life-threatening > caused by ABO-mismatched blood transfused into patient (usually due to clerical error). For example, if B blood is given to type A patient, anti-B IgM antibodies attach to all of the infused B RBCs, activate the complement pathway, and produce massive intravascular hemolysis as C9 punches holes through RBC membranes.
• Sxs: fever/chills, nausea/vomiting, pain in the flanks/back, chest pain, dyspnea
• Complications: hypovolemic shock (hypotension, tachycardia), DIC, renal failure with hemoglobinuria
• Tx: stop transfusion immediately + aggressively replace fluid to avoid shock and renal failure, epinephrine for anaphylaxis, dopamine/norepinephrine prn to maintain blood pressure
Extravascular hemolysis (also called delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction).
• Extravascular hemolysis is less severe and in most cases is self-limited; may occur within 3-4 weeks after a transfusion
• Caused by one of the minor RBC antigens. For example, if a patient is Kell antigen-negative and has anti-Kell IgG antibodies from a previous exposure to the antigen, re-exposure of her memory B cells to Kell antigen on RBCs will result in synthesis of IgG anti-Kell antibodies. These antibodies coat all of the Kell antigen-positive donor RBCs, which will be removed extravascularly by macrophages in the spleen, liver, bone marrow.
• Sxs: more subtle > fever, jaundice, anemia
• No treatment required- good prognosis

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6
Q

Diagnosing the Cause of Anemia (General Approach)

A
  1. For RI <2% indicating an inadequate bone marrow response > examine PBS and RBC indices
    a. If microcytic anemia (MCV <80), ddx:
    • Iron deficiency anemia– mc
    • Anemia of chronic disease– iron present in the body but is not available for hemoglobin synthesis due to iron-trapping in macrophages.
    • Thalassemia– defective synthesis of globin chains
    • Sideroblastic anemia (includes lead poisoning, pyridoxine deficiency, ETOH toxic effects)– defective synthesis of protoporphyrins leading to iron accumulation in mitochondria
    b. If macrocytic anemia (MCV >100), ddx:
    • Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency– defective DNA
    synthesis leading to nuclear defects in RBCs
    • Liver disease (MCV increases up to 115)– abnormal incorporation of plasma lipoproteins into RBC membranes alters RBC shape and increases their volume
    • Stimulated erythropoiesis (MCV increases up to 110)– reticulocytes are larger than mature RBCs, resulting in an increase in polychromatophilic RBCs
    • Alcoholism
    • Hypothyroidism
    c. If normocytic anemia (MCV 80-100), ddx:
    • Aplastic anemia– bone marrow failure
    • Bone marrow fibrosis
    • Bone marrow infiltration
    • Anemia of chronic disease
    • Renal failure– decreased erythropoietin production results in decreased erythropoiesis
  2. RI >2%, indicating an adequate bone marrow response, ddx:
    a. Acute blood loss
    b. Hemolysis
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7
Q

Iron Deficiency Anemia Causes

A

Microcytic
1. Chronic blood loss
a. Mc cause of IDA
b. Menstrual blood loss is mc source. In absence of menstrual bleeding > Gl blood loss is most likely
Elderly with IDA > rule out colon cancer.
2. Dietary deficiency/increased iron requirements; seen in the following three age groups:
a. Infants and toddlers- occurs especially if the diet is predominantly human milk, which is low in iron; + also have an increased requirement d/t accelerated growth
b. Adolescents- increased requirement d/t rapid growth; adolescent women esp doubly at risk of IDA
c. Pregnant women- pregnancy increases iron requirements

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8
Q

IDA dx

A
  1. Iron studies
    a. Decreased serum ferritin
    b. Increased TIBC/transferrin levels
    c. Decreased transferrin saturation
    d. Decreased serum iron
  2. Peripheral blood smear— reveals microcytic, hypochromic RBCs
  3. Bone marrow biopsy– reveals absence of stainable iron; gold standard but only indicated if lab evidence of IDA present + no source of blood loss is found
  4. Guaiac stool test or colonoscopy if Gl bleeding is suspected— colon cancer is a common cause of Gl bleeding in elderly
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9
Q

IDA tx

A
  1. Oral iron replacement (ferrous sulfate)
    a. Trial of iron replacement therapy may be given to young, otherwise healthy, menstruating women without investigating for additional sources of blood loss (men and postmenopausal women > attempt to find source of bleeding first)
    b. Side effects include constipation, nausea, dyspepsia
  2. Parenteral iron replacement
    a. Iron dextran IV or IM
    b. Rarely necessary because most patients respond to oral iron therapy– may be useful if poor gut absorption, require more iron than oral
    therapy can provide, cannot tolerate oral ferrous sulfate, or certain heart failure patients
  3. Blood transfusion is not recommended unless anemia is severe or the patient has
    cardiopulmonary disease
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10
Q

Thalassemias gen info

A
  1. Inherited disorders characterized by reduced production of alpha or beta globin chain of hemoglobin
  2. B-Thalassemias
    a. B-Chain production is decreased, but the synthesis of a-chains is unaffected
    b. Excess a-chains bind to and damage RBC membrane
    c. Severity depends on the number of alleles mutated and the severity of these mutations
    d. MC with Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian ancestry
  3. a-Thalassemias
    a. There is a decrease in a-chains, which are a component of all types of hemoglobins
    b. Excess B-globin chains form tetramers, which are abnormal hemoglobins
    c. Severity depends on the number of alleles that are deleted/mutated, ranging from an asymptomatic carrier state to fetal death
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11
Q

Beta Thalassemia major (Cooley anemia; homozygous B-chain thalassemia)

A

a. Clinical features
• Severe anemia beginning in late infancy
• Jaundice and dark urine
• Massive hepatosplenomegaly
• Expansion of marrow space– can cause distortion of bones and result in “crew-cut” appearance on skull X-ray
• Growth retardation and failure to thrive
• If untreated, death occurs within the first few years of life secondary to progressive CHF
b. Diagnosis
• Hemoglobin electrophoresis– reveals elevated Hb F and HbA2
• Peripheral blood smear– reveals microcytic, hypochromic anemia +- target cells
Treatment
• Frequent PRBC transfusions required to sustain life

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12
Q

Beta Thalassemia minor

A

Heterozygous B-chain thalassemia

a. Characterized by asymptomatic carrier state or mild anemia
b. Diagnosed with hemoglobin electrophoresis
c. Peripheral blood smear reveals microcytic, hypochromic RBCs
d. Treatment usually not necessary (patients are not transfusion-dependent)

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13
Q

Beta Thalassemia intermedia

A

a. Characterized by anemias of varying severity
b. Diagnosed with hemoglobin electrophoresis
c. Peripheral blood smear reveals microcytic, hypochromic RBCs
d. Most individuals are not transfusion-dependent in childhood, but many will become transfusion-dependent in adulthood

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14
Q

Alpha Thalassemia

A
  1. Silent carriers (mutation/deletion of only one a-locus)
    a. Asymptomatic
    b. Normal Hb and Hct level
    C. No treatment necessary
  2. a-Thalassemia trait minor (mutation/deletion of two a-loci)
    a. Characterized by mild anemia
    b. Peripheral blood smear reveals microcytic, hypochromic RBCs
    c. No treatment necessary
  3. Hb H disease (mutation/deletion of three a-loci)
    a. Characterized by anemias of varying severity
    b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows Hb H
    c. Peripheral blood smear reveals microcytic, hypochromic RBCs
    d. Most individuals are not transfusion-dependent, but many require periodic transfusions during episodes of increased hemolysis (e.g., infection)
  4. Mutation/deletion of all four a-loci
    Either fatal at birth (hydrops fetalis) or shortly after birth
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15
Q

Sideroblastic Anemia

A

MICROCYTIC
Caused by abnormality in RBC iron metabolism leading to pathologic iron deposits in RBC mitochondria.
• Hereditary or acquired– acquired causes include drugs (e.g., chloramphenicol, INH, alcohol), exposure to lead, collagen vascular disease, and neoplastic disease (e.g., myelodysplastic syndromes)
Characterized by ringed sideroblasts in bone marrow, increased serum iron, increased serum ferritin, normal TIBC, and normal/elevated TIBC saturation (which distinguishes it from IDA)
Treatment involves removing offending agents and transfusing as necessary– may also
consider pyridoxine

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16
Q

Anemia of Chronic Disease

A

NORMOCYTIC
Occurs in the setting of chronic infection (e.g., tuberculosis, lung abscess), malignancy
(e.g., lung, breast, Hodgkin disease), inflammation (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, or trauma– the release of inflammatory cytokines has a suppressive effect on erythropoiesis)
Generally mild and well tolerated
May be difficult to differentiate from iron deficiency anemia
Laboratory findings include low serum iron, normal-to-low TIBC/serum transferrin, and increased serum ferritin
PBS– normocytic, normochromic anemia, but may be microcytic and hypochromic as well
No specific treatment is necessary other than treatment of the underlying process- do
not give iron

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17
Q

Aplastic Anemia

A

NORMOCYTIC
Bone marrow failure leading to pancytopenia (i.e., anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia)
Causes
a. Idiopathic–majority of cases
b. Radiation exposure
c. Medications (e.g., chloramphenicol, sulfonamides, gold, carbamazepine)
d. Viral infection (e.g., human parvovirus, hepatitis C, hepatitis B, EBV, CMV, herpes zoster, varicella, HIV), chemical exposure (e.g., benzene, insecticides)
Clinical Features
a. SXS anemia: fatigue, dyspnea, headache, palpitations, pallor
b. SXS thrombocytopenia: petechiae, easy bruising
c. Increased infections– d/t neutropenia
4. Can transform into acute leukemia
Diagnosis
1. Pancytopenia
2. PBS– normocytic anemia + decreased neutrophils, platelets
3. Bone marrow biopsy (for definitive diagnosis)- hypocellular marrow + absence of progenitors of all three cell lines
D. Treatment
1. Discontinue offending agents or treatment of any known underlying causes
2. Transfusion of PRBCs and platelets as necessary– use judiciously
3. Bone marrow transplantation

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18
Q

Vitamin B12 Deficiency gen info

A

MACROCYTIC

  1. Vitamin B12 serves as cofactor in two important reactions required for normal erythropoiesis + CNS functioning:
    a. conversion of homocysteine > methionine
    b. conversion of methylmalonyl-CoA > succinyl-COA
  2. Main dietary sources of vitamin B12 > meat + fish
  3. After ingestion, vitamin B12 is bound to intrinsic factor (produced by gastric parietal cells) so it can be absorbed by the terminal ileum
  4. Vitamin B12 stores in liver are plentiful and can sustain an individual for 3+ years
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19
Q

Vitamin B12 Deficiency causes

A

a. Most commonly due to impaired absorption (either via lack of intrinsic factor or lack of absorptive ileal surface)
b. Pernicious anemia– lack of intrinsic factor due to autoimmune destruction; mc cause in Western world
c. Gastrectomy– lack of intrinsic factor due to removal of parietal cells
d. Inadequate dietary intake (e.g., strict vegetarianism, alcoholism)
e. Crohn disease or resection of terminal ileum (approximately the last 100 cm)
f. Other organisms competing for vitamin B12 (i.e., Diphyllobothrium latum infestation [fish tapeworm] and blind loop syndrome [bacterial overgrowth])

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20
Q

Vitamin B12 Deficiency sxs

A
  1. Sore tongue (stomatitis and glossitis)
  2. Neuropsychiatric changes/dementia > assess vit B12 deficiency dementia workup.
  3. Neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord– distinguishes from folate deficiency
    a. Leads to a loss of position/vibratory sensation in lower extremities, ataxia, and
    upper motor neuron signs (increased deep tendon reflexes, spasticity, weakness, Babinski sign)
    b. +- urinary and fecal incontinence, impotence
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21
Q

Vitamin B12 Deficiency dx

A
  1. PBS– reveals megaloblastic (macrocytic) anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils
  2. Low serum vitamin B12 level
  3. Elevated serum methylmalonic acid and homocysteine levels– most useful if levels borderline
  4. Antibodies to intrinsic factor (for the diagnosis of pernicious anemia)
    S. Schilling test was historically used to determine if B12 deficiency was d/t pernicious anemia but no longer routinely performed
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22
Q

Vitamin B12 Deficiency tx

A
  1. Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) IM- parenteral therapy is preferred
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23
Q

Folate Deficiency gen info

A

MACROCYTIC

  1. Folate plays important role in DNA synthesis
  2. Green vegetables + folic acid-supplemented foods are main dietary sources
  3. Folic acid stores in the body are limited, and inadequate intake over a 3-month period can lead to deficiency
  4. Causes
    a. Inadequate dietary intake (e.g., “tea and toast” diet, alcoholism) mc cause
    b. Long-term use of oral antibiotics
    c. Increased folate requirements (e.g., pregnancy, chronic hemolysis)
    d. Use of folate antagonists (e.g., methotrexate)
    e. Anticonvulsant medications (e.g., phenytoin)
    f. Malabsorptive syndromes (e.g., celiac disease)
    g. Hemodialysis
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24
Q

Folate Deficiency sxs

A
  1. Similar to those of vitamin B12 deficiency but NO NEURO symptoms
  2. SXS anemia: fatigue, dyspnea, headache, palpitations, pallor
  3. Neuropsychiatric changes/dementia– look for folate deficiency in workup for dementia
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25
Q

Folate Deficiency dx

A
  1. PBS– reveals megaloblastic (macrocytic) anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils
  2. Low serum folate level
  3. Elevated serum homocysteine level– methylmalonic acid levels are normal!!!
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26
Q

Folate Deficiency tx

A

daily oral folic acid replacement

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27
Q

Hemolytic Anemia gen info

A
  1. Premature destruction of RBCs due to a variety of causes
  2. Bone marrow typically normal and responds appropriately by increasing erythropoiesis, leading to an elevated reticulocyte count. However, if erythropoiesis cannot keep up with the destruction of RBCs, anemia results!
  3. Hemolytic anemia can be classified according to cause, site, chronicity, or mechanism of destruction.
  4. Classified based on cause as follows;
    a. Hemolysis d/t abnormality extrinsic to RBC– most cases acquired:
    • Immune hemolysis
    • Mechanical hemolysis (e.g., prosthetic heart valves, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia)
    • Medications, burns, toxins (e.g., snake bite, brown recluse spider bite), infections (e.g., malaria, clostridium)
    b. Hemolysis d/t intrinsic RBC defects– most cases inherited:
    • Hemoglobin abnormality (e.g., sickle cell anemia, hemoglobin C disease, thalassemias)
    • Membrane defects (e.g., hereditary spherocytosis, paroxysmal nocturnal hemo-
    globinuria (PNH])
    • Enzyme defects (e.g., G6PD deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiency)
  5. Classified based on predominant site of hemolysis as follows:
    a. Intravascular hemolysis > within the circulation
    b. Extravascular hemolysis > within the reticuloendothelial system, primarily the spleen
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28
Q

Hemolytic Anemia sxs

A
  1. SXS anemia: fatigue, dyspnea, headache, palpitations, pallor
  2. JAUNDICE
  3. Dark urine color if intravascular process– due to hemoglobinuria, not bilirubin.
  4. Hepatosplenomegaly, cholelithiasis, and lymphadenopathy if chronic
  5. SXS underlying disease (e.g., bone crises in sickle cell disease)
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29
Q

Hemolytic Anemia dx

A
  1. Low Hb/Hct-level depends on degree of hemolysis and reticulocytosis
  2. Elevated reticulocyte count– due to increased RBC production
  3. Peripheral blood smear
    a. Schistocytes suggest intravascular hemolysis (“trauma” or mechanical hemolysis)
    b. Spherocytes or helmet cells suggest extravascular hemolysis (depending on the cause)
    c. Sickled RBCs if sickle cell anemia
    d. Heinz bodies if G6PD deficiency
  4. Low haptoglobin (especially with intravascular hemolysis)– haptoglobin binds to
    free hemoglobin, so decreased levels suggest hemoglobin release secondary to RBC destruction
  5. Elevated LDH– released when RBCs are destroyed
  6. Elevated indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin– due to degradation of heme as RBCs are destroyed
  7. Positive direct Coombs test if autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)– detects anti-body or complement on RBC membrane
  8. Positive osmotic fragility test
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30
Q

Hemolytic Anemia tx

A
  1. Treat underlying cause
  2. Transfusion of PRBCs if severe anemia is present or patient is hemodynamically compromised
  3. Folate supplementation– folate is depleted in hemolysis
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31
Q

Sickle Cell Disease organ involvement

A

Almost Every Organ Can Be Involved• Blood- chronic hemolytic anemia, aplastic crises
Heart– high-output CHF due to anemia
CNS– stroke
Gl tract– gallbladder disease (stones), splenic infarctions, abdominal crises
Bones– painful crises, osteomyelitis, avascular necrosis
Lungs– infections, acute chest syndrome
Kidneys– hematuria, papillary necrosis, renal failure
Eyes– proliferative retinopathy, retinal infarcts
Genitalia– priapism

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32
Q

Sickle Cell Disease gen info

A

a. Autosomal recessive disorder > inheritance of two Hb S genes (homozygous) causing normal Hb A to be replaced by the mutant Hb S
b. Hb S diff is a substitution of an uncharged valine for a negatively charged glutamic acid at a point in the ß-chain
c. Under reduced oxygen conditions (e.g., acidosis, hypoxia, changes in temp, dehydration, infection) Hb S molecules polymerize, causing RBCs to sickle. Sickled RBCs obstruct small vessels, leading to ischemia
Sickle cell trait:
a. inheritance of one Hb S gene (heterozygous)
b. 1 of 12 from African descent are carriers, can appear in Italian, Greek, and Saudi Arabian descent
c. Trait = not anemic > have normal life expectancy
d. Sickle cell trait a/w isosthenuria– inability to concentrate or dilute urine- patients will have a constant osmolality on urinalysis testing
e. Can identify asymptomatic individuals with trait >genetic counseling
3. Prognosis
a. SCD reduces life expectancy > median survival 58y
b. Factors a/w increased mortality rates: greater
frequency of hospitalization, acute chest syndrome, renal insufficiency
c. MC causes of death > acute chest syndrome + multi-organ failure

33
Q

SCD sxs

A
  1. Manifestations of chronic, hemolytic anemia
    a. Pallor and/or jaundice
    b. Gallstone disease (pigmented gallstones)
    c. Delayed growth and maturation (esp boys)
    d. High-output heart failure
  2. Manifestations of acute vaso-occlusion
    a. Pain crises mc
    b. Vaso-occlusion>bone infarction>severe pain
    c. Bone pain usually involves multiple sites (e.g., tibia, humerus, femur)
    d. Pain is self-limiting (2-7d)
    e. Hand-foot syndrome (dactylitis)
    f. Acute chest syndrome
    g. Splenic infarction
    • Recurrent episodes eventually lead to auto-splenectomy, whereby the spleen is reduced to a small, calcified remnant
    h. Priapism
    i. Renal papillary necrosis– common (up to 20%)
    • Characterized by hematuria (usually painless)
    • Seldom requires hospitalization and may cease spontaneously
    j. Stroke– primarily in children
    k. Myocardial infarction
    l. Avascular necrosis of joints- mc hip/shoulder
  3. Manifestations of chronic vaso-occlusion
    a. Chronic lower extremity ulcers- mc over lateral malleoli
    b. Ophthalmologic complications (retinal infarcts, vitreous hemorrhage, proliferative retinopathy, retinal detachment)
    c. Chronic pain
  4. Aplastic crises
    a. Usually provoked by a viral infection like human parvovirus B19 > reduces ability of bone marrow to compensate for chronic hemolysis
  5. Infectious complications
    a. Functional asplenia results in increased susceptibility to infections (particularly
    encapsulated bacteria such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae)
    b. Predisposition to Salmonella osteomyelitis (encapsulated organism)
34
Q

Hand-foot syndrome

A

e. Hand-foot syndrome (dactylitis)
• Painful swelling of dorsa of hands/feet in infancy/early childhood (4-6 months)
• Often first manifestation of sickle cell disease
• Caused by vascular necrosis of the metacarpal and metatarsal bones

35
Q

Acute chest syndrome

A
  • SXS similar to pneumonia
  • chest pain, respiratory distress, pulmonary infiltrates, hypoxia
  • Due to repeated episodes of pulmonary infarctions
36
Q

Priapism

A

• Erection due to vaso-occlusion, lasting between 30 min - 3 hours
• Usually subsides spontaneously after urine is passed, after light exercise, or after a cold shower
• Trial of hydralazine, nifedipine, or antiandrogens (stilbestrol) may prevent further episodes
Sustained priapism (i.e., lasting more than 3 hours) is rare (<2%) = medical emergency

37
Q

SCD dx

A
  1. Anemia mc
  2. Peripheral blood smear– sickle-shaped RBCs
  3. Hemoglobin electrophoresis– required for diagnosis, although most diagnosed on newborn screening
38
Q

SCD tx

A
  1. Prevention of crises
    Avoid high altitudes– low oxygen tension can precipitate crisis
    b. Maintain fluid intake– dehydration can precipitate crisis
    c. Treat infections promptly– infection/fever can precipitate crisis > should be seen as medical emergency
  2. Prevention of infections
    Early vaccination for S. pneumoniae, H. influenza, and Neisseria meningitidis
    b. Prophylactic penicillin for children <5 years
  3. Hydroxyurea
    a. Indicated for severe/symptomatic sickle cell disease, frequent pain crises, severe/recurrent acute chest syndrome, or chronic pain
    b. Enhances Hb F levels > reduces sickling
    c. Reduces vaso-occlusive events, including pain crises and acute chest syndrome
  4. Management of anemia
    a. Folic acid supplementation
    b. Blood transfusion as necessary– base need for transfusion on the patient’s clinical condition and not on Hb levels (ex presence of vaso-occlusive phenomena like acute chest syndrome, stroke, or cardiac decompensation)
  5. Management of pain crises
    Hydration– oral hydration if mild episode, IV fluids (normal saline) for moderate/severe episodes
    b. Morphine for pain control– do not underestimate patient’s pain
  6. Bone marrow transplantation– performed successfully to cure sickle cell anemia, but not routinely performed d/t matched donor availability and risk of complications
39
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis gen info

A
  1. Autosomal dominant disease > defect in the gene coding for spectrin and other RBC proteins
  2. Loss of RBC membrane surface area without a reduction in RBC volume > necessitating a spherical shape > spherical RBCs become trapped + destroyed in spleen (by macrophages)– hence the term extravascular hemolysis.
40
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis sxs

A
  1. Hemolytic anemia– can be severe
  2. Jaundice
  3. Splenomegaly
  4. Gallstones
  5. Occasional hemolytic crises
41
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis dx

A
  1. Microcytic anemia
  2. Elevated reticulocyte count
  3. Elevated MCHC
  4. Peripheral blood smear > spherocytes
  5. Negative direct Coombs test– helps to distinguish hereditary spherocytosis (HS) from AHA (also characterized by spherocytes)
  6. Eosin-5-maleimide (EMA) binding testing
  7. EMA is a dye that binds to several proteins present on the RBC membrane
  8. Spherocytes have a reduced number of these proteins present on their membranes and will demonstrate decreased EMA binding on testing
  9. Osmotic fragility testing
    a. Tests ability of RBCs to swell in a graded series of hypotonic solutions
    b. Because of their reduced surface area to volume ratio, spherocytes are less tolerant of swelling and will rupture earlier (in more concentrated solutions) than normal RBCs (they are osmotically fragile)
42
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis tx

A
  1. Blood transfusion as necessary

2. Splenectomy in patients with symptomatic or moderate/severe anemia

43
Q

Glucose-6-Phosohate Dehydrogenase Deficiency gen info

A
  1. X-linked recessive disorder > primarily affects men
  2. MC inherited RBC enzymatic defect
  3. Known precipitants > sulfonamides, nitrofurantoin, primaquine, dimercaprol, fava beans, infection
  4. Specific variants are more common in certain populations:
    a. G6PD A variant > mild form, AA
    b. G6PD Mediterranean variant
    • More severe form, Mediterranean descent
44
Q

G6PD deficiency sxs

A
  1. Episodic hemolytic anemia- usually induced by drugs, foods, or illness
  2. Dark urine
  3. Jaundice
45
Q

G6PD deficiency dx

A
  1. Anemia, elevated LDH, decreased haptoglobin, and elevated indirect bilirubin (during episodes of hemolysis)
  2. Peripheral blood smear
    “Bite cells” > RBCs that appear to have “bites” taken out of them, secondary to phagocytosis of Heinz bodies by splenic macrophages
    b. Heinz bodies– abnormal hemoglobin precipitates within RBCs
  3. G6PD assay > deficient NADPH formation
  4. Decreased G6PD level is diagnostic– important to note that G6PD levels may be normal during acute hemolytic episodes because RBCs most deficient in G6PD have already been destroyed; repeating the test at a later date facilitates diagnosis
46
Q

G6PD deficiency tx

A
  1. Avoid drugs or other exposures that precipitate hemolysis
  2. Maintain hydration
  3. Blood transfusion as necessary
47
Q

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia gen info

A
  1. Production of autoantibodies to RBC membrane antigen(s) which leads to hemolysis
  2. Type of antibody produced (1gG or 1gM) determines the prognosis, site of RBC destruction, and response to treatment
  3. More fulminant in children than in adults
  4. Warm AlHA- more common than cold AlHA
    a. Autoantibody is IgG, which binds optimally to RBC membranes at 37°C (“warm” temperatures)
    b. Results in extravascular hemolysis > primary site of RBC sequestration is the spleen > splenomegaly common feature
    c. May be primary/idiopathic or secondary to lymphomas, leukemias (e.g., CLL), other malignancies, collagen vascular diseases (especially
    SLE), and drugs (e.g., a-methyldopa)
  5. Cold AlHA
    a. Autoantibody is IgM, which binds optimally to the RBC membrane at 0° to 5°C (“cold” temperatures)
    b. Results in complement activation and intravascular hemolysis– primary site of RBC sequestration is the liver
    c. May be primary/idiopathic (especially in the elderly) or secondary to infection (e.g., Mycoplasma pneumonia infection, infectious mononucleosis)
48
Q

AIHA sxs

A
  1. Signs/symptoms of anemia: fatigue, dyspnea, headache, palpitations, pallor
  2. Jaundice if significant hemolysis is present
  3. Signs/symptoms of the underlying disease
49
Q

AIHA dx

A
  1. Anemia with elevated reticulocyte count
  2. Elevated LDH
  3. Decreased haptoglobin
  4. Elevated indirect bilirubin
  5. Peripheral blood smear > spherocytes if warm AlHA or RBC aggregates if cold AIHA
  6. Direct Coombs test
    a. If positive for IgG on RBCs > warm AIHA
    b. If positive for complement alone on RBCs > cold AIHA
  7. Positive cold agglutinin titer if cold AlHA
50
Q

AIHA tx

A
  1. Therapeutic approach depends on type of autoantibody causing the hemolysis
  2. Warm AlHA
    a. Glucocorticoids– mainstay of therapy
    b. Splenectomy– if refractory to glucocorticoids
    c. Rituximab if refractory to splenectomy
    d. Immunosuppression (azathioprine or cyclophosphamide) if refractory to splenectomy
    e. RBC transfusions as necessary
    f. Folic acid supplementation
  3. Cold AlHA
    a Avoiding exposure to cold– prevents bouts of hemolysis
    b. Rituximab
    c. Various chemotherapy agents
    d. RBC transfusions as necessary
    e. Steroids are not beneficial
51
Q

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria gen info

A
  1. Acquired disorder that affects hematopoietic stem cells and cells of all blood lineages
  2. Caused by a deficiency of proteins that anchor complement-inactivating proteins to blood cell membranes. This deficiency results in an unusual susceptibility to complement-mediated lysis of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.
52
Q

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria sxs

A
  1. Signs/symptoms of anemia: fatigue, dyspnea, headache, palpitations, pallor
  2. Signs/symptoms of chronic intravascular hemolysis: paroxysmal hemoglobinuria (dark
    urine) , jaundice
  3. Pancytopenia
  4. Thrombosis– primarily of venous systems (e.g., of the hepatic veins [Budd-Chiari syndrome])
  5. May evolve into aplastic anemia, myelodysplasia, myelofibrosis, and acute leukemia
  6. Abdominal, back, and musculoskeletal pain
53
Q

PNH dx

A
  1. Normocytic anemia with elevated reticulocyte count
  2. Elevated LDH
  3. Reduced haptoglobin
  4. Elevated indirect bilirubin
  5. Peripheral blood smear > reveals normochromic, normocytic RBCs
  6. Flow cytometry of anchored cell surface proteins (CD55, CD59)
54
Q

PNH tx

A
  1. Eculizumab– monoclonal antibody that serves as a complement inhibitor, for patients with significant disease manifestations (e.g., transfusion dependence, renal insufficiency, or thrombosis)
  2. Folic acid supplementation
  3. Blood transfusion as necessary
  4. Bone marrow transplantation– potentially curative
55
Q

Thrombocytopenia gen info

A
  1. Platelet count <150,000 (normal = 150,000-400,000/mL)
  2. Causes
    a. Decreased production
    • Bone marrow failure: acquired (e.g., aplastic anemia), congenital (e.g., Fanconi syndrome), congenital intrauterine rubella
    • Bone marrow invasion: tumors, leukemia, fibrosis
    • Bone marrow injury drugs (e.g., ethanol, gold, cancer chemotherapy agents, chloramphenicol), chemicals (e.g., benzene), radiation, infection
    b. Increased destruction
    • Immune: infection, drug-induced, ITP, HIT type 2, SLE, HIV-associated thrombocytopenia
    • Nonimmune: DIC, TTP, HIT type 1
    c. Sequestration from splenomegaly
    d. Dilutional– after transfusions or hemorrhage
    e. Pregnancy– usually an incidental finding (especially third trimester) but can also occur in setting of preeclampsia or eclampsia (remember HELLP syndrome)
56
Q

Thrombocytopenia sxs

A
  1. Cutaneous bleeding: petechiae (mc in dependent areas), purpura, ecchymoses at sites of minor trauma
  2. Mucosal bleeding: epistaxis, menorrhagia, hemoptysis, Gl/GU tracts bleeding
  3. Excessive bleeding after procedures/surgery (when platelet count <50,000)
  4. Intracranial hemorrhage and heavy Gl bleeding (when platelet count <10,000)– can be life-threatening
  5. Do not see heavy bleeding into tissues (hematomas) or joins (demarthroses) like what is seen in coagulation disorders (e.g., hemophilia)
57
Q

Thrombocytopenia dx

A
  1. Decreased platelet count
  2. Peripheral blood smear
  3. Bone marrow biopsy– may be required if primary hematologic disorder is suspected
58
Q

Thrombocytopenia tx

A
  1. Remove any offending drugs (e.g., aspirin, NSAIDs) and treat the underlying cause
  2. Platelet transfusion as necessary depending on the cause and severity of thrombocytopenia
59
Q

Immune (idiopathic) Thrombocytopenic Purpura gen info

A
  1. IgG autoantibodies to host platelets coat and damage platelets > then removed by splenic macrophages
  2. May be acute or chronic:
    a. Acute form
    • Usually in children
    • Preceded by viral infection mc
    • Usually self-limited– 80% of cases resolve spontaneously within 6 months
    b. Chronic form
    • Usually in adults, mc in women 20-40 years of age
    • Spontaneous remissions are rare
60
Q

ITP sxs

A
  1. Many patients have minimal bleeding symptoms despite extremely low platelet counts (<5,000/mL)
  2. Cutaneous bleeding: petechia, purpura, ecchymoses at sites of minor trauma
  3. Mucosal bleeding: epistaxis, menorrhagia, hemoptysis, GU/GU bleeding
  4. Splenomegaly is not seen
61
Q

ITP dx

A
  1. Decreased platelet count (frequently <20,000– remainder of blood is normal)
  2. Peripheral blood smear– reveals decreased platelets
62
Q

ITP tx

A
  1. Glucocorticoids– mainstay of therapy
  2. IV immune globulin (IVIG)– saturates the reticuloendothelial system binding sites for
    platelet-bound self-immunoglobulin, decreasing platelet uptake and destruction by the spleen; typically reserved for patients with active bleeding
  3. Splenectomy– induces remission in 70-80% of chronic, steroid-resistant ITP
  4. Rituximab, thrombopoietin receptor agonists (e.g., eltrombopag), and some immunosuppressive agents have been used successfully in splenectomy-resistant patients
  5. Platelet transfusions as necessary– for patients with severe bleeding + platelets <30,000
63
Q

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura gen info

A
  1. Rare disorder in which patients lack functional ADAMTS13 (protease that cleaves vWF) > build-up of ultra-large VWF multimers in blood > formation of microthrombi that consume platelets, occlude small vessels, and cause mechanical damage to RBCs (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia [MAHA])
  2. Life threatening emergency that can involve any organ. It is highly responsive to therapy but leads to death if left untreated!
64
Q

TTP sxs

A
  1. Sxs of hemolytic anemia: fatigue, dyspnea, pallor, jaundice
  2. Sxs of thrombocytopenia: petechiae, purpura
  3. Acute renal failure– typically mild
  4. Fever
  5. Fluctuating, transient neurologic sxs- can range from confusion to hemiplegia.
65
Q

TTP dx

A
  1. Anemia
  2. Thrombocytopenia
  3. Elevated LDH
  4. Decreased haptoglobin
  5. Elevated indirect bilirubin
  6. Peripheral blood smear– reveals schistocytes
66
Q

TTP tx

A
  1. Plasmapheresis (large volume)– begin as soon as diagnosis is established, can be stopped once platelet count recovers
  2. Corticosteroids
67
Q

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia

A
  • Complication of heparin exposure caused by autoantibodies to the heparin-platelet factor 4 complex
  • Remember the “4 Ts”: thrombocytopenia (decrease in platelet count typically >50%), timing (onset typically 5 to 10 days after first heparin exposure), thrombosis (secondary to platelet clumping), and lack of other causes for thrombocytopenia
  • Diagnosis is confirmed with antiplatelet factor 4 antibody testing or serotonin release
  • Treated by discontinuing heparin and initiating anticoagulation (e.g. thrombin inhibitor such as lepirudin, argatroban, and dabigatran)
  • Avoid heparin in the future in any patient who has developed an episode of HIT
68
Q

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

A
  • Autosomal recessive disease
  • Disorder of platelet adhesion (to subendothelium) due to deficiency of platelet glycoprotein GPIb-IX
  • On peripheral blood smear, platelets are abnormally large
  • Platelet count itself is only mildly reduced
69
Q

Glanzmann Thrombasthenia

A
  • Autosomal recessive disease
  • Disorder of platelet aggregation due to deficiency in platelet glycoprotein GPIIb-lIla
  • Bleeding time is prolonged
  • Platelet count itself is normal
70
Q

Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance

A

• Common in elderly (up to 10% in patients >75 years of age)
• Asymptomatic, premalignant clonal plasma cell proliferation
• Dx confirmed by presence of monoclonal protein (M-protein) spike <3.0 g and <10% plasma cells in bone marrow without evidence of multiple myeloma (i.e., lytic
bone lesions, anemia, hypercalcemia, or renal insufficiency)
• < 20% develop multiple myeloma in 10-15 years, but almost all with multiple myeloma have a preceding MGUS
• No specific treatment is necessary (just close observation)

71
Q

Multiple Myeloma gen info

A
  1. Neoplastic proliferation of a single plasma cell line that produces monoclonal immunoglobulin, leading to enormous copies of one specific immunoglobulin (usually IgG or IgA type)
  2. Incidence is increased after age 50 and is 2x common in African-American compared to whites
  3. Etiology is unclear
  4. As disease process advances, bone marrow elements are replaced by malignant plasma cells, resulting in anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia
72
Q

Multiple Myeloma sxs

A
  1. Lytic bone lesions– result in significant bone pain (especially in low back, chest, and jaw), pathologic fractures, loss of height secondary to collapse of vertebrae
  2. Anemia- present in most patients due to bone marrow infiltration + renal failure
  3. Renal failure- due to myeloma nephrosis (immunoglobulin precipitation in renal tubules) + hypercalcemia
  4. Recurrent infections (especially of the lung or urinary tract)– mc cause of death due to lack of normal immunoglobulins
  5. Cord compression– may occur secondary to a plasmacytoma or fractured bone fragment
73
Q

Multiple Myeloma dx

A
  1. Serum and urine protein electrophoresis (SPEP/UPEP)– reveals monoclonal protein spike (M-spike) due to a malignant clone of plasma cells synthesizing a single lg
    (usually IgG, although specific subtype can be determined via immunofixation)
  2. Low-dose CT, PET/CT, or MRI– reveal lytic bone lesions
  3. Bone marrow biopsy (required for diagnosis)– reveals >10% abnormal plasma cells
  4. Hypercalcemia- due to bone destruction
  5. Elevated serum total protein– due to paraproteins in blood (hyperglobulinemia)
  6. Elevated creatinine– due to renal damage
  7. Anemia, leukopenia, or thrombocytopenia (especially in advanced disease)- due to bone marrow invasion
  8. Peripheral blood smear– reveals normocytic anemia with RBCs in rouleaux formation (RBCs resemble a stack of poker chips due to clumping caused by hyperglobulinemia)
  9. Urinalysis– reveals large amounts of free light chains called Bence Jones protein
74
Q

Multiple Myeloma tx

A
  1. In contrast to the premalignant conditions MGUS and smoldering multiple myeloma, patients with MM and end-organ damage require treatment
  2. The preferred treatment is high-dose chemotherapy with autologous hematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT)
  3. Bisphosphonates for patients with one or more skeletal lesions
75
Q

DVT gen info

A
  1. Cause: Virchow triad (endothelial injury, venous stasis, hypercoagulability) gives rise to venous thrombosis
  2. Risk factors:
    a. Age >60
    b. Malignancy
    c. Prior history of DVT, PE, or varicose veins
    d. Hereditary hypercoagulable states (factor V Leiden, proteins C and S deficiency, antithrombin Ill deficiency)
    e. Prolonged immobilization or bed rest
    f. Cardiac disease, especially CHF
    g. Obesity
    h. Major surgery, especially surgery of the pelvis (orthopedic procedures)
    i. Major trauma
    j. Pregnancy, oral contraceptives/estrogen use
76
Q

DVT sxs

A
  1. Clinical presentation may be subtle
  2. Classic findings (all have very low sensitivity/specificity):
    a. Lower extremity pain/swelling (worse with dependency/walking, better with elevation/rest)
    b. Homans sign (calf pain on ankle dorsiflexion)
    c. Palpable cord
    d. Fever
77
Q

DVT dx

A
  1. Available studies
    a. Doppler analysis and Duplex ultrasound
    • Initial test for DVT; noninvasive but highly operator dependent
    • High sensitivity/specificity for detecting proximal thrombi (popliteal/femoral) not so for distal (calf vein) thrombi
    b. Venography
    • Most accurate test for diagnosis of DVT of calf veins
    • Invasive and infrequently used
    • Allows visualization of the deep/superficial venous systems + allows assessment of patency and valvular competence
    c. Impedance plethysmography
    • Noninvasive alternative to Doppler ultrasound
    • Blood conducts electricity better than soft tissue, so electrical impedance decreases as blood volume increases
    • High sensitivity for proximal DVT but not for distal DVT (calf veins)
    • Poor specificity because there is a high rate of false positives
    • As accurate as Doppler, but less operator dependent
    d. D-dimer testing
    • Very high sensitivity (9536) but low specificity (503), can be used to rule out DVT when combined with Doppler and clinical suspicion
  2. Interpretation of diagnostic tests
    a. Intermediate-to-high pretest probability of DVT
    • If Doppler ultrasound is positive, begin anticoagulation
    • If Doppler ultrasound is nondiagnostic, repeat ultrasound every 2-3 days for up to 2 weeks
    b. Low-to-intermediate probability of DVT
    • If Doppler ultrasound is negative, there is no need for anticoagulation; observation is sufficient
    • Repeat ultrasound in 2 days
78
Q

DVT complications

A
  1. Pulmonary embolus (PE) can originate from the iliofemoral, pelvic, calf, ovarian, axillary, subclavian, and internal jugular veins, as well as the inferior vena cava and
    cavernous sinuses of the skull
  2. Post-thrombotic syndrome (chronic venous insufficiency)
    a. Occurs in approximately half of all patients with acute DVT
    b. Residual venous obstruction and valvular incompetence lead to ambulatory HTN
  3. Phlegmasia cerulea dolens (painful, blue, swollen leg)
    a. Occurs in extreme cases of DVT- indicates that major venous obstruction has occurred. Often associated with malignancy causing hypercoagulable state.
    b. Severe leg edema compromises arterial supply to the limb, resulting in impaired sensory and motor function.
    c. Venous thrombectomy is indicated
79
Q

DVT tx

A
  1. Anticoagulation
    a. Prevents further propagation of the thrombus
    b. Multiple options: Injectable LMWH (e.g., enoxaparin, dalteparin) (best choice for DVT/PE associated with malignancy), DOACs (e.g., apixaban, rivaroxaban, edosaban, dabigatran), and warfarin (requires IV heparin bridge as below). LMWH was the preferred
    choice for DVT/PE treatment in patients with malignancy; however a recent study showed that edoxaban was non-inferior to dalteparin, and also significantly reduced
    VTE recurrence compared to dalteparin (though with a higher bleeding risk).
    c. If warfarin chosen: Heparin bolus followed by a constant infusion and titrated to maintain PTT at 1.5-2x aPTT
    d. start warfarin once the aPTT is therapeutic and continue for 3 to 6 months. Anticoagulate INR at 2-3
    Continue heparin NR has been therapeutic for 48 hours
  2. Thrombolytic (streptokinase, urokinase, tPA)
    a. Speeds up resolution of clots
    b. Indicated mainly for patients with massive PE who are hemodynamically unstable (HoTN SBP <90 mm Hg), and with no contraindications for thrombolytics
    c. High risk of intracranial hemorrhage with tPA (1-2%)
  3. Inferior vena cava filter placement (Greenfield filter)
    d. Indications for treatment of VTE
    • If absolute contraindication to anticoagulation (bleeding)
    • If failure of appropriate anticoagulation
    b. Effective only in preventing PE, not DVT
  4. Methods of prophylaxis after surgery
    a. Mechanical
    • Leg elevation, graduated compression stockings, early ambulation
    • Pneumatic compression boots- intermittently inflate and deflate, causing compression of the limb, usually the calves; very effective
    • IVC filter for patients at high risk for DVT/PE who have an absolute contraindication to other forms of prophylaxis; for example, after trauma or spinal/orthopedic surgery and have evidence of bleeding
    b. Pharmacologic
    • Heparin or LMWH: Unfractionated heparin or LMWH postoperatively until the patient is ambulatory
    • Combination of pneumatic compression devices and pharmacologic prophylaxis may provide the greatest protection