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3rd Year 1st Sem > Hema 1 - Prelims Samplex Questions > Flashcards

Hema 1 - Prelims Samplex Questions Flashcards

1
Q

False about Hemoglobin Acid- Base balance:

a. Nonoxygenated Hgb may assume a basic
property.
b. Bohr effect is the exchange of oxygen molecule
for CO2
c. Carbonic anhydrase is responsible for carbonic
acid formation
d. Chloride diffuses in the RBC when bicarbonates
builds up within RBC

A

a. Nonoxygenated Hgb may assume a basic

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2
Q

Normally, how many megakaryocytes per 10X field
should be observed?

a. 5-50
b. 2-20
c. 4-40
d. 2-10
e. 3-30

A

d. 2-10

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3
Q

Which of the following will make the Oxygen curve
to shift towards left?

a. Methemoglobin formation
b. Low 2,3DPG level synthesis within red cells
c. Presence of Hgb M
d. Hyperthermia

A

b. Low 2,3DPG level synthesis within red cells

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4
Q

Stain used to diagnose Hairy cell leukemia:

a. SBB
b. LAP
c. NBT
d. TRAP stain

A

d. TRAP stain

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5
Q

Stored iron is usually in the form of ferritin which
composed of:

a. ferrous and transferrin
b. Ferrous and apoferritin
c. ferrous and apoferritin
d. ferric and apoferritin

A

d. ferric and apoferritin

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6
Q

The RBC precursor cell that usually mistaken with
Myeloblast stage:

a. Rubriblast
b. prorubricyte
c. metarubricyte
d. reticulocyte

A

a. Rubriblast

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7
Q

High levels of CO2 in blood, like in hypoventilation,
will lead to the following events.

a. the Hgb will favor a T-form
b. the Hgb becomes a strong base
c. the curve shifts to the left
d. more Hgb binds with Oxygen

A

b. the Hgb becomes a strong base

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8
Q

Which among the special stain is used to confirm
the diagnosis of chronic granulomatous disorder?

a. LAP
b. NBT
c. Peroxidase
d. TRAP
e. Esterase

A

b. NBT

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9
Q

Which of the following will give a decrease M/E
layer?

a. CML
b. Leukemoid reaction
c. Polycythemia vera
d. Fanconi’s anemia

A

d. Fanconi’s anemia

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10
Q

In the formation of heme; glycine must be acted
upon by ______ to form ________.

a. porphobilinogen; protophorphyrin IX
b. ala synthase; δ – ALA
c. δ – ALA; porphobilinogen
d. Succinyl-CoA; Urophorphyrinogen III

A

b. ala synthase; δ – ALA

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11
Q

Which among the precursor RBC cell is the last
stage that synthesizes Hgb?

a. reticulocyte
b. polychromathopihilc normoblast
c. orthochromatophilic erythroblast
d. Rubriblast
e. Rubricyte

A

a. reticulocyte

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12
Q

True about platelet:

a. With half-life of 60 hours
b. With average volume of 12 fL
c. With nucleus
d. 30% of platelet produced is stored in spleen

A

d. 30% of platelet produced is stored in spleen

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13
Q

The last stage that divides during erythropoiesis:

a. polychromatophilic erythrocyte
b. polychromatophilic erythroblast
c. metarubricyte
d. orthochromatophilic erythroblast

A

b. polychromatophilic erythroblast

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14
Q

The length of time that the polychromatophilic
normocyte stays on this stage is approximately:

a. 24 hours
b. 40 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 30 hours

A

c. 72 hours

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15
Q

The ideal ph of the stain used for routine blood
smear staining is:

a. 6.8
b. 7.5
c. 7.4
d. 7.2

A

a. 6.8

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16
Q

A defective spectrin membrane protein may lead to

a. target cell formation
b. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
JPCS
c. Hereditary spherocytosis
d. Hereditary elliptocytosis

A

c. Hereditary spherocytosis

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17
Q

The Positive selection of the T-lymphocyte occurs
on what organ

a. Thymus
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. LN

A

a. Thymus

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18
Q

What is the average surface area of a mature red
blood cell?

a. 110 μm
b. 90 μm
c. 180 μm
d. 80 μm
e. 140 μm

A

e. 140 μm

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19
Q

Modified TRUE or FALSE:
Which of the statements below is TRUE?

1st: In EMP, the production of 2,3 DPG occurs in the
Rapoport-Leubering system.
2nd: A decrease of 2,3 DPG will allow the shifting of
the dissociation curve to the left.

a. Only the 1st statement above is true.
b. Only the 2nd statement above is true
c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.
d. Neither the 1st nor the 2nd statement above is
true.

A

c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.

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20
Q

Which belong to the mitotic pool within the bone
marrow?

a. Metamyelocyte
b. Band cell
c. Myeloblast
d. Neutrophil

A

c. Myeloblast

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21
Q

Modified TRUE or FALSE:
Which of the statements below is TRUE?

1st: The senile red cells exposes the
phosphatidylserine molecule that induces
macrophage cytolysis within the spleen.
2nd: The Haptoglobulin-hemoglobin complex enters
the liver cells via CD 136 to degrade the
Hemoglobin.

a. Only the 1st statement above is true.
b. Only the 2nd statement above is true
c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.
d. Neither the 1st nor 2nd statement above is
true.

A

c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true

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22
Q

The p50 of the Hgb F is between ___________.
a. 21-23 mm Hg
b. 23-25 mm Hg
c. 19-21 mm Hg
d. 26-27 mm Hg

A

d. 26-27 mm Hg

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT the function of
erythropoietin (EPO)?

a. Causing the delay in the release of reticulocyte
from the marrow.
b. It helps evades apoptosis by erythrocytes
progenitor and precursors.
c. Prevents self-destruction of the immature red
cells.
d. Early exit of red cell from the marrow.
e. Initiates polychromasia in the peripheral blood.

A

a. Causing the delay in the release of reticulocyte
from the marrow.

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24
Q

Which of the following enzyme is responsible for
converting Uro III to Copro III?

a. Urophorphyrinogen III decarboxylase
b. PBG deaminase
c. ALA synthase
d. ferrochelatase
e. Uro III synthase

A

a. Urophorphyrinogen III decarboxylase

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25
Q

Which among the interleukin is necessary to
promote the development of eosinophil?

a. IL-3 and IL-6
b. IL-3 and IL-5
c. IL-2 and IL-5
d. IL-3 and IL-11

A

b. IL-3 and IL-5

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26
Q

True about the O2 dissociation curve

a. Curve shifting to the right may happen at blood
pH 7.2
b. Carboxyhgb shift the curve to the right
c. Shift to the right occurs when the p50 occurs
approximately at more than 27 mmHg
d. Shift to the left occurs when the p50 occurs
approximately at less than 26 mmHg

A

a. Curve shifting to the right may happen at blood
pH 7.2

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27
Q

Modified TRUE or FALSE:
Which of the statements below is TRUE?

1st: The Anticoagulant used for special bone
marrow examination is heparin.
2nd: Heparin cannot be used for blood smear
preparation.

a. Only the 1st statement above is true.
b. Only the 2nd statement above is true
c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.
d. Neither the 1st nor the 2nd statement above is
true.

A

c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.

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28
Q

What hemoglobin is NOT present in during the adult
stage?

a. Hgb F
b. Hgb A2
JPCS
c. Gower 1
d. Hgb A1

A

c. Gower 1

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29
Q

What cell is representing polychromasia?

a. Reticulocytes
b. Eosinophil
c. Neutrophil
d. Basophil

A

a. Reticulocytes

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30
Q

A red cell precursor that divides twice during
erthropoiesis:

a. metarubricyte
b. pronormoblast
c. rubriblast
d. basophilic normoblast

A

d. basophilic normoblast

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31
Q

Not part of the stromal cells in the bone marrow
tissue:

a. osteoblast
b. Mast cell
c. osteoclast
d. adventitial cells
e. plasmacytes

A

e. plasmacytes

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32
Q

Modified TRUE or FALSE:
Which of the statements below is TRUE?

1st: Peroxidase stain is used to differentiate kinds of
AML from CML.
2nd: LAP stain is used to differentiate leukemia
from leukemoid reaction.

a. Only the 1st statement above is true.
b. Only the 2nd statement above is true
c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.
d. Neither the 1st nor the 2nd statement above is
true.

A

b. Only the 2nd statement above is true

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33
Q

Which among the cytokine is responsible for
directing the stem cell to become a platelet
producing cell?

a. IL-3, IL-4, IL-5, IL-6
b. IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-2
c. IL-3, IL-7, IL-11
d. IL-2, IL-6, TNF-a
e. IL-3, IL-6, IL-11, IL-5

A

c. IL-3, IL-7, IL-11

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34
Q

Stain used to differentiate granulocytic for nongranulocytic leukemia

a. Peroxidase
b. LAP
c. Esterase
d. TRAP

A

c. Esterase

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35
Q

Which of the following events is FALSE?

a. More oxygen is released to the tissue when
there are low levels of 2,3-BPG.
b. Full oxygen saturation of Hgb is reached
around 80 mmHg pressure of oxygen.
c. The Hgb is fully oxygenated when it is in the Rform.
d. The formation of salt bridges between 2,3DPG
and B-chain stabilizes the T-form.
e. Kruppel-Like factor 1 regulates the switching
from gamma to beta chain production.

A

a. More oxygen is released to the tissue when
there are low levels of 2,3-BPG.

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36
Q

Growth factor necessary for RBC development or
production:

a. EPO
b. CSF-Meg
c. IL-7
d. Thrombopoietin

A

a. EPO

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37
Q

Which of the following abnormal Hgb variants may
shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left?

a. Sulfhgb
b. Hgb Kansas
c. Methhemoglobin
d. Carboxyhgb

A

d. Carboxyhgb

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38
Q

T helper cell has CD:

a. 4
b. 16
c. 8
d. 56

A

a. 4

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39
Q

False about the hematopoietic stem cells:

a. Stem cell differentiation is influenced by cell to
cell interaction and growth factors.
b. It has CD 34 as part of its stem cellness.
c. Apoptosis of stem cells is influenced by the
interaction of the death receptors such as Fab
and its ligand
d. Some of the stem cells may remain as stem cell
pool or for “renewal”.

A

c. Apoptosis of stem cells is influenced by the
interaction of the death receptors such as Fab
and its ligand

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40
Q

Red cell central pallor should be:

a. Should be less than 1 um in diameter
b. Should be ½ of the red cells diameter
c. Should be ¼ of the total red cell size
d. 30-45% of the total diameter of red cell

A

d. 30-45% of the total diameter of red cell

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41
Q

. Modified TRUE or FALSE:
Which of the statements below is TRUE?

1st: Hypoventilation leads to increase Carbonic Acid
formation in the plasma.
2nd: Acidosis may increase the O2 affinity to Hgb.

a. Only the 1st statement above is true.
b. Only the 2nd statement above is true
c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.
JPCS
d. Neither the 1st nor the 2nd statement above is
true.

A

a. Only the 1st statement above is true.

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42
Q

First immature granulocyte with primary granules:

a. Metamyelocyte
b. Myelocyte
c. Promyelocyte
d. Myeloblast

A

c. Promyelocyte

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43
Q

The stage of red cell maturation where the Hgb is
admixed with the basophilc property of the
cytoplasm, giving a red-blue color:

a. rubriblast
b. rubricyte
c. prorubriblast
d. metarubricyte

A

b. rubricyte

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44
Q

Which of the following special stains can
differentiate granulocytic from monocytic
leukemia?

a. esterase stain
b. TRAP stain
c. Romanowsky stain
d. LAP stain
e. NBT stain

A

a. esterase stain

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45
Q

The synthesis of the primary granules occurs in:

a. Mature granulocyte
b. Promyelocyte
c. Band cell
d. Myelocyte

A

b. Promyelocyte

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46
Q

The reticulocyte resides for how many days in the
marrow before it will gain exit and goes to the
circulation?

a. 2 days
b. 5 days
c. 1 day
d. 3 days
e. 3-4 days

A

a. 2 days

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47
Q

Production of EPO is regulated primary by:

a. Hypoxia
b. metabolic rate of the body
c. 2,3 DPG levels in the blood
d. Acidosis or alkalosis in the plasma

A

a. Hypoxia

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48
Q

Which among the transmembrane protein is anion
transporter and carries the ABH antigens?

a. Glycophorin A
b. Band 3
c. Glut-1
d. Aquaporin 1
e. Glycophorin B

A

b. Band 3

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49
Q

The osteoclast in the bone marrow can be mistaken
as

a. Megakaryocyte
b. Monoblast
c. Plasma cells
d. Osteoblast

A

a. Megakaryocyte

50
Q

Which of the following actions is not appropriate in
making blood smears?

a. Adjusting the ph of the stain to 7.2 if one
wishes to see the malarial stippling in red cells.
b. Cleaning the slide form dirt and oil before using
it for blood smear preparation.
c. Allow the blood to run all throughout the width
of the spreader slide before smearing the
blood.
d. Decrease the angle of blood smearing in case
of very low Hct value.

A

d. Decrease the angle of blood smearing in case
of very low Hct value.

51
Q

Which of the following statement is TRUE?

a. The H2CO3 formation is enhanced by carbonic
anhydrase action in the lungs
b. G6PD deficiency cause the decrease production
of NADPH
c. Pyruvate kinase is part of the second phase of
EMP pathway
d. The basic property of the Hgb causes the
conversion of carbonic acid to water and CO2.

A

b. G6PD deficiency cause the decrease production
of NADPH

52
Q

Modified TRUE or FALSE:
Which of the statements below is TRUE?

1st: The bone marrow biopsy is used for the study
of the architectural structure of the bone marrow.
2nd: The Bone marrow can be re-clotted by adding
0.015M CaCl2.

a. Only the 1st statement above is true.
b. Only the 2nd statement above is true
c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.
d. Neither the 1st nor the 2nd statement above is
true.

A

c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.

53
Q

Which among the blood group antigens are located
specifically at glycophorin A?

a. ABO
b. RH
c. S and s
d. M and N

A

d. M and N

54
Q

Which does not belong to mitotic pool within the
bone marrow?

a. Eosinophil
b. Myelocyte
c. Myeloblast
d. Promyelocyte

A

a. Eosinophil

55
Q

Stain used to diagnose chronic granulomatous
disease:

a. NBT
b. tDT
c. TRAP
d. LAP

A

a. NBT

56
Q

The following examination of the bone marrow
films is done using low magnification EXCEPT for:

a. Observation of fat to marrow cells ratio
b. for computing the myeloid erythroid ratio
c. Search for tumor cells in cluster
d. estimation of megakaryocyte number

A

a. Observation of fat to marrow cells ratio

57
Q

What are the CD markers present on B-cell?

a. CD34,2,5
b. CD 19,20,22
c. CD 19,16,20
d. CD12,4,8
e. CD2,4,8

A

b. CD 19,20,22

58
Q

With blue black granules:

a. Neutrophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
d. Monocyte

A

c. Basophil

59
Q

Which of these is True?

a. The production of 2,3DPG is dictated or
influenced by Tissue Hypoxia.
b. The R-form of Hgb means that the Hgb is fully
oxygenated.
c. P50% oxygen saturation happens if the pO2
mmHg is at 26.6.
d. All of the statements.

A

d. All of the statements.

60
Q

The bone marrow specimen shows a 60% of RBC
precursor cells and 40% of granulocyte and its
precursors, then the M:E ratio would be:

a. 4:1
b. 1:4
c. 1:1.5
d. 2:1
e. 5:1

A

c. 1:1.5

61
Q

The liver primarily assumes the responsibility of
blood cell production during the ______ of
gestation.

a. after 4th month of gestation
b. before 5th month of gestation
c. 1 week after birth
d. before 4th week of gestation

A

a. after 4th month of gestation

62
Q

Which of this organ where antigen independent
lymphocyte differentiation occurs?

a. Lymph node
b. Liver
c. Thymus
d. Spleen
e. BALT

A

c. Thymus

63
Q

Which among the abnormal hemoglobin may shift
the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

a. Hypocapnia
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hyperventilation
d. Hyperthermia

A

d. Hyperthermia

64
Q

What reagent is used to prevent the rupture of
prolymphocyte or lymphoblast in the marrow
smears?

a. 22 % albumin
b. ethanol
c. Zenker’s solution
d. glacial acetic acid

A

a. 22 % albumin

65
Q

Which of the following action in wedge preparation
may produce a very thick blood smear?

a. The angle created between the glass spreader
and the glass slide in approximately 25 O angle.
b. The angle created between the glass spreader
and the glass slide is > 45 O angle.
c. Placing only around 2 - 3 mm diameter of drop
of blood on the slide.
d. Smearing the blood in a very slow phase

A

b. The angle created between the glass spreader and the glass slide is > 45 O angle.

66
Q

The chromatin materials are free in the
nucleoplasm usually seen on what stage of red cell
maturation?

a. rubriblast
b. metarubricyte
c. reticulocyte
d. proerythroblast

A

a. rubriblast

67
Q

First immature granulocyte with secondary
granules:

a. Metamyelocyte
b. Myelocyte
c. Myeloblast
d. Promyelocyte

A

b. Myelocyte

68
Q

Which of the following statement is FALSE?

a. The oxidized glutathione was reduced back by
the action of the cytochrome b5 reductase
b. 2,3 DPG helps n the regulation of oxygen
delivery to the tissue
c. The reduction of the NADP is due to the
diversion of G6PD with G6P to ribulose 5’-
Phosphate
d. Methemoglobin reductase is also known as
cytochrome b5 reductase

A

a. The oxidized glutathione was reduced back by
the action of the cytochrome b5 reductase

69
Q

Which of the following is True if the Hgb is on its Rform?

a. the Hgb was bound to 2,3DPG
b. The hgb has the highest affinity with oxygen
c. the Hgb is on its basic property
d. The Hgb has the lowest affinity with oxygen

A

b. The hgb has the highest affinity with oxygen

70
Q

The enzyme responsible for the conversation of
phorphobilonogen to urophorphyrinogen III is:

a. alpha- ALA synthase
b. urophorphyrinogen decarboxylase
c. Urophorphyrinogen oxidase
d. Urophorphyrinogen synthase

A

d. Urophorphyrinogen synthase

71
Q

Modified TRUE or FALSE:
Which of the statements below is TRUE?

1st: The Methemoglobin formed within the red cells
are reduced by the action of cytochrome b5
reductase enzyme with a co factor known as
NADH+.
2nd: The non-reduction of methemoglobin may lead
to HEINZ bodies formation within the red cells.

a. Only the 2nd statement above is true
b. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.
c. Neither the 1st nor the 2nd statement above is
true.
d. Only the 1st statement above is true

A

b. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.

72
Q

True regarding RBC’s metabolic pathways.

a. NADPH regulation is dictated by the production
of 2,3, DPG
b. 90-95% of its energy are derived form EMP
c. 10-15% of its energy undergoes the aerobic
process
d. 2,3, DPG is essential for preventing Heinz
bodies formation

A

b. 90-95% of its energy are derived form EMP

73
Q

How many basophilic normoblast are formed after
its immediate precursor divides?

a. 8
b. 2
c. 16
d. 4

A

b. 2

74
Q

The osteoblast as mistaken as:

a. Neutrophil
b. Plasma cell
c. Metamegakaryocyte
d. Basophil

A

b. Plasma cell

75
Q

Which of the following is expected to have
hypocellular bone marrow?

a. erythroleukemia
b. Myelofibrosis
c. Polycythemia vera
d. leukemoid reaction
e. Leukemia

A

b. Myelofibrosis

76
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the first
phase of glycolysis in the EMP pathway?

a. Pyruvate kinase action is involved in forming 2
ATP
b. It employs glucose phosphorylation,
isomeration and diphosphorylation
c. It involves the conversation G3P to 3-
phosphoglycerate
d. It involves the conversion of phosphoenol
pyruvate to pyruvate

A

b. It employs glucose phosphorylation,
isomeration and diphosphorylation

77
Q

The heme is attached within the globin chain helices
______ and ______.

a. C,D
b. A,B
c. E,F
d. F,G
e. D,E

A

c. E,F

78
Q

Which of the following is False?

a. High levels of 2,3 DPG lead to low oxygen
binding to hemoglobin moiety
b. Bohr effect is the cause of shifting of the O2
dissociation curve to either left or right
c. Approximately 1.34 mL of oxygen bound to
each 1gm of Hgb
d. Hypoxia may shift the curve to the left in the
O2 curve

A

d. Hypoxia may shift the curve to the left in the
O2 curve

79
Q

Which of the following may shift the oxygen
dissociation curve to left?

a. high blood pH
b. hypoxia
c. Hypercapnia
d. High carboxyhemoglobin in blood
e. Acidosis

A

a. high blood pH

80
Q

Which of the following conditions will give a
decrease M:E ratio?

a. Leukemoid reaction
b. All conditions listed
c. Leukemia
d. Infection
e. Aplastic bone marrow

A

e. Aplastic bone marrow

81
Q

What are the dimer proteins present in the Gower
I?

a. 2γ 2ζ
b. 2α 2γ
c. none of these
d. 2ζ 2Є
e. 2β 2γ

A

d. 2ζ 2Є

82
Q

Modified TRUE or FALSE:
Which of the statements below is TRUE?

1st: The Hgb A1 is composed of a two alpha and one
beta chain.
2nd: The Hgb A1 is usually produced after 5th
month of gestation.

a. Only the 1st statement above is true.
b. Only the 2nd statement above is true
c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.
d. Neither the 1st nor the 2nd statement above is
true.

A

d. Neither the 1st nor the 2nd statement above is
true.

83
Q

If the Fat and perivascular layer is 1% and the M/E
layer is 9% the bone marrow is said to be:

a. Slightly hypocellular
b. Hypercellular
c. Hypocellular
d. Nomocellular

A

b. Hypercellular

84
Q

Which among the listed precursor red cell is the
most mature cell with nucleus?

a. reticulocyte
b. rubricyte
c. orthochromatophilic erythroblast
d. Rubriblast
e. polychromathopihilc normoblast

A

c. orthochromatophilic erythroblast

85
Q

Which among the transmembrane protein if
defective is associated with hereditary ovalocytosis?

a. Aquaporin 1
b. Band 3
c. Glycophorin A
d. Glut-1
e. Glycophorin B

A

b. Band 3

86
Q

All of the following listed below are RBC process
which requires energy except for one:

a. The efflux and influx of different ions within
the red cell.
b. Cytoskeletal protein synthesis
c. Reduction of the sulfhydryl group of the hgb
chains
d. Synthesis of the 2,3DPG

A

a. The efflux and influx of different ions within the red cell.

87
Q

False about Myoglobulin:

a. Increase level of it in plasma is associated with
rhabdomyolysis.
b. It produces a hyperbolic curve in the oxygen
dissociation curve.
c. The globin chain is composed of 145 amino
acids.
d. It is composed of one globin chain and one
heme.

A

c. The globin chain is composed of 145 amino
acids.

88
Q

Which of the following RBC membrane protein if
defective is commonly associated with paroxysmal
nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

a. Glycophorins
b. GPI-linked
c. Ankyrin
d. Protein band 4.1
e. Protein band 1

A

b. GPI-linked

89
Q

Which of the following statement is False?

a. The hemoglobin’s ability to bind with H+
contributed to the buffering of blood.
b. About 95% of CO2 is carried in the lungs in the
form of plasma bicarbonate.
c. The oxygen curve may shift tot the right in the
presence of Hgb Kansas.
d. The Neuraminic acid contributes to the
negativity of the RBC membrane

A

b. About 95% of CO2 is carried in the lungs in the
form of plasma bicarbonate.

90
Q

Which is not an end-stage cell

a. Eosinophil
b. Monocyte
c. Neutrophil
d. Basophil

A

b. Monocyte

91
Q

Which of the following blood disorder is diagnosed
using NBT staining reaction?

a. chronic granulomatous disease
b. Hairy cell leukemia
c. acute myeloid leukemia
d. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

a. chronic granulomatous disease

92
Q

Multiple nucleoli are still present at what stage?

a. none of the choices
b. prorubricyte
c. orthochromatophilic erythroblast
d. rubricyte

A

a. none of the choices

93
Q

Which of the following is False regarding
Methemoglobin?

a. Methylene blue administration may correct the
oxidation of iron in the heme.
b. Primaquine and dapsone may trigger
methemoglobin formation.
c. The NADH-cytochrome b5 reductase pathway
maintains Hi formation around <1%.
d. Hgb M is caused by gene mutation which is
corrected by administration of ascorbic acid or
methylene blue
e. Nitrate toxicity may lead to Hi formation.

A

d. Hgb M is caused by gene mutation which is
corrected by administration of ascorbic acid or
methylene blue

94
Q

The following actions are done if the bone marrow
is observed under 500x magnification, except for
one:

a. observation of cell stages
b. Identify abnormal distribution of cells
c. For fat to marrow ratio assessment
d. Bone marrow differential count

A

c. For fat to marrow ratio assessment

95
Q

Which among the Globin chains are produced
during the first month of gestation?

a. epsilon and beta
b. Alpha and epsilon
c. beta and delta
d. beta, alpha
e. Beta and zeta

A

b. Alpha and epsilon

96
Q

A greenish pigment in blood specimen was
observed after acetanilide administration is
associated with the formation of:

a. oxyhemoglobin
b. Carboxyhemoglobin
c. sulfhemoglobin
d. Methemoglobin

A

c. sulfhemoglobin

97
Q

Modified TRUE or FALSE:
Which of the statements below is TRUE?

1st: In HEME synthesis, the ferric iron is inserted to
the heme ring by the action of ferrochelatase.
2nd: Heme biosynthesis occurs only inside the
mitochondria of developing progenitor red cells.

a. Only the 1st statement above is true.
b. Only the 2nd statement above is true
c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.
d. Neither the 1st nor the 2nd statement above is
true.

A

a. Only the 1st statement above is true

98
Q

The nucleus is taking much of the cell and
containing one or two nucleoli with open fine
chromatin:

a. Metarubricyte
b. prorubricyte
c. rubriblast
d. reticulocyte
e. Rubriblast

A

c. rubriblast

99
Q

Which of the following is the special stain used for
assessing stored Ferritin granules?

a. Pearl’s
b. LAP
c. TRAP
d. SBB
e. PAS

A

a. Pearl’s

100
Q

Which of the following cells are found in the
marginal zone of the PALS of the spleen?

a. B cells
b. Macrophages
c. Red cell
d. T-cells

A

b. Macrophages

101
Q

The RBC precursor cell that has 40% N:C ratio?

a. reticulocyte
b. prorubricyte
c. metarubricyte
d. Rubricyte

A

d. Rubricyte

102
Q

Which of the following is FALSE?

a. The calcium and sodium influx within RBC are
indicative of cytolytic process.
b. The Calmodulin retains more Ca+ within the
RBC to maintain cation balance.
c. The Na-K ATPase enzyme maintains the Na+-K+
intracellular ratio of 1:12.
d. The Metheme+hemopexin complex is cleared
off by the action of the liver

A

b. The Calmodulin retains more Ca+ within the
RBC to maintain cation balance.

103
Q

Normal M:E ratio:

a. 4:5
b. 2:1
c. 12:1
d. 1:2

A

b. 2:1

104
Q

TRUE about hepatic period of hematopoiesis:

a. spleen is the major site of blood cell production
b. Hgb A1 gradually increases in concentration
during this period.
c. Hgb A2 is present with highest concentration.
d. It begins at 5th to 6th week of gestation

A

d. It begins at 5th to 6th week of gestation

105
Q

Which of these will have a decrease M/E layer
or buffy coat layer?

a. Chronic leukemia
b. Fanconi anemia
c. Leukemoid reaction
d. Lympoblastic leukemia
e. normoblastic hyperplasia

A

b. Fanconi anemia

106
Q

A bone marrow film that is used if few marrow
cells is expected than usual:

a. Crush smears
b. particle prep
c. buffy coat prep

A

c. buffy coat prep

107
Q

Which of the following enzymes is NOT part on
the third phase of glucose catabolism under the
EMP pathway?

a. Hexokinase
b. Enolase
JPCS
c. Phosphoglycerate mutase
d. Pyruvate kinase
e. Enolase

A

d. Pyruvate kinase

108
Q

Which of the following is NOT the function of
the protein part of the RED CELL membrane?

a. for RBC-RBC repulsion
b. for transport of hormones in and out of the cell
c. for glucose active transport
d. for Blood group identification

A

c. for glucose active transport

109
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding
erythrocyte maturation?

a. Nucleus and multiple nucleoli are present in
metarubricyte.
b. There are four cell division takes place from
rubriblast to mature RBC.
c. RBC maturation takes place approximately 4-5
days.
d. Nuclear removal on red cell may form
“pyrenocyte”

A

d. Nuclear removal on red cell may form
“pyrenocyte”

110
Q

Which of the following may case an overall blue
hue in a stained blood smear using Wright’s and
Giemsa stain?

a. Hyperlipidemia
b. pH stain is maintained around 5.5
c. Hyperproteinemia
d. Using old EDTA samples

A

c. Hyperproteinemia

111
Q

Which of the following will cause the right
shifting of the O2 dissociation curve?

a. High blood Ph
b. lowered 2,3-DPG due to multiple blood
transfusion
c. Hgb Chesapeake
d. high carbon dioxide level in plasma

A

d. high carbon dioxide level in plasma

112
Q

The largest cell of the bone marrow and
characteristically has polylobulated interconnected
nucleus:

a. Osteoclast
b. metamegakaryocyte
c. Myeloblast
d. Osteoblast

A

b. metamegakaryocyte

113
Q

Modified TRUE or FALSE:
Which of the statements below is TRUE?

1st: Prorubricyte has bluish red cytoplasm.
2nd: The rubriblast has 1-2 visible nucleoli.
a. Only the 1st statement above is true.
b. Only the 2nd statement above is true
c. Both the 1st and 2nd statements above are
true.
d. Neither the 1st nor the 2nd statement above is
true.

A

b. Only the 2nd statement above is true

114
Q

What cell is the primary source of IL-3?

a. Activated T-cell
b. NK cell
c. macrophages
d. neutrophil

A

a. Activated T-cell

115
Q

First immature granulocyte with tertiary
granules:

a. Metamyelocyte
b. Myeloblast
c. Promyelocyte
d. Myelocyte

A

d. Myelocyte

116
Q

Compute for the corrected WBC count. (per
cu mm.): WBC ct. 25,000/uL.; nRBC: 20/100WBC
a. 23,613
b. 22,139
c. 23,913
d. none of these
e. 24,913

A

d. none of these

117
Q

The specific granules of the neutrophilic
granulocyte:
a. contain lysosomal enzymes.
b. appear first at the myelocyte stage.
c. are derived from azurophilic granule.
d. are formed on the mitochondria.

A

b. appear first at the myelocyte stage

118
Q

Cells that produce immunoglobulins in
response to antigenic stimulation:
a. T lymphocytes
b. plasma cells
c. gamma interferon
d. NK cells

A

b. plasma cells

119
Q

Patient Mr. Y, age 42, went to the laboratory to
have his blood work. His Hematology report
result shows the following:

RBC Count: 3.8 X 10^6/uL
Hemoglobin: 105 g/L
Hematocrit: 28.5%
WBC Count: 7.5 x 10^3/uL
Red cell indices:
- MCV: 109 fL
- MCH: 37 pg
- MCHC: 40g/dL
Platelet count/estimate: 139 x 10^3/uL
WBC differential count:
- Neutrophil: 0.54
- Lymphocyte: 0.36
- Monocyte: 0.08
- Eosinophil: 0.02
- Basophil:
- Stab cell:
Others: PBS shows microcytic, hypochromic RBC with slight poikilocytosis and anisocytosis. Agglutinated RBC is also seen. No Abnormal WBC morphology found and the platelet is adequate.

What possibly caused the discrepancy?
a. Presence of cold agglutinins
b. lipemia
c. hemolysis in the sample
d. Hyperproteinemia on patient’s sample

A

a. Presence of cold agglutinins

120
Q

Choose all among the choices that will NOT
falsely elevate the HCT value?
a. Dehydration
b. Macrocytosis
c. Sickle cells
d. Using under-filled EDTA tubes
e. Under centrifugation of micro-HCT tubes

A

d. Using under-filled EDTA tubes

3rd Year 1st Sem (2 decks)

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