Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PRC > HEMA 1 EXAM > Flashcards

HEMA 1 EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

The bevel of the needle should be held ______ in the performance of a venipuncture.

A. sideways
B. upward
C. downward
D. in any direction

A

upward

*bevel of the needle should be upward to penetrate the skin and avoid difficulty in obtaining the specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A blood sample is need from a patient with IV fluids running in both arms. Which of the following is an acceptable procedure?

A. Any obtainable vein is satisfactory.
B. Obtain sample from above the IV site.
C. Obtain sample from below the IV site with special restrictions.
D. Disconnect the IV line.

A

Obtain sample from below the IV site with special restrictions.

*A limb with an IV running should not be used for
venipuncture because of contamination to the specimen. The patient’s other arm or an alternate site should be selected. If no alternate site can be found, the IV should be turned off by the physician
and blood can be drawn from below the infusion site after a few minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following skin puncture areas is acceptable for the collection of capillary blood from an infant?

A. Previous puncture site
B. Posterior curve of the heel
C. Arch
D. Medial or lateral plantar surface

A

Medial or lateral plantar surface

Capillary Blood Collection: Appropriate Site

INFANT:
medial or lateral plantar surface of the heel, with a puncture no deeper than 2.0mm beneath the plantar heel-skin surface and no more than half this distance at the posterior curve of the heel

ADULT:
Fingertip (3rd or 4th finger); Earlobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured?

A. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width
B. Erythrocyte count and leukocyte count
C. Leukocyte count and hematocrit
D. Platelet count and platelet volume

A

Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width

*Directly
Measured: RBC and WBC count, Hemoglobin

Calculated: Hct, RDW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The delta check is used to detect

A. the use of the correct anticoagulant
B. The time of storage of a tested specimen
C. the difference between current and past patient results
D. the proper collection time of a patient specimen

A

The difference between current and past patient
results

*Delta checks are particularly important to rule out mislabeling, clerical error, or possibly an analytical error. It is another quality control method for comparing a patient’s own leukocyte, hemoglobin, MCV, and platelet values with previous results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A peripheral blood smear can be prepared from

A. EDTA-anticoagulated blood within 1 hour of collection
B. Free-flowing capillary blood
C. Citrated whole blood
D. Both A and B

A

Both A and B

*The preparation of a blood smear may be conducted at the patient’s bedside or in the laboratory, if EDTA anticoagulated blood is used. Although, free-flowing capillary blood may be used as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Your co-intern keeps on making a blood smear that is too long, this can be resolved by:

A. Decreasing the angle of the pusher slide
B. Increasing the angle of the pusher slide
C. Using a larger drop of blood
D. Pushing the slide slower in smearing out the blood

A

Increasing the angle of the pusher slide

TOO LONG/TOO THIN
-Using a smaller drop of blood; Increasing the angle of the pusher slide

TOO SHORT/TOO THICK
-Using a larger drop of blood; Decreasing the angle of the pusher slide

FEATURES OF A GOOD BLOOD SMEAR PREP
1. The film is two thirds to three fourths the length of the slide.

  1. The film is finger shaped, very slightly rounded at the feather edge, not bullet shaped; this provides the widest area for examination.
  2. The lateral edges of the film are visible.
  3. The film is smooth without irregularities, holes, or streaks.
  4. When the slide is held up to the light, the thin portion (feather edge) of the film has a “rainbow” appearance.
  5. The whole drop of blood is picked up and spread.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic examination of a Wright-stained preparation,
possible causes include that

A. the staining time was too long
B. the stain was too basic
C. the buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short
D. the buffer was too basic and the exposure time was too long

A

the buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short

*Wright stain is composed of a basic dye (Methylene blue) and acidic dye (Eosin). The overall color and intensity of staining in a Wright-stained blood smear
vary with cell maturity and type, so proper staining is crucial for proper identification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the S phase of mitotic division, how long does DNA replication occurs?

A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 8 hours

A

8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of a quantitative QC program?

A. Detects shifts in control values
B. Compares the accuracy of controls to reference values
C. Monitors the correct functioning of equipment,
reagents, and individual technique
D. Confirms the correct identity of patient specimens

A

Confirms the correct identity of patient specimens

  • QC activities include monitoring the performance of laboratory instruments, reagents, other testing products, and equipment.
  • A written record of QC activities for each procedure or function should include details of deviation from the usual results, problems, or failures in functioning or in the analytical
    (examination) procedure and any corrective action taken in response to these problems.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acceptable limits of a control value must fall

A. within +1 standard deviation of the mean
B. between 1 and 2 standard deviations of the mean
C. within ‡2 standard deviations of the mean
D. within ‡3 standard deviations of the mean

A

within ‡2 standard deviations of the mean

*Confidence or control limits are calculated from the mean and the SD. The confidence limits represent a set of mathematically established limits into which the majority of values (results) will fall. Within the confidence limits, the results are assumed to be accurate. It is common practice to use ±2 SD as the limit of confidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which characteristic is inaccurate with respect to the anticoagulant K3 EDTA?

A. Removes ionized calcium (Ca2+) from fresh whole blood by the process of chelation
B. Is used for most routine coagulation studies
C. Is the most commonly used anticoagulant in hematology
D. Is conventionally placed in lavender-stoppered evacuated tubes

A

Is used for most routine coagulation studies

EDTA: Most common anticoagulant used in Hematology Laboratory

Lavender – Hematology tests
Pink - Bloodbanking
Royal Blue – Toxic Elements
Tan – Lead Determination
White – Molecular studies

Citrate: Used in routine coagulation studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The normal sequence of blood cell development is

A. Liver and spleen—yolk sac—red bone marrow
B. Yolk sac—red bone marrow—liver and spleen
C. Yolk sac—thymus—liver and spleen—red bone marrow
D. Yolk sac–liver and spleen—red bone marrow

A

Yolk sac–liver and spleen—red bone marrow

MESOBLASTIC: First cell to be produced: erythroblasts
- Occurs early in embryonic
development, cells from the
mesoderm migrate to the
yolk sac

HEPATIC: Liver becomes the major site of hematopoiesis; but other organs such as spleen, kidney, thymus, and lymph
node also contribute to the process

MEDULLARY: At the end of 24 weeks gestation, Bone marrow becomes the primary
site of hematopoiesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

By age 18, red marrow can be found in the

A. Skull bones
B. Vertebrae and ribs and Skull bones
C. Skull bones, Sternum and pelvis, Vertebrae and ribs
D. None of the above

A

Skull bones, Sternum and pelvis, Vertebrae and ribs

*By age 18, red marrow is found only in the vertebrae, ribs, sternum, skull bones, pelvis, and, to some extent, the proximal epiphyses of the femur and humerus.
* During infancy and early childhood, all the bones in the body contain primarily red (active) marrow.
* When retrogression occurs, hematopoietically
inactive yellow marrow is scattered throughout the red marrow so that, in adults, there is approximately equal amounts of red and yellow marrow. (Rodak 6th ed., 2020)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first type of cell produced by the developing embryo?

A. Erythrocyte
B. Granulocyte
C. Lymphocyte
D. Thrombocyte

A

Erythrocyte

Yolk Sac or Mesoblastic phase
-From the developing embryo,
erythroblasts are produced

Medullary or Myeloid Phase
- An increase in the production of granulocytes cause an increase of M:E ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in
most cases

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the immature erythrocyte found in the
bone marrow with the following characteristics: 12 to 17 mm in diameter, N:C of 4:1, nucleoli not usually apparent, and basophilic cytoplasm?

A. Rubriblast (pronormoblast)
B. Reticulocyte
C. Metarubricyte (orthochromatic normoblast)
D. Prorubricyte (basophilic normoblast)

A

Prorubricyte (basophilic normoblast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

With a normal diet, an erythrocyte remains in the
reticulocyte stage in the circulating blood for

A. 1 day
B. 2.5 days
C. 3 days
D. 120 days

A

1 day

*Life span of RBCs: 120 days

Remains in the
Reticulocyte stage: 1 day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Increased amounts of 2,3-DPG______ the oxygen affinity of the hemoglobin molecule.

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Do not alter

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?

A. Acidosis
B. Alkalosis
C. Multiple blood transfusions
D. Increased quantities of Hb S or C

A

Acidosis

  • Acidosis is associated with a shift to the right of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve and, therefore, increased oxygen release (decreased
    affinity of Hgb for oxygen).
  • Multiple blood transfusions shift the curve to the left because the transfused blood is low in 2,3-DPG.
  • Hgb S and Hgb C do not change the affinity of oxygen for hemoglobin; however, many
    hemoglobinopathies do.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The most common erythrocytic enzyme deficiency involving the Embden-Meyerhof Glycolytic Pathway (EMP) is a deficiency of

A. ATPase
B. PK
C. G6PD
D. LD

A

PK

EMP
- Pyruvate Kinase (PK)
-Maintains cellular energy by
generating ATP

HMP
-Glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase (G6PD) Prevents denaturation of globin by oxidation

Rapoport- Luebering Pathway
-Permits the accumulation of
2,3-DPG; regulates oxygen
affinity of hemoglobin

Methemoglobin Reductase Pathways
-Prevent oxidation of heme iron;
maintains iron into functional
state (ferrous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape using a scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocytes deviate from normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be

A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+

A

3+

0 - Normal appearance or slight variation in erythrocytes.

1+ Only a small population of erythrocytes displays a particular abnormality; the terms slightly increased or few would be comparable.

2+ More than occasional numbers of abnormal
erythrocytes can be seen in a microscopic field; an equivalent descriptive term is moderately increased.

3+ Severe increase in abnormal erythrocytes in each microscopic field; an equivalent descriptive term is many.

4+ The most severe state of erythrocytic abnormality, with the abnormality prevalent
throughout each microscopic field; comparable terms are marked or marked increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Heinz bodies can be observed in cases of

A. Pernicious anemia
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Iron loading anemia
D. Lead poisoning

A

G6PD deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is the term for erythrocytes resembling a stack of coins on thin sections of a peripheral blood smear?

A. Anisocytosis
B. Poikilocytosis
C. Agglutination
D. Rouleaux formation

A

Rouleaux formation

Anisocytosis
- Variation in size

Poikilocytosis
-Variation in shape

Agglutination
-Clumping of erythrocytes, caused by the presence of antibodies reacting with antigens on the erythrocyte

Rouleaux formation
-Arrangement of erythrocytes in
groups that resemble stacks of coin; associated with the presence of cryoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Rouleaux of red blood cells when seen in the monolayer of blood smear is a characteristic of:

A. Hypersplenism
B. Hypogammaglobulinemia
C. Cold Hemagglutinin Disease
D. Multiple Myeloma

A

Multiple Myeloma

*Multiple Myeloma – a clonal plasma cell neoplasm
associated with abnormal protein production, particularly immunoglobulins. IgG antibodies are found in majority of the patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The abnormal protein frequently found in the urine of persons with multiple myeloma is

A. albumin
B. globulin
C. IgG
D. Bence Jones

A

Bence Jones

*Urine tests for Bence Jones protein has been clinically
significant in the identification of Multiple Myeloma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies are composed of

A. DNA
B. Iron
C. RNA
D. Hemoglobin

A

DNA

Howell-Jolly bodies
-DNA; Feulgen Stain (+)

Pappenheimer bodies
-Iron

Basophilic Stippling
-RNA; Aggregated ribosomes

Heinz Bodies
-Denatured Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following inclusions is only visible with
supravital staining?

A. Basophilic Stippling
B. Cabot rings
C. Heinz Bodies
D. Pappenheimer bodies

A

Heinz Bodies

RHH: only visible with supravital stains
R - Reticulocytes
H - Heinz bodies
H - Hb H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If a male patient has a reticulocyte count of 5% and a packed cell volume of 0.45 L/L, what is his corrected reticulocyte count?

A. 2.5%
B. 4.5%
C. 5.0%
D. 10%

A

5.0%

CRC: %retics x Hct/45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

On a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, stress or shift reticulocytes are

A. Smaller than normal reticulocytes
B. About the same size as normal reticulocytes
C. Larger than normal reticulocytes
D. Noticeable because of a decreased blue tint

A

Larger than normal reticulocytes

*Stress of shift reticulocytes are released by the BM to compensate during anemia, which is why they are larger than normal retics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If a febrile, newborn infant had 4 nucleated red blood cells when a 100 cell WBC differential was performed, how would this be interpreted?

A. Lymphocytes were mistaken for nucleated red blood cells.
B. The baby was suffering from hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN).
C. Nucleated red blood cells can be expected in febrile patients.
D. During the first few days of life, the presence of a few nucleated red blood cells is normal.

A

During the first few days of life, the presence of a few nucleated red blood cells is normal.

*Orthochromic normoblasts often are identified in the
full-term infant on the first day of life but disappear within postnatal days 3 to 5. These nucleated RBCs (NRBCs) may persist longer than a week in immature infants.

The average number of NRBCs ranges from 3 to 10 per 100 white blood cells (WBCs) in a healthy full-term infant to 25 NRBCs per 100 WBCs in a premature infant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The erythrocyte morphology associated with anemia in an otherwise healthy individual caused by acute blood loss is usually

A. Microcytic
B. Megaloblastic
C. Normochromic
D. Hypochromic

A

Normochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

A. A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value
B. A false decrease in Hct value
C. No effect on Hct value
D. All of these options, depending on the patient

A

A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

*Insufficient centrifugaBon does not pack down the red blood cells; therefore, the Hct, which is the volume of packed cells, will increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A 7.0 ml ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) tube is received in the laboratory containing only 2.0mL of blood. If the laboratory is using manual
techniques, which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous?

A. RBC count
B. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
C. Hct
D. WBC count

A

Hct

Excessive anticoagulant causes shrinkage of cells; thus, the Hct will be affected. RBC and WBC counts remain the same, as does the Hgb content.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A decreased osmotic fragility test would be associated with which of the following conditions?

A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
C. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
D. Acquired hemolytic anemia

A

Sickle cell anemia

*Osmotic fragility is decreased when numerous sickle cells and target cells are present and is increased in the presence of spherocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A falsely elevated Hct is obtained. Which of the following calculated values will NOT be affected?

A. MCV
B. MCH
C. MCHC
D. Red cell distribution width (RDW)

A

MCH

*The red cell distribution width (RDW) is calculated by electronic cell counters and reflects the variance in the size of the red cell population. Electronic cell counters calculate Hct from the MCV and RBC count. Therefore, the RDW would be affected by an erroneous MCV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

All of the following factors may influence the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) EXCEPT

A. Blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube
B. Anisocytosis, poikilocytosis
C. Plasma proteins
D. Caliber of the tube

A

Blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube

  • EDTA and Sodium citrate can be used without any effect on the ESR.
  • Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis may impede rouleaux formation, thus causing a low ESR.
  • Plasma proteins, especially fibrinogen and immunoglobulins, enhance rouleaux, increasing the ESR. Reference ranges must be established for different caliber tubes.

Modified Westergren: currently the most commonly used method for ESR
Westergren:
- Anticoagulant: Citrate
- Ratio of Anticoagulant to Blood: 1:4
- Color of Stopper: Black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A correction is necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBCs are seen on the peripheral blood smear because:

A. The WBC count would be falsely lower
B. The RBC count is too low
C. nRBCs are counted a leukocytes
D. nRBCs are confused with giant plts

A

nRBCs are counted a leukocytes

*The automated hematology analyzers enumerate all
nucleated cells. nRBCs are counted along with WBCs,
falsely elevating the WBC count.

Formula:
corrected= Uncorrected WBC ct. x 100 / nRBC + 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The Coulter principle for counting of cells is based upon the fact that:

A. Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better than cells do
B. Conductivity varies proportionally to the number of cells
C. Cells conduct electricity better than saline does
D. Isotonic solutions cannot conduct electricity

A

Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better than cells do

  • Electronic cell (Coulter) counters use the principle of electrical impedance.
  • Two electrodes suspended in isotonic solutions are separated by a glass tube having a small aperture.
  • A vacuum is applied, and as a cell passes through the aperture it impedes the flow of current and generates a voltage pulse.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which is the first stage of erythrocytic maturation in
which the cytoplasm is pink due to the formation of
hemoglobin?
A. Reticulocyte
B. Pronormoblast
C. Basophilic normoblast
D. Polychromatic normoblast

A

Polychromatic normoblast

*In normal erythrocytic maturation, Hgb formation in the late polychromatic normoblast stage gives the
cytoplasm a prominent pink coloration. The red cell
continues to produce Hgb throughout the reticulocyte
stage of development

41
Q

If an alkaline (pH8.6) electrophoresis is performed,
hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin

A. S
B. F
C. A
D. C

A

C

42
Q

Which is the major Hgb found in the RBCs of patients with sickle cell trait?

A. Hgb S
B. Hgb F
C. Hgb A2
D. Hgb A

A

Hgb A

Sickle Cell Trait
(Resistant to P. falciparum)
* 40% or less Hb S
* 60% or more Hb A
* Normal or slightly increased Hb A2

Sickle Cell Disease
* 80% to 95% Hb S
* 0% to 20% Hb F
* normal amount of Hb A2

43
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria exhibits
sensitivity of one population of red blood cells to

A. warm antibodies
B. cold antibodies
C. complement
D. either A or B

A

complement

44
Q

Which of the following is most true of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?

A. It is a rare acquired stem cell disorder that results in hemolysis
B. It is inherited as a sex-linked trait
C. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait
D. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait

A

It is a rare acquired stem cell disorder that results in hemolysis

  • PNH is a rare, acquired stem cell disorder that results in abnormalities of the red cell membrane.
    o This causes the red cells to be highly sensitive to complement-mediated hemolysis.
  • Because this is a stem cell disorder, abnormalities
    are seen in leukocytes and platelets, as well as in red cells. PNH is characterized by recurrent, episodic intravascular hemolysis, hemoglobinuria,
    and venous thrombosis. (Harr, 4th ed.)
45
Q

The morphological classification of anemias is based on which of the following?

A. M:E (myeloid: erythroid) ratio
B. Prussian blue stain
C. RBC indices
D. Reticulocyte count

A

RBC indices

*RBC indices classify the anemia morphologically. Anemias can be classified morphologically by the use of laboratory data; physiologically, based upon the
mechanism; and clinically, based upon an assessment of symptoms

46
Q

“Bite cells” are usually seen in patients with:

A. Rh null trait
B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. G6PD deficiency
D. PK deficiency

A

G6PD deficiency

Heinz bodies are demonstrated using a supravital stain. These are then pitted from the RBCs by the spleen, resulting in RBC fragments sometimes called
bite or helmet cells.

47
Q

Which antibiotic(s) is (are) most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia?

A. Sulfonamides
B. Penicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Chloramphenicol

A

Chloramphenicol

APLASTIC ANEMIA
* Characterized by pancytopenia
* BM: empty and hypoplasCc
* Congenital: Fanconi’s Anemia

Characterized by:
-Mental Retardation
-Hyperpigmentation of skin
-Absence of thymus and radius

  • Acquired: caused by exposure to drugs, radiation, or with the use of chloramphenicol.
48
Q

All of the following are characteristic findings in a
patient with iron deficiency anemia except:

A. Microcytic, hypochromic red cell morphology
B. Decreased serum iron and ferritin levels
C. Decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
D. Increased RBC protoporphyrin

A

Decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)

49
Q

Storage iron is usually best determined by:

A. Serum transferrin levels
B. TIBC
C. Hgb values
D. Serum ferritin levels

A

Serum ferritin levels

Transferrin saturation
-Indirect Indicator of Transport iron and transferrin level

TIBC
-Indirect indicator of transferrin level

Serum Ferritin
-Indicator of Iron stores

Serum Iron level
-Indicator of available transport iron

50
Q

Which anemia is characterized by a lack of intrinsic factor that prevents B12 absorption?

A. Tropical sprue
B. Transcobalamin deficiency
C. Blind loop syndrome
D. Pernicious anemia

A

Pernicious anemia

  • PERNICIOUS develops slowly and insidiously in patients when autoimmune antibodies to intrinsic factor or to parietal cells destroy their parietal cells so that they are left without intrinsic factor.
  • Tropical sprue and Blind loop syndrome – have been associated with Vit. 12 deficiency among elderly adults
51
Q

Which of the following are most characteristic of the red cell indices associated with megaloblastic anemias?

A. MCV 99 fl, MCH 28 pg, MCHC 31%
B. MCV 62 fL, MCH 27 pg, MCHC 30%
C. MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34%
D. MCV 78 fL, MCH 23 pg, MCHC 30%

A

MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34%

Reference Values:
MCV 80 to 100 fL
MCH 26 to 34 pg
MCHC 32 to 36 g/dL

52
Q

In a 1:200 dilution of a patient’s sample, 336 cells were counted in an area of 0.2 mm2. What is the RBC count?

A. 1.68 x 1012/L
B. 3.36 x 1012/L
C. 4.47 x 1012/L
D. 6.668 x 1012/L

A

3.36 x 1012/L

53
Q

A manual WBC count was performed. A total of 25 cells were counted in all 9-mm2 squares of a Neubauer-ruled hemacytometer. A 1:10 dilution was used. What is the WBC count?

A. 0.28 x 109/L
B. 278 x 109/L
C. 27.8 x 109/L
D. 0.4 x 109/L

A

0.28 x 109/L

54
Q

The ability of an assay to distinguish the targeted analyte from interfering substances within the specimen matrix is called:

A. Analytical specificity
B. Analytical sensitivity
C. Clinical specificity
D. Clinical sensitivity

A

Analytical sensitivity

55
Q

Euchromantin functions as the:

A. Site of microtubule production
B. Transcriptionally active DNA
C. Support structure for nucleoli
D. Attachment site for centrioles

A

Transcriptionally active DNA

EUCHROMATIN
* Diffuse, uncondensed, open chromatin pattern
* Transcriptionally active DNA

HETEROCHROMATIN:
* Darkly stained, condensed clumping pattern
* Transcriptionally inactive area of nucleus

56
Q

Apoptosis is morphologically identified by:

a. Cellular swelling
b. Nuclear condensation
c. Rupture of the cytoplasm
d. Rupture of the nucleus

A

Nuclear condensation

57
Q

The BEST source of active bone marrow from a 20 year old would be:

A. Iliac Crest
B. Femur
C. Distal Radius
D. Tibia

A

Iliac Crest

BONE MARROW ASPIRATION
ADULT
-Posterior Iliac Crest (preferred site); Anterior Iliac Crest, Sternum

INFANTS younger than 18 months of age
-Tibia

58
Q

What growth factor is produced in the kidneys and is used to treat anemia associated with kidney disease?

A. EPO
B. TPO
C. G-CSF
D. KIT ligand

A

EPO

EPO
* Anemia of chronic renal disease
* Treatment of anemia in cancer
patients on chemo
* Autologous pre-donation blood collection
* Anemia in HIV infection to permit use of zidovudine
* Post autologous HSC transplant

G-CSF
* Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia
* Stem cell mobilization
* Peripheral blood/BM transplantation

59
Q

When a patient has severe anemia and the bone marrow is unable to effectively produce red blood cells to meet the increased demand, one of the body’s responses is:

A. Extramedullary hematopoiesis in the liver and
spleen
B. Decreased production of erythropoietin by the kidney
C. Increased apoptosis of erythrocyte progenitor cells
D. Increased proportion of yellow marrow in the long bones

A

Extramedullary hematopoiesis in the liver and spleen

*EXTRAMEDULLARY HEMATOPOIESIS
Production of blood cells outside the BM, such as in the spleen, liver, or lymph nodes. This usually occurs in response to severe anemia or bone marrow fibrosis causing loss of hematopoiesis.

60
Q

Which of the following is an erythroid progenitor?

A. Pronormoblast
B. Reticulocyte
C. CFU-E
D. Orthochromic normoblast

A

CFU-E

PROGENITOR
-Undifferentiated (immature)
hematopoietic cell that is committed to a cell line but cannot be identified morphologically

PRECURSOR
-Differentiating, immature
hematopoietic cell stage that is
morphologically identifiable as
belonging to a given cell line

61
Q

Hypoxia stimulates RBC production by:

A. Inducing more pluripotent stem cells into the erythroid lineage
B. Stimulating EPO production by the kidney
C. Increasing the number of RBC mitoses
D. Stimulating the production of fibronectin by macrophages of the bone marrow

A

Stimulating EPO production by the kidney

*HYPOXIA
-detected by the peritubular fibroblasts, which then produce erythropoietin (EPO), the major
stimulatory cytokine for RBCs.
-When there is hemorrhage, increased RBC destruction, or other factors that diminish the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, the production of EPO is increased.

62
Q

Erythropoietin can increase the production of RBCs by:

A. Promoting apoptosis of erythroid progenitors
B. Decreasing intravascular hemolysis
C. Increasing EPO receptor sites
D. Promoting early release of reticulocytes from bone marrow

A

Increasing EPO receptor sites

EPO increase production of RBCs by:
* Early release of reticulocytes
* Inhibition of apoptosis
* Reduced marrow transit time

63
Q

What single feature of normal RBCs is most responsible for limiting their life span?

A. Loss of the nucleus
B. Increased flexibility of the cell membrane
C. Reduction of hemoglobin iron
D. Loss of mitochondria

A

Loss of the nucleus

*Aged RBCs or senescent cells are not capable of regenerating catabolized enzymes due to their lack of nucleus. If they reach their lifespan of 120 days, the cell membrane becomes more permeable to water causing the cell to become swollen and rigid. Thus, they are trapped in the spleen, readily phagocytized by macrophages.

64
Q

What pathway anaerobically generates energy in the form of ATP?

A. 2,3-BPG pathway
B. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
C. Hexose monophosphate pathway
D. Rapoport-Luebering pathway

A

Embden-Meyerhof pathway

EMP (Anaerobic glycolysis)
-Pyruvate Kinase (PK)
-Maintains cellular energy by
generating ATP

HMP (Aerobic RBC metabolism)
-Glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase (G6PD);
-Prevents denaturation of
globin by oxidation

Rapoport-Luebering Pathway
-Permits the accumulation of
2,3-DPG; regulates oxygen affinity of hemoglobin

Methemoglobin Reductase Pathways
-Prevent oxidation of heme iron;
maintains iron into functional
state (ferrous)

65
Q

Which of the following is an example of a transmembrane or integral membrane protein?

A. Actin
B. Ankyrin
C. Glycophorin A
D. Spectrin

A

Glycophorin A

66
Q

A hemoglobin molecule is composed of:

A. One heme molecule and four globin chains
B. Ferrous iron, protoporphyrin IX, and a globin chain
C. Protoporphyrin IX and four globin chains
D. Four heme molecules and four globin chains

A

Four heme molecules and four globin chains

1 Hemoglobin
- 4 heme molecules and 4 globin chains

Heme
- 1 iron and 4 Pyrrole rings

67
Q

What is the normal distribution of hemoglobins in healthy adults?

A. 80% to 90% HbA, 5% to 10% HbA2, 1% to 5% HbF
B. 80% to 90% HbA2, 5% to 10% HbA, 1% to 5% HbF
C. >95% HbA, <3.5% HbA2, 1% to 2% HbF
D. 90% HbA, 5% Hb F, 5% Hb A2

A

> 95% HbA, <3.5% HbA2, 1% to 2% HbF

68
Q

What membrane-associated protein in enterocytes
transports iron from the intestinal lumen into the
enterocyte?

A. DMT1
B. Ferroportin
C. Transferrin
D. Hephaestin

A

DMT1

DMT1
- Transports ferrous iron into the ENTEROCYTE

Ferroportin
-Transports iron from ENTEROCYTE to plasma

Transferrin
-Transports iron INTO the cell

HEPCIDIN
- REGULATES transfer of
iron from the enterocyte into the plasma

69
Q

The transfer of iron from the enterocyte into the plasma is regulated by:

A. Transferrin
B. Ferroportin
C. Hephaestin
D. Hepcidin

A

Hepcidin

70
Q

Which of the following would NOT interfere with the result when hemoglobin determination is performed by the cyanmethemoglobin method?

A. Increased lipids
B. Elevated WBC count
C. Lyse-resistant RBCs
D. Fetal hemoglobin

A

Fetal hemoglobin

*CYANMETHEMOGLOBIN
* Reference method for hemoglobin assay
* Not used to separate the different types of hemoglobin (for HPLC and hemoglobin
electrophoresis)
* used to measure Hgb concentration based on the
absorbance of cyanmethemoglobin at 540 nm

71
Q

A patient has a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL. According to the rule of three, what is the expected range for the hematocrit?

A. 21% to 24%
B. 23.7% to 24.3%
C. 24% to 27%
D. 21% to 27%

A

21% to 27%

3 x Hgb = Hct(%)

72
Q

Which of the following would be associated with an elevated ESR value?

A. Microcytosis
B. Polycythemia
C. Decreased globulins
D. Inflammation

A

Inflammation

STAGES OF ESR
1. Rouleaux formation
2. Sedimentation/ Settling
3. Packing

INCREASED Inflammation

DECREASED Microcytosis, Polycythemia,
Decreased Globulins

73
Q

Modification sometimes used in conjunction with DC electronic impedance:

A. Electronic Impedance
B. Radiofrequency
C. Optical Scatter
D. None of these

A

Radiofrequency

Electronic impedance
(MOST common methodology used)
-Also known as low-voltage direct current (DC), was developed by coulter in the 1950s

Radiofrequency
- Alternating current (AC) resistance, a modification sometimes used in conjunction with DC electronic impedance

Optical Scatter
- Uses both laser and nonlaser light, is frequently employed in today’s hematology instrumentation

74
Q

Orthogonal light scatter is used to measure:

A. Cell nuclear volume
B. Internal complexity of the cell
C. Cellular granularity
D. Nuclear density

A

Internal complexity of the cell

75
Q

A stained blood film is held up to the light and observed to be bluer than normal. What microscopic abnormality might be expected on this film?

A. Rouleaux
B. Spherocytosis
C. Reactive lymphocytosis
D. Toxic granulation

A

Rouleaux

Bluer
-Increased blood proteins, as in plasma cell myeloma, and that rouleaux may be seen on the film

Grainy
- RBC agglutination, as in cold hemagglutinin disease

Holes
- Increased lipid levels

Blue Specks out at the Feather Edge
- Markedly increased WBC counts and platelet counts

76
Q

A blood film for a patient with a normal RBC count has an average of 10 platelets per oil immersion field. Which of the following values best correlates with the estimate per microliter?

A. 20,000
B. 100,000
C. 200,000
D. 400,000

A

200,000

WBC ESTIMATE:
HPO X2000
OIO X3000
PLATELET ESTIMATE:
X20000

77
Q

What is the absolute count (x109/L) for the lymphocytes if the total WBC count is 9.5 x 109/L and there are 37% lymphocytes?

A. 3.5
B. 6.5
C. 13
D. 37

A

3.5

78
Q

Which of the following blood film findings indicates EDTA-induced pseudothrombocytopenia?

A. The platelets are pushed to the feathered end.
B. The platelets are adhering to WBCs.
C. No platelets at all are seen on the film.
D. The slide has a bluish discoloration when examined macroscopically.

A

The platelets are adhering to WBCs.

EDTA-induced
pseudothrombocytopenia
due to platelet satellitism/ platelet clumping
- If collected in EDTA
anticoagulant, redraw blood specimen in citrate anticoagulant and multiply the
platelet count by a factor of 1.1 to correct for dilutional effect of liquid citrate anticoagulant

79
Q

What is the largest hematopoietic cell found in a normal bone marrow aspirate?

A. Osteoblast
B. Monocyte
C. Pronormoblast
D. Megakaryocyte

A

Megakaryocyte

MEGAKARYOCYTE
Largest hematopoietic cell in the bone marrow

MONOCYTE Largest cell found in the circulation

80
Q

What are the initial laboratory tests that are performed for the diagnosis of anemia?

A. CBC, iron studies, and reticulocyte count
B. CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood
film examination
C. Reticulocyte count and serum iron, vitamin B12,
and folate assays
D. Bone marrow study, iron studies, and peripheral
blood film examination

A

CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood film examination

Initial Diagnosis
-CBC with RBC indices, RDW,
Reticulocyte Count, Peripheral
Blood Film Examination

Investigation
- Reticulocyte count and MCV

Classification
- MCV, reticulocyte count, and RDW

81
Q

An increase in which one of the following suggests a shortened life span of RBCs and hemolytic anemia?

a. Hemoglobin concentration
b. Hematocrit
c. Reticulocyte count
d. Red cell distribution width

A

Reticulocyte count

RETICULOCYTE COUNT
When the RBC mass falls, it is the result of decreased RBC production or a shortened life span. Normal erythropoiesis corrects for a shorter life span by increasing the production rate, which the reticulocyte count measures.

82
Q

Which of the following findings is consistent with a diagnosis of megaloblastic anemia?

A. Hyposegmentation of neutrophils
B. Decreased serum lactate dehydrogenase level
C. Absolute increase in reticulocytes
D. Increased MCV

A

Increased MCV

*Absolute reticulocyte
count
- useful in initially classifying anemias into the categories of decreased or ineffective RBC production (decreased reticulocyte count) and excessive RBC loss (increased reticulocyte count)

*MCV (Mean Cell Volume)
- when the reticulocyte count is decreased, the MCV can further
classify the anemia into three
subgroups: normocytic anemias,
microcytic anemias, and macrocytic anemias.

83
Q

The primary pathophysiologic mechanism of anemia
associated with chronic kidney disease is:

A. Inadequate production of erythropoietin
B. Excessive hemolysis
C. Hematopoietic stem cell mutation
D. Toxic destruction of stem cells

A

Inadequate production of erythropoietin

*Anemia is a common complication of chronic kidney
disease (CKD), with a positive correlation between anemia and renal disease severity.

The primary cause of anemia in CKD is inadequate renal production of erythropoietin. Without erythropoietin, the bone marrow lacks adequate
stimulation to produce RBCs.

84
Q

Which one of the following findings is NOT consistent
with myelophthisic anemia?

A. Reticulocytosis
B. Teardrop RBCs
C. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
D. Leukoerythroblastic blood picture

A

Reticulocytosis

MYELOPHTHISIC ANEMIA
* due to the infiltration of abnormal cells into the bone marrow and subsequent destruction and
replacement of normal hematopoietic cells

characterized by:
- teardrop RBCs, normocytic RBCs
- Reticulocytopenia
- Leukoerythroblastic blood picture
- Extramedullary hematopoiesis

85
Q

A sign of hemolysis that is typically associated with both fracmentation and macrophage-mediated hemolysis is:

A. Hemoglobinuria
B. Hemosiderinuria
C. Hemoglobinemia
D. Elevated urinary urobilinogen level

A

Elevated urinary urobilinogen level

86
Q

Which one of the following sets of results is consistent with HS?

A. Decreased osmotic fragility, negative DAT result
B. Decreased osmotic fragility, positive DAT result
C. Increased osmotic fragility, negative DAT result
D. Increased osmotic fragility, positive DAT result

A

Increased osmotic fragility, negative DAT result

87
Q

In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, a positive DAT is
evidence that an:

A. IgM antibody is in the patient’s serum
B. IgG antibody is in the patient’s serum
C. IgM antibody is sensitizing the patient’s red blood cells
D. IgG antibody is sensitizing the patient’s red blood cells

A

IgG antibody is sensitizing the patient’s red blood cells

88
Q

Which of the following is the most definitive test for Hb S?

A. Hemoglobin solubility test
B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis at alkaline pH
C. Osmotic fragility test
D. Hemoglobin electrophoresis at acid pH

A

Hemoglobin electrophoresis at acid pH

SCREENING TEST: Hemoglobin Solubility test

CONFIRMATORY: Hemoglobin Electrophoresis at Acid pH, HPLC, Capillary Electrophoresis

89
Q

The screening test for Hb S that uses a reducing agent, such as sodium dithionite, is based on the fact that hemoglobins that sickle:

A. Are insoluble in reduced, deoxygenated form
B. Form methemoglobin more readily and cause a color change
C. Are unstable and precipitate as Heinz bodies
D. Oxidize quickly and cause turbidity

A

Are insoluble in reduced, deoxygenated form

*The most common screening test for Hb S, called the hemoglobin solubility test, capitalizes on the decreased solubility of deoxygenated Hb S in solution, producing turbidity.

90
Q

Thalassemia is caused by:

A. Structurally abnormal hemoglobins
B. Absent or reduced synthesis of a polypeptide chain of hemoglobin
C. Excessive absorption of iron
D. Reduced or absent protoporphyrin synthesis

A

Absent or reduced synthesis of a polypeptide chain of hemoglobin

91
Q

Hb Bart is composed of:

A. Two alpha and two beta chains
B. Two epsilon and two gamma chains
C. Four beta chains
D. Four gamma chains

A

Four beta chains

92
Q

The greatest portion of operational body iron is normally contained in what compound?

A. Heme
B. Ferritin
C. Cytochrome
D. Mitochondria

A

Heme

*Most of the iron in the body is in the form of hemoglobin in red cells, which contain about 1 mg of iron per mL of RBCs or about 2 to 3 g of iron total.

93
Q

Which of the following is more typical of nonmegaloblastic than megaloblastic anemia?

A. Oval macrocytes
B. Round macrocytes
C. Howell-jolly bodies
D. Hypersegmented neutrophil

A

Oval macrocytes

94
Q

After a man was found unconscious in his garage with
the car motor running, he was transported to the emergency department. When blood was drawn for a complete blood count, the plasma was noted to be bright red. What kind of variant hemoglobin should be suspected?

A. Hemoglobin F
B. Sulfhemoglobin
C. Methemoglobin
D. Carboxyhemoglobin

A

Carboxyhemoglobin

95
Q

What factors contribute to the sickling of erythrocytes in sickle cell disease crisis?

A. Increase in blood pH and increase in oxygen
B. Extremely hoy weather
C. Extremely reduced oxygen and increased acidity in the blood
D. Sickling is spontaneous

A

Extremely reduced oxygen and increased acidity in the blood

96
Q

The RDW and MCV are both quantitative descriptors of erythrocyte size. If both are increased, erythrocytic abnormality would be:

A. IDA
B. Acquired Aplastic Anemia
C. Megaloblastic Anemia
D. Hemoglobinopathy

A

Megaloblastic Anemia

  • An elevated MCV level (>100 fL) is associated with macrocytic anemias, such as megaloblastic anemia caused by Vit. 12 or folic acid deficiency. RDW is also
    increased due to the presence of macrocytes in the blood.
97
Q

Major systems in a flow cytometer include all of the
following EXCEPT

A. fluidics
B. optics
C. computerized electronics
D. gating

A

gating

4 major systems in a flow cytometer:
- Fluidics
- Optics
- Computer
- Electronics

Gating
- Restriction of data analysis to one cell population

98
Q

In the photo-optical method, the change in light transmission versus the ___ is used to determine the activity of coagulation factors or stages.

A. amount of patient’s plasma
B. amount of test reagent
C. time
D. temperature

A

time

*PHOTO-OPTICAL METHODS
- The principle of photo-optical measurement is that a change in light transmission measured as optical density (absorbance) versus time can be used to quantitatively determine the activity of various coagulation stages or factors

PRC (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions