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AA4 VPARA Helminthology > Helminthology Q-A > Flashcards

Helminthology Q-A Flashcards

1
Q

The snail host of Fasciola gigantica in the Philippines is:

(A). Lymnaea truncatula; (B). Lymnaea bulimoides; (C). Lymnaea auricularia rubiginosa; (D). Lymnaea tormentosa.

A

Lymnaea auricularia rubiginosa

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2
Q

The following parasites occur in the liver of their respective hosts EXCEPT: (A). Fimbraria fasciolaris; (B). Eimeria stiedai; (C). Clonorchis sinensis; (D). Thysanosoma actinoides

A

Fimbraria fasciolaris

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3
Q

The following helminths require earthworms as intermediate hosts EXCEPT:

(A). Capillaria hepatica; (B). Metastrongylus spp.; (C). Capillaria annulata; (D). Amoebotaenia cuneata

A

Capillaria hepatica

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4
Q

This helminth genus is characterized by having a parasitic and free-living generations; the former is parthenogenetic with filariform esophagus and the latter with rhabditiform esophagus:

(A). Strongylus; (B). Strongyloides; (C). Trichostrongylus; (D). Filarioides

A

Strongyloides

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5
Q

Transmammary infection occurs in the following EXCEPT: (A). Toxocara cati; (B). Strongyloides ransomi; (C). Ancylostoma caninum; (D). Bunostomum trigonocephalum

A

Bunostomum trigonocephalum

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6
Q

In Dirofilaria immitis infection in dogs, diagnosis is by finding its microfilaria during blood examination, but this microfilaria should be differentiated from that of this species which is also present in dogs:

(A). Dirofilaria corynoides; (B). Parafilaria multipapillosa; (C). Dipetalonema reconditum; (D). Dipetalonema perstans

A

Dipetalonema reconditum

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7
Q

The following are hookworm species EXCEPT:

(A). Ancylostoma duodenale; (B). Necator americanus; (C). Agriostomum vryburgi; (D). Amidostomum anseris.

A

Amidostomum anseris

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8
Q

All of these are parasites of the eyes EXCEPT:

(A). Oxyspirura mansoni; (B). Philopthalmus spp.; (C). Ascarops strongylina; (D). Thelazia rhodesii

A

Ascarops strongylina

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9
Q

Pedogenesis also known as polyembryony refers to the production of several individuals from a single larval form and is exhibited by all trematodes. The species of tapeworms below also have this characteristic EXCEPT:

(A). Moniezia spp.; (B). Echinococcus spp.; (C). Mesocestoides lineatus; (D). Multiceps multiceps.

A

Moniezia spp

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10
Q

Milk spots in the liver of pigs infected with Ascaris suum are actually: (A). Hepatic cysts; (B). Focal area of calcification; (C). Hepatic abscesses; (D). Localized fibrosis

A

Localized fibrosis

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11
Q

This helminth usually occurs in pairs inside cysts in the lung parenchyma: (A). Paragonimus westermani; (B). Cystocaulus nigrescens; (C). Muellerius capillaries; (D). Protostrongylus rufescens

A

Paragonimus westermani

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12
Q

Oribatid mites serve as intermediate host of the following EXCEPT: (A). Anoplocephala perfoliata; (B). Moniezia benedeni; (C). Raillietina tetragona; (D). Cittotaenia pectinata

A

Raillietina tetragona

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13
Q

Which among the following nematodes has an indirect life cycle?: (A). Strongyloides westeri; (B). Capillaria annulata; (C). Toxascaris leonina; (D). Trichuris suis

A

Capillaria annulata

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14
Q

Which pair has the same mode of infection for the definitive vertebrate host?:
(A). Ascaris suum-Trichinella spiralis;
(B). Oxyuris equi-Strongyloides stercoralis;
(C). Taenia saginata-Schistosoma japonicum;
(D). Paranoplocephala mamillana-Choanotaenia infundibulum.

A

Paranoplocephala mamillana-Choanotaenia infundibulum

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15
Q

Feeling of shame and inferiority is one of the symptoms observed in man infected with: (A). Diphyllobothrium latum; (B). Capillaria philippinensis; (C). Enterobius vermicularis; (D). Trichinella spiralis larvae

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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16
Q

Pseudoscolex is a feature of: (A). Thysaniezia giardi; (B). Fimbraria fasciolaris; (C). Echinococcus multilocularis; (D). Cittotaenia denticulata

A

Fimbraria fasciolaris

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17
Q

Flukes with head collar bearing spines are the: (A). Dicrocoeliids; (B). Amphistomes; (C). Echinostomatids; (D). Schistosomatids

A

Echinostomatids

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18
Q

The mode of transmission of Capillaria philippinensis is:

(A). Consumption of undercooked Pila luzonica containing infective larvae;
(B). Skin penetration by the third stage larvae;
(C). Ingestion of contaminated drinking water;
(D). Ingestion of raw infected Ambassis commersoni or Hypseliotris bipartita.

A

Ingestion of raw infected Ambassis commersoni or Hypseliotris bipartita

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19
Q

Self-cure phenomenon in helminth infection is best exemplified in: (A). Equine gastric habronemiasis; (B). Haemonchosis; (C). Hyostrongylosis; (D). Canine ancylostomosis.

A

Haemonchosis

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20
Q

What nematode species in which the fungus Pilobolus is important in the dissemination of its larvae in the pasture? (A). Metastrongylus pudendotectus; (B). Dictyocaulus viviparus; (C). Toxocara vitulorum; (D). Mecistocirrus digitatus.

A

Dictyocaulus viviparus

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21
Q

Which species has numerous round or oval thickenings on its cuticle especially on the anterior region?
(A). Thelazia rhodesii;
(B). Echinuria uncinata;
(C). Gongylonema pulchrum;
(D). Setaria equina

A

Gongylonema pulchrum

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22
Q

This pair of species utilizes freshwater fish as second intermediate host:

(A). Clonorchis sinensis and Diphyllobothrium latum;
(B). Capillaria hepatica and Gastrodiscus hominis;
(C). Dioctophyme renale and Faciolopsis buski;
(D). Notocotylus naviformis and Echinostoma revolutum.

A

Clonorchis sinensis and Diphyllobothrium latum

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23
Q

Which species is not zoonotic?: (A). Trichostrongylus axei; (B). Dicrocoelium dendriticum; (C). Ostertagia ostertagi; (D). Dirofilaria immitis

A

Ostertagia ostertagi

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24
Q

The rat lungworm Angiostrongylus cantonensis can cause one of the following conditions in man:
(A). Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis;
(B). Verminous pneumonia;
(C). Swimmer’s itch;
(D). Gid

A

Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis

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25
Q

The infective larvae of Habronema species can cause which one of the following conditions when they are deposited on existing wounds of animals especially horses;

(A). Filarial dermatitis;
(B). Itch;
(C). Queensland itch;
(D). Bursati

A

Bursati

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26
Q

Which parasite is not transmitted per cutaneously:
(A). Stephanurus dentatus;
(B). Ancylostoma caninum;
(C). Strongyloides spp.;
(D). Skrjabinagia kolchida

A

Skrjabinagia kolchida

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27
Q

Which species does not require two intermediate hosts in its life cycle?

(A). Platynosomum fastosum;
(B). Fasciola gigantica;
(C). Spirometra erinacei;
(D). Echinostoma ilocanum.

A

Fasciola gigantica

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28
Q

Which of the following is not part of the female reproductive organ in flukes?
(A). Ootype;
(B). Receptaculum seminis;
(C). Vitellaria;
(D). Telamon

A

Telamon

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29
Q

All of these are eyeworms EXCEPT:
(A). Oxyspirura mansoni;
(B). Philophthalmus;
(C). Ascarops strongylina;
(D). Thelazia rhodesii

A

Ascarops strongylina

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30
Q

Infection with this parasite results in rat-tail appearance in the infected animal due to extreme irritation:
(A). Enterobius vermicularis;
(B). Toxocara vitulorum;
(C). Oxyuris equi;
(D). Toxascaris leonina

A

Oxyuris equi

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31
Q

It is also called gapeworm:
(A). Stephanurus dentatus;
(B). Cyathostoma bronchialis;
(C). Mammomonogamus laryngeus;
(D). Syngamus trachea

A

Syngamus trachea

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32
Q

These species are also called arrow-headed worms EXCEPT:
(A). Toxascaris leonina;
(B). Toxocara canis;
(C). Toxocara cati;
(D). Parascaris equorum

A

Parascaris equorum

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33
Q

These are hookworms EXCEPT:
(A). Uncinaria stenocephala;
(B). Necator americanus;
(C). Graphidium strigiosum;
(D). Bunostomum trigonocephalum

A

Graphidium strigiosum

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34
Q

Freshwater fish is the intermediate hosts of: (A). Ollulanus tricuspis;
(B). Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(C). Spirocerca lupi;
(D). Physaloptera canis.

A

Gnathostoma spinigerum

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35
Q

A form of immunity seen in protozoan and some helminth infections that is
dependent upon the continued presence of the parasite is: (A). Immunological
tolerance; (B). Phagocytosis; (C). Pinocytosis; (D). Premunition.

A

Premunition

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36
Q

Which among these has no alimentary canal but has uterine bell?
(A). Heterakis beramporiae
(B). Dipylidium caninum;
(C). Polymorphus boschadis
(D). Fischoederius elongatus.

A

Polymorphus boschadis

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37
Q

Which of the following has only one spicule?
(A). Ascaris suum;
(B). Haemonchus contortus;
(C). Oesophagotomum radiatum;
(D). None of the above.

A

None of the above

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38
Q

In Elaeophora poeli
those that are fully enclosed inside the nodules are:
(A). Both male and females;
(B). Male only;
(C). Female only;
(D). None of the above.

A

Male only

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39
Q

This species causes haemorrhagic nodules on the skin of cattle and water
buffaloes:
(A). Parafilaria bovicola;
(B). Setaria digitata;
(C). Haematopinus tuberculatus;
(D). Ostertagia ostertag

A

Parafilaria bovicola

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40
Q

Fertilized females exhibit brown cement
-like ring around the vulva in this
species:
(A). Tetrameres americana;
(B). Spirocerca lupi;
(C). Physalotera praeputialis;
(D). None of the above.

A

Physalotera praeputialis

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41
Q

The presence of cordons is a feature seen in the following
EXCEPT:
(A). Dispharynx spiralis;
(B). Heterakis gallinae;
(C). Echinuria uncinata;
(D). Cheilospirura hamulosa.

A

Heterakis gallinae

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42
Q

The following are all stomach worms of their respective hosts
EXCEPT:
(A).
Hyostrongylus rubidus;
(B). Physocephalus sexalatus;
(C). Ascarops strongylina;
(D). Oesophagustomum dentatum.

A

Oesophagustomum dentatum

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43
Q

The cause of eosinophilic granulomata in the intestine of man is:
(A). Brugia malayi;
(B). Angiostrongylus costaricensis;
(C). Enterobius vermicularis;
(D). Angiostrongylus cantonensis.

A

Angiostrongylus costaricensis

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44
Q

Both hyper- and auto infections can occur in infection with this species:
(A). Ascaris suum;
(B). Strongyloides stercoralis;
(C). Capillaria annulata;
(D). None of the above

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

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45
Q

Ascaris suum eggs are not immediately infective after being passed out with
feces but need maturation period of:
(A). 30 days;
(B). 25 days;
(C). 10-12
days;
(D). 5 days.

A

10-12
days

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46
Q

These structures are found in the posterior end of nematodes which function as
chemoreceptors, well supplied with nerve fibers and associated with glandular
structure:
(A). Phasmids;
(B). Dierids;
(C). Amphids;
(D). None of the above.

A

Phasmids

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47
Q

The following members of the family Fasciolidae occur in the liver of their
respective hosts EXCEPT:.
(A). Fasciolopsis buski;
(B). Fascioloides magna;
(C). Fasciola gigantica;
(D). Fasciola nyanzae.

A

Fasciolopsis buski

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48
Q

Fecal examination is not a reliable method of diagnosing infection with this
parasite:
(A). Trichostrongylus spp.;
(B). Trichuris vulpis;
(C). Oxyuris equi;
(D). None of the above

A

Oxyuris equi

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49
Q

What trichostrongylid species whose egg does not hatch until infective larva (L3) has developed in the eggshell:
(A). Mecistocirrus digitatus;
(B). Cooperia
curticei;
(C). Paracooperia nodulosa;
(D). Nematodirus battus.

A

Nematodirus battus

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50
Q

The cause of granular dermatitis in horses is: (A). Gnathostoma doloresi;
(B). Ascarops strongylina;
(C). Physocephalus sexalatus;
(D). Habronema muscae

A

Habronema muscae

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51
Q

These nematodes undergo hypobiosis
EXCEPT:
(A). Ostertagia ostertagi;
(B). Haemonchus contortus;
(C). Uncinaria stenocephala;
(D). Cooperia oncophora

A

Uncinaria stenocephala

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52
Q

A pathological condition with symptoms such as hepatomegaly, pulmonary
infiltration, intermittent fever, loss of weight and appetite and persistent cough
caused by ascaris organisms. This is called:
(A). Cutaneous larva migrans;
(B). Visceral larva migrans;
(C). Urticarial hepatic syndrome;
(D). Localized general peritonitis.

A

Visceral larva migrans

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53
Q

This is an important nodular worm of cattle: (A). Oesophagostomum radiatum;
(B). Oesophagostomum stephanostomum;
(C). Oesophagostomum aculeatum;
(D). Oesophagostomum dentatum

A

Oesophagostomum radiatum

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54
Q

These are all effects of
Trichostrongylus EXCEPT:
(A). Low secretion of cholecystokinin;
(B). Reduced utilization of food;
(C). Decreased uptake of
selenium;
(D). Low plasma phosphorus.

A

Low secretion of cholecystokinin

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55
Q

The cause of gape in poultry is:
(A). Stephanurus dentatus;
(B). Cyathostoma bronchialis;
(C). Mammomonogamus laryngeus;
(D). Syngamus trachea.

A

Syngamus trachea

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56
Q

Which of these stages of Trichostrongy
lus is the least susceptible to extreme
changes in environmental conditions:
(A). Second stage larva;
(B). Embryonated egg;
(C). Unembryonated egg;
(D). Third stage larva.

A

Third stage larva

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57
Q

A complication of the acute illness of this infection is black disease, which
occurs in normal sheep. What parasite causes this illness?
(A). Fasciolopsis buski;
(B). Fascioloides magna;
(C). Fasciola hepatica;
(D). Clonorchis sinensis.

A

Fasciola hepatica

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58
Q

Elongate unisexual trematode, which carries its female in a canal and inhabits the blood vessel of its host:
(A). Schistosoma;
(B). Fasciolopsis buski;
(C). Eurytrema pancreaticum;
(D). Thysanosoma actinoides

A

Schistosoma

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59
Q

It has been proven that prenatal infection occurs in the life cycle of these
nematodes EXCEPT:
(A). Toxocara canis;
(B). Parascaris equorum;
(C). Toxocara vitulorum;
(D). Toxocara cati.

A

Toxocara cati

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60
Q

All of these parasites infect the lungs
EXCEPT:
(A). Cheilospirura hamulosa;
(B). Filarioides osleri;
(C). Dictyocaulus viviparus;
(D). Metastrongylus elongatus.

A

Cheilospirura hamulosa

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61
Q

Which of these stages of Trichostrongylus sp. is most susceptible to extreme environmental condition:
(A). Unembryonated egg;
(B). Second stage larva;
(C). First stage larva;
(D). Embryonated egg.

A

Second stage larva

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62
Q

These are hookworms
EXCEPT:
(A). Uncinaria stenocephala;
(B). Necator americanus;
(C). Graphidium strigiosum;
(D). Bunostomum trigonocephalum.

A

Graphidium strigiosum

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63
Q

Cause of cascado or verminous dermatitis in man is:
(A). Mecistocirrus digitatus;
(B). Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(C). Tetrameres americana;
(D).
Stephanofilaria okinawaensis.

A

Stephanofilaria okinawaensis

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64
Q

All of these cause dirofilariosis
EXCEPT:
(A). Brugia timori;
(B). Elaeophora schneideri;
(C). Mastophorus muris;
(D). Wuchereria bancrofti.

A

Mastophorus muris

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65
Q

Pathogenic effect of Strongylus vulgaris in equine is:
(A). Interference with absorption, bowel movement and indigestion;
(B). Severe lesions in arterial system forming thrombi which maybe fatal;
(C). Cirrhosis of the liver resulting to ascites; (D). Nodular formation causing localized inflammation around each larva.

A

Severe lesions in arterial system forming thrombi which maybe fatal

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66
Q

Fatal human hydatidosis is caused by:
(A). Echinococcus granulosus;
(B). Moniezia benedeni;
(C). Oesophagostomum stephanostomum;
(D). Spirometra mansoni.

A

Echinococcus granulosus

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67
Q

Oesophageal worm of dogs is:
(A). Spirocerca lupi;
(B). Echinococcus granulosus;
(C). Physaloptera praeputialis;
(D). Thelazia californensis.

A

Spirocerca lupi

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68
Q

Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by:
(A). Toxocara vitulorum;
(B). Uncinaria stenocephala;
(C). Filariodes osleri;
(D). Toxocara leonina.

A

Uncinaria stenocephala

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69
Q

Trichinosis in man, which is maintained in the cycle of infection between wild carnivores and humans, is called:
(A). Bionomic cycle;
(B). Synantropic zoonotic cycle;
(C). Hypobiotic cycle;
(D). Sylvatic-zoonotic cycle

A

Sylvatic-zoonotic cycle

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70
Q

Liverfluke of elephants:
(A). Paramphistomum cervi;
(B). Clonorchis sinensis;
(C). Fasciolopsis buski;
(D). Fasciola hepatica.

A

Fasciola hepatica

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71
Q

Gid or staggers a brain disease caused by the presence of the metacestode in the
intermediate host of which parasite?:
(A). Hymenolepis nana;
(B). Taenia multiceps;
(C). Taenia serialis;
(D). Echinococcus granulosus.

A

Taenia multiceps

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72
Q

Important lungfluke of carnivores:
(A). Schistosoma japonicum;
(B). Paragonimus westermani;
(C). Opisthorchis tenuicollis;
(D). Limnatis africana

A

Paragonimus westermani

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73
Q

Cause of sparganosis in man is:
(A). Spirocerca lupi;
(B). Oesophagostomum stephanostomum;
(C). Trichinella spiralis;
(D). Spirometra mansoni.

A

Spirometra mansoni

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74
Q

Egg of this parasite is characteristically quadrilateral in shape:
(A). Moniezia benedeni;
(B). Taenia solium;
(C). Raillietina tetragona;
(D). Dipylidium caninum.

A

Moniezia benedeni

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75
Q

The diagnosis of these parasites involves the finding of their eggs in the urine of their respective hosts EXCEPT:
(A). Stephanurus dentatus;
(B). Dioctophyme remale;
(C). Capillaria plica;
(D). Angiostrongylus vasorum.

A

Angiostrongylus vasorum

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76
Q

This parasite causes catarrhal parasitic bronchitis in ruminants:
(A). Onchoceca gibsoni;
(B). Hyostrogylus rubidus;
(C). Dictyocaulus filaria;
(D). Metastrongylus elongatus.

A

Dictyocaulus filaria

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77
Q

Infection in man with this species results from eating uncooked infected fish or frogs:
(A). Tetrameres americana;
(B). Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(C). Simondsia paradoxa;
(D). Thelazia rhodesii.

A

Gnathostoma spinigerum

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78
Q

Genetically inherited immunization against infection is possible in:
(A). Trichostrongylus colubriformis in sheep; (B). Ostertatia ostertagi in cattle;
(C). Graphidium strigiosum in rabbit;
(D). Strongylus vulgaris in equine.

A

Trichostrongylus colubriformis in sheep

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79
Q

This parasite is permanently in copula:
(A). Graphidium strigiosum;
(B). Syngamus trachea;
(C). Cyatosthoma bronchialis;
(D). Haemonchus contortus.

A

Syngamus trachea

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80
Q

A technique use in larval recovery is:
(A). Microscopic technique;
(B). Flotation technique;
(C). Baermann‟s technique;
(D). concentration technique.

A

Baermann‟s technique

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81
Q

Most tapeworms have metameric repetition of their reproductive organs termed
as:
(A). Proglottids;
(B). Bothridia;
(C). Body;
(D). Strobila

A

Proglottids

82
Q

The following nematodes have no intermediate host
EXCEPT:
(A). Habronema;
(B). Ancylostoma;
(C). Bunostomum;
(D). Strongyles

A

Habronema

83
Q

This is known for the unusual shape of the mature female, which is almost spherical and lies embedded in the proventricular gland of birds:
(A). Tetrameres americana;
(B). Oxyspirura mansoni;
(C). Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(D). Thelazia callipaeda.

A

Tetrameres americana

84
Q

The dog is the definitive host of this parasite, which is transmissible to man:
(A). Echinococcus granulosus;
(B). Sarcocystis hirsuta;
(C). Strongylus vulgaris;
(D). Davainea proglottina.

A

Echinococcus granulosus

85
Q

This is an important cestode of freshwater carps:
(A). Raillietina echinobothridia;
(B). Diorchis nyrocae;
(C). Schistocephalus solidus;
(D). Caryophyllaeus fimbriceps.

A

Caryophyllaeus fimbriceps

86
Q

Intensive management in poultry has reduced cestode infections but this species can still remain a problem because its intermediate host is Musca domestica:
(A). Choanotaenia infundibulum;
(B). Amoebotaenia cuneata;
(C). Raillietina echinobothridia;
(D). Davainea proglotinna.

A

Choanotaenia infundibulum

87
Q

A criteria differentiating eye lesions from others caused by visceral larva migrans is the presence of this:
(A). Anti-C isohaemagglutinin titre of 1200;
(B). Persistent Eosinophilia;
(C). Leucopenia;
(D). Decreased red blood cell counts.

A

Persistent Eosinophilia

88
Q

A highly pathogenic ascaris of cattle is:
(A). Ascaris columnaris;
(B). Contracaecum spiculigerum;
(C). Toxocara vitulorum;
(D). Toxascaris leonina.

A

Toxocara vitulorum

89
Q

Osteoporosis due to low plasma phosphorous concentration is associated with:
(A). Capillaria infection in carabaos;
(B). Liverfluke infection in cattle;
(C). Hookworm infection in canines;
(D). Trichostrongylus infection in sheep.

A

Trichostrongylus infection in sheep

90
Q

Haemonchus contortus increases its rate of survival by undergoing this phenomenon called:
(A). Hypobiosis;
(B). Probiosis;
(C). Symbiosis;
(D). Phoresy.

A

Hypobiosis

91
Q

Larvae of Ascaris do more damage in this organ during migration:
(A). Intestines;
(B). Lungs;
(C). Pancreas;
(D). Liver.

A

Lungs

92
Q

Elaeophora schneideri is a common parasite of the:
(A). Aorta of cattle;
(B). Eye of horse;
(C). Common carotid artery of sheep;
(D). Right atrium of carabao

A

Common carotid artery of sheep

93
Q

This parasite is an important factor in the development of esophageal sarcoma:
(A). Ascarops strongylina;
(B). Spirocerca lupi;
(C). Habronema muscae;
(D). Oxyspirura mansoni.

A

Spirocerca lupi

94
Q

This parasite is acquired by eating inadequately cooked frogs or fish causing eosinophilic meningitis in man due to its migration:
(A). Gongylonema puchrum;
(B). Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(C). Simondsia paradoxa;
(D). Physocephalus sexalatus

A

Gnathostoma spinigerum

95
Q

It is a pathological entity with symptoms in a child of enlarged liver, with eosinophilic granulomatous lesions, intermittent fever, loss of weight and persistent cough with a 50% circulating eosinophilia.
(A). Toxocara vitulorum infection;
(B). visceral larva migrans;
(C). Paragonimus westermani infection;
(D). cutaneous larva migrans.

A

visceral larva migrans

96
Q

Claypipe stem fibrosis is associated with this trematode infection:
(A). Coccidiosis;
(B). Hepatozoonosis;
(C). Schistosomiasis;
(D). Ascariasis

A

Schistosomiasis

97
Q

Largest of all the nematodes (8 meters long, 2 cm thick; in sperm whale)
(A). Elaeophora poeli;
(B). Macrocanthorhynchus hirudinaceus;
(C). Placentonema gigantissima;
(D). Fascioloides magna.

A

Placentonema gigantissima

98
Q

Members of the family Taeniidae produce all but one of these metacestode:
(A). Cysticercus;
(B). Tetrathyridium;
(C). Coenurus;
(D). Echinococcus or hydatid cyst.

A

Tetrathyridium

99
Q

What is not true for
Toxocara canis, T. cati and T. vitulorum.:
(A). both prenatal and transmammary infections occur;
(B). All have three lips;
(C). Eggs are thick-shelled and unembryonated when laid;
(D). Males are without copulatory bursa.

A

both prenatal and transmammary infections occur

100
Q

This species occurs in the intestine of monkeys: (A). Taenia pisiformis;
(B). Anatrichosoma cutaneum;
(C). Habronema microstoma;
(D). Bertiella studeri.

A

Bertiella studeri

101
Q

It is the smallest yet the most pathogenic poultry tapeworm.
(A). Raillietina cesticillus;
(B). Hymenolepis cartioca;
(C). Davainea proglottina;
(D). Hymenolepis sp.

A

Davainea proglottina

102
Q

A clinical feature, which differentiates haemonchosis and mecisticirrosis from
trichostrongylosis, is.
(A). Haemoglubinuria;
(B). Anemia;
(C). Jaundice;
(D). None of the above.

A

Anemia

103
Q

It is a thickened structure located in the buccal capsule of some nematodes, which carries the duct of the dorsal esophageal gland.
(A). Posterior duct;
(B). Salivary duct;
(C). Dorsal gutter;
(D). Oral duct.

A

Dorsal gutter

104
Q

The cause of „hump sore‟, a chronic dermatitis in cattle.
(A). Parafilaria bovicola;
(B). Stephanofilaria assamensis;
(C). Elaeophora schneideri;
(D). Dipetalonema reconditum.

A

Stephanofilaria assamensis

105
Q

This refers to the cuticular fringes around the oral openings of some nematodes
like the equine strongyles.
(A). Corona perfoliata;
(B). Buccal fringes;
(C). Corona radiata;
(D). Cervial alae.

A

Corona radiata

106
Q

It is a condition in man caused by
Angiostrongylus constaricensis.
(A). Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis
(B). Tropical bursati;
(C). Eosinophilic granulomata of the intestine; (D). None of the above

A

Eosinophilic granulomata of the intestine

107
Q

This is a specific condition caused by the larvae of Draschia megastoma and Habronema spp. deposited by flies on existing wounds of domesticated animals specially horses
(A). Delhi boil;
(B). Haemorrhagic filariasi;
(C). Bursati
(D). Pustular mange.

A

Bursati

108
Q

This species of pig lungworms is characterized by a large cuticular swelling
covering the vulva and anus.
(A). Metastrongylus salmi;
(B). Metastrongylus pudendotectus;
(C). Protostrongylus rufescens;
(D). Mullerius capillaries.

A

Metastrongylus pudendotectus

109
Q

It is where majority of the lesions of
Strongylus vulgaris occur.
(A). Posterior mesenteric artery & arteries which derive from it;
(B). Aorta & aortic arch;
(C). Cranial mesenteric artery and the arteries, which derive from it
(D). Pulmonary artery

A

Cranial mesenteric artery and the arteries, which derive from it

110
Q

Species of this genus is characterized by their spicules fused at the tip.
(A). Nematodirus;
(B). Mecistocirrus;
(C). Hemonchus;
(D). Ascaris

A

Nematodirus

111
Q

This species of hairworm affects man.
(A). Capillaria contorta;
(B). Capillaria plica;
(C). Trichuris vulpis;
(D). Capillaria philippinensis

A

Capillaria philippinensis

112
Q

This condition is caused in man by the larvae of the rat lungworm, Angiostrongylus cantonensis.
(A). Elephantiasis;
(B). Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis;
(C). Tropical pancytopenia;
(D). Human gnathostomiasis

A

Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis

113
Q

This term is sometimes given to Trichostrongylus species because of the
characteristic appearance of feces produced by animals infected by them.
(A). Black scours worms;
(B). Barber‟s pole worms;
(C). Red feces thread worms;
(D). Suphur-yellow dropping worms.

A

Black scours worms

114
Q

It is a fungus found common in cattle feces, which helps in the efficient dispersion of Dictyocaulus larvae in the pasture.
(A). Trichophyton;
(B). Pilobolus,
(C). Amanita;
(D). Penicillum

A

Pilobolus

115
Q

It causes “ring worm lesions” in the stomach of calves. Lesions are raised plaques comprising grayish flat areas with sharply demarcated borders.
(A). Trichostrongylus capricola;
(B). Haemonchus placei;
(C). Trichostrongylus axei;
(D). Mecistocirrus digitatus

A

Trichostrongylus axei

116
Q

This chemical is correlated with anorexia in
Trichostrongylus colubriformis
infection in sheep. The parasite appears to stimulate secretion of this substance leading to its increase level in the plasma and acts on the appropriate center in the brain to depress appetite.
(A). Cytokine (CK);
(B). Choline;
(C). Colecystokinin;
(D). Arecoline.

A

Colecystokinin

117
Q

This is the cause of cascado (verminous dermatitis) in the muzzle and teat of cattle and water buffalo
(A). Parafilaria bovicola;
(B). Stephanofilaria okinawaensis;
(C). Brugia malayi;
(D). Onchocerca cebei.

A

Stephanofilaria okinawaensis

118
Q

It is the cause of parasitic otitis in bovines.
(A). Strongyloides papillosus;
(B). Capillaria bovis;
(C). Rhabditis bovis;
(D). Trichuris bovis.

A

Rhabditis bovis

119
Q

Between the human Taenia species, the gravid segments of this species spontaneously leave the host.
(A). Taenia solium;
(B). Taenia saginata;
(C). Taenia taeniaformis;
(D). Raillietina madagascariensis.

A

Taenia saginata

120
Q

Largest nematode in domesticated animals (100 cm.)
(A). Toxacara vitulorum;
(B). Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus;
(C). Dioctophyme renale;
(D). Ascaris suum.

A

Dioctophyme renale

121
Q

Cause of swimmers‟ itch. (cercarial dermatitis, schistosome dermatitis, clam-diggers‟ itch, hunters‟ itch, rice paddy itch, lakeside disease, badedermatitis, gale de nageurs)
(A). Fasciolides magna;
(B). Stephanurus dentatus;
(C). Horse strongyles;
(D). Avian schistosomes.

A

Avian schistosomes

122
Q

Cause of rice paddy itch in Malaysia
(A). Schistosoma mansoni;
(B). Schistosoma spindale;
(C). Schistosoma matheei;
(D). Austrobilharzia bayensis.

A

Schistosoma spindale

123
Q

Infection with this species in fishes is characterized by swollen abdomen caused
by its large plerocercoids displacing the organs. (A). Lytocetus intestinalis;
(B). Ligula intestinalis
(C). Bothriocephalus aelognathi;
(D). Schistocephalus solidus.

A

Ligula intestinalis

124
Q

Eggs of this parasite are released through the gills of the fish host from adults in
the circulatory system.
(A). Austrobilharzia bayensis;
(B). Philometra sp.;
(C). Sanguinicola inermis;
(D). Bucephalus tentaculatus

A

Sanguinicola inermis

125
Q

This filariid worm may produce small whitish nodules in the connective tissues of pig, which can be mistaken as young cysticerci.
(A). Stephanofilaria deodesi;
(B). Suifilaria suis;
(C). Bhalfilaria ladami;
(D). Dirofilaria reconditum.

A

Suifilaria suis

126
Q

This nematode requires termites as intermediate host.
(A). Ascaria galli;
(B). Capillaria annulata;
(C). Hartertia gallinarum;
(D). Heterakis beramporiae.

A

Hartertia gallinarum

127
Q

This species develops first in the leptomeningeal arteries then migrate to the
carotid arteries of the definitive host and transmitted by tabanids:
(A). Elaeophora schneideri;
(B). Brugia malayi;
(C). Parafilaria bovicola;
(D). Stephanofilaria assamensis.

A

Elaeophora schneideri;

128
Q

Pyriform apparatus is present in the egg of the following EXCEPT:
(A). Anoplocephala perfoliata;
(B). Raillietina echinobothrida;
(C). Moniezia expansa;
(D). Paranoplocephala mamillana.

A

Raillietina echinobothrida

129
Q

A roughly cross-shaped telamon is a feature of: (A). Capillaria retusa;
(B). Strongylus edentatus;
(C). Hyostrongylus rubidus;
(D). Ornithostrongylus quadriradiatus.

A

Ornithostrongylus
quadriradiatus.

130
Q

Leaf crowns are present in the following
EXCEPT:
(A). Oesophagostomum;
(B). Stephanurus;
(C). Ascaris;
(D). Strongylus.

A

Ascaris

131
Q

Nodule formation can be observed in the hosts infected with the following EXCEPT:
(A). Ostertagia spp,;
(B). Ornithostrongylus quadriradiatus;
(C). Hyostrongylus rubidus;
(D). Paracooperia nodulosa.

A

Ornithostrongylus quadriradiatus

132
Q

In Trichostrongylus colubriformis, the larva that is very susceptible to desiccation is the. (A). 5th; stage
(B). 2nd stage;
(C). 1st stage;
(D). 4rth stage.

A

2nd stage

133
Q

The cause of eosinophilic granulomatous lesions in the urinary bladder is:
(A). Setaria digitata;
(B). Parafiliaria bovicola;
(C). Stephanofilaria assamensis;
(D). Elaeophora poeli.

A

Parafiliaria bovicola

134
Q

Immunizing sheep over six months old produces protective immunity against
Haemonchus contortus by vaccination with irradiated:
(A). Sera;
(B). Adults;
(C). Infective larvae;
(D). Eggs

A

Infective larvae

135
Q

This parasite is an important factor in the development of esophageal sarcoma:
(A). Ascarops strongylina;
(B). Spirocerca lupi;
(C). Habronema muscae;
(D). Oxyspirura mansoni.

A

Spirocerca lupi

136
Q

The adult form of the following species of the family Taeniidae occurs in dogs EXCEPT:
(A). Taenia hydatigena;
(B). Taenia saginata;
(C). Echinococcus granulosus;
(D). Taenia pisiformis

A

Taenia saginata

137
Q

The helminth parasite with the longest prepatent period is:
(A). Ascaris spp.;
(B). Dioctophyme renale;
(C). Stephanurus dentatus;
(D). Fasciola spp.

A

Stephanurus dentatus

138
Q

The bladder worm of Taenia (Multiceps) multiceps is a:
(A). Coenurus;
(B). Cysticercus;
(C). Cysticercoid;
(D). Tetrathyridium

A

Coenurus

139
Q

A hairworm found in the subcutaneous tissues of monkeys and man is:
(A). Capillaria philippinensis;
(B). Strogyloides stercoralis;
(C). Anatrichosoma cutaneum;
(D). Brugia malayi.

A

Anatrichosoma cutaneum

140
Q

Which is not transmitted by land mollusk?
(A). Capillaria obsignata;
(B). Davainea proglotinna;
(C). Aelurustrongylus abstrussus;
(D). Crenosoma vulpis.

A

Capillaria obsignata

141
Q

Schistosome cercariae are:
(A). Lophocercous;
(B). Furcocercous;
(C). Leptocercous;
(D). Cysticercus.

A

Furcocercous

142
Q

These nematodes are viviparous EXCEPT:
(A). Thelazia rhodesii;
(B). Dirofilaria immitis;
(C). Trichinella spiralis;
(D). Metastrongylus spp.

A

Metastrongylus spp.

143
Q

These flukes occur in the ceca and rectum of birds EXCEPT:
(A). Notocotylus attenuatus;
(B). Cyclocoelium mutabile;
(C). Catatropis verrucosa;
(D). Postharmostomum gallinum.

A

Cyclocoelium mutabile

144
Q

These nematodes occur in the aorta of their respective hosts EXCEPT:
(A). Onchocerca armillata;
(B). Elaeophora poeli;
(C). Spirocerca lupi;
(D). Onchocerca gutturosa

A

Onchocerca gutturosa

145
Q

How does the function of solenocytes can be categorized?
(A). Secretory;
(B). Excretory;
(C). Circulatory;
(D). Respiratory.

A

Excretory

146
Q

Hemorrhagic nodules in the skin of buffaloes are caused by:
(A). Setaria labiatopapillosa;
(B). Parafilaria bovicola;
(C). Onchocerca cebei;
(D). Elaeophora poeli

A

Parafilaria bovicola

147
Q

The ceca of the following flukes are simple EXCEPT:
(A). Fischoederius elongatus;
(B). Paragonimus westermani;
(C). Opisthorchis felineus;
(D). Fasciola gigantica.

A

Fasciola gigantica

148
Q

The organ location of these helminths is the heart and/or pulmonary artery in their respecitive hosts EXCEPT:
(A). Draschia megastoma;
(B). Dipetalonema spirocauda;
(C). Dirofilaria immitis;
(D). Bhalfilaria ladami.

A

Draschia megastoma

149
Q

A single egg may give rise to several larvae infective to the final host in:
(A). Tapeworms;
(B). Roundworms;
(C). Flukes;
(D). Acanthocephalans.

A

Flukes

150
Q

Alimentary canal is absent in:
(A). Mermithids & trematodes;
(B). Cestodes & nematodes;
(C). Trematodes & nematodes;
(D). Acanthocephalans & cestodes

A

Acanthocephalans & cestodes

151
Q

Members of the family Taeniidae produce the following larvae EXCEPT:
(A). Cysticercus;
(B). Tetrathyridium;
(C). Coenurus;
(D). Echinococcus or hydatid cyst

A

Tetrathyridium

152
Q

What is not true for Toxocara canis, T. cati and T. vitulorum?
(A). Both prenatal and transmammary infections occur;
(B). All have three lips;
(C). Eggs are thick-shelled and unembryonated when laid;
(D). Males are without copulatory bursa.

A

Both prenatal and transmammary infections occur

153
Q

In the pig, the presence of milk spots in the liver is suggestive of:
(A). Strongyloides ransomi infection;
(B). Cysticercus tenuicollis;
(C). Visceral larva migrans;
(D). Ascariosis.

A

Ascariosis

154
Q

Most members of this family utilize oribatid mites as intermediate hosts:
(A). Anoplocephalidae;
(B). Dilepididae;
(C). Davaineidae;
(D). Hymenolepididae

A

Anoplocephalidae

155
Q

All but one species can be easily identified by examining the appearance of the
pharynx: (A). Physocephalus sexalatus;
(B). Dictyocaulus filaria;
(C). Oxyspirura mansoni;
(D). Ascarops strongylina

A

Dictyocaulus filaria

156
Q

What set of description is true for strongyle eggs:
(A). Oval, smooth and thick shelled and unsegmented when laid;
(B). Oval, shell is thick and finely mammillated and unsegmented when laid;
(C). Oval, smooth and thin-shelled and segmented when laid;
(D). Round, shell is thick and pitted and
unsegmented when laid.

A

Oval, smooth and thin-shelled and segmented when laid

157
Q

All of these nematodes occur in the crop of their respective hosts EXCEPT:
(A). Capillaria anatis;
(B). Gongylonema ingluvicola;
(C). Ornithostrongylus quadriradiatus;
(D). Amidostomum cygni.

A

Capillaria anatis

158
Q

Which one occurs in the intestine of monkeys: (A). Taenia pisiformis;
(B). Anatrichosoma cutaneum;
(C). Habronema microstoma;
(D). Bertiella studeri.

A

Bertiella studeri

159
Q

These occur in the liver of their respective host EXCEPT:
(A). Dicrocoelium dentriticum;
(B). Thyzanosoma actinoides;
(C). Platynosomum fastosum;
(D). Stilesia globipunctata

A

Stilesia globipunctata

160
Q

The cause of river blindness in man, which utilizes Simulium spp. as intermediate host is: (A). Thelazia lacrymalis;
(B). Brugia malayi;
(C). Onchocerca volvulus;
(D). Setaria equina

A

Onchocerca volvulus

161
Q

The males of the following have copulatory bursa EXCEPT:
(A). Strongylus edentatus;
(B). Ancylostoma caninum;
(C). Ascaridia galli;
(D). Mecistocirrus digitatus.

A

Ascaridia galli

162
Q

Which species is dependent on predation or cannibalism or decomposition in the release of its egg in the environment?
(A). Capillaria annulata;
(B). Capillaria hepatica;
(C). Trichuris suis;
(D). Fasciola hepatica.

A

Capillaria hepatica

163
Q

Transplacental or prenatal transmission occurs in the following EXCEPT:
(A). Stephanurus dentatus;
(B). Strongyloides ransomi;
(C). Protostrongylus rufescens;
(D). Strongyloides westeri.

A

Strongyloides westeri

164
Q

Female Physaloptera praeputialis, Spirocerca lupi, Ascarops strongylina and Metastrongylus species are appropriately described as:
(A). Larviparous,
(B). Viviparous,
(C). Oviparous;
(D). Ovoviviparous.

A

Oviparous

165
Q

Heartworm is transmitted directly to the dog through bite of an infected:
(A). Mite;
(B). Mosquito;
(C). Fly;
(D). Fleas

A

Mosquito

166
Q

Which is important in the transmission of the causative agent of infectious enterohepatitis: (A). Ascaridia galli;
(B). Capillaria anatis;
(C). Heterakis gallinarum;
(D). Dispharynx spiralis.

A

Heterakis gallinarum

167
Q

Cutaneous larva migrans in man is mainly caused by:
(A). Ancylostoma braziliense;
(B). Oesophagostomum dentatum;
(C). Gaigeria pachyscelis;
(D). Toxacara cati

A

Ancylostoma braziliense

168
Q

Males of the following nematodes have only one spicule EXCEPT:
(A). Dioctophyme renale;
(B). Trichuris vulpis;
(C). Trichinella spiralis;
(D). Oxyuris equi.

A

Trichinella spiralis

169
Q

This tapeworm can cause neurocysticercosis in man:
(A). Taenia saginata;
(B). Taenia solium;
(C). Taenia serialis;
(D). Dipylidium caninum.

A

Taenia solium

170
Q

The following helminths are dioecious EXCEPT: (A). Schistosoma japonicum;
(B). Ascaris suum;
(C). Fasciola gigantica;
(D). Spirocerca lupi.

A

Fasciola gigantica

171
Q

Which invertebrate serve as intermediate host of the thorny-headed worm of pigs:
(A). Dung beetles;
(B). Red ants;
(C). Earthworms;
(D). Oribatid mites

A

Dung beetles

172
Q

Whose eggs are spindle-shaped and resemble diatoms thus making them favorable food for crustaceans?
(A). Trematoda;
(B). Cestoda;
(C). Acanthocephala;
(D). Nematoda.

A

Acanthocephala

173
Q

The following require freeliving oligochaete annelids as intermediate host EXCEPT:
(A). Hystrichis tricolor;
(B). Dioctophyme renale;
(C). Eustrongylides Papillosus;
(D). Filicolis anatis.

A

Filicolis anatis

174
Q

The male of this species is degenerate and parasitic in the uterus of the female:
(A). Strongylus vulgaris;
(B). Trichosomoides crassicauda;
(C). Stephanurus dentatus;
(D). Trichuris ovis

A

Trichosomoides crassicauda

175
Q

Elevated level of plasma pepsinogen in cattle is indicative of infection with:
(A). Mecistocirrus digitatus;
(B). Trichostrongylus colubrifomis;
(C). Ostertagia ostertagi;
(D). Bunostomum trigonocephalum

A

Ostertagia ostertagi

176
Q

What trichostrongylid species whose egg does not hatch until infective larva (L3) has developed in the egg shell?:
(A). Mecistocirrus digitatus;
(B). Cooperia curticei;
(C). Paracooperia nodulosa;
(D). Nematodirus battus

A

Nematodirus battus

177
Q

Pipe-stem liver is a condition associated with: (A). Fasciolosis hepatica only;
(B). Dicrocoeliosis only;
(C). Schistosomiasis japonica only;
(D). Both A & C

A

Both A & C

178
Q

Heavy infection with this species can cause hyperplasia of the affected mucosa
giving a characteristic “morocco leather” appearance.
(A). Ostertagia ostertagi;
(B). Haemonchus contortus;
(C). Nematodirus spathiger;
(D). Agriostomm vriburgi.

A

Ostertagia ostertagi

179
Q

Teeth are wanting in:
(A). Agriostomum vriburgi;
(B). Chabertia ovina;
(C). Ancylostoma caninum;
(D). Strongylus equinus

A

Chabertia ovina

180
Q

Among the Trichostrngylidae, this genus is distinguishable from the rest because of the large size of its egg:
(A). Trichostronylus;
(B). Ostertagia;
(C). Nematodirus;
(D). Cooperia.

A

Nematodirus

181
Q

This nematode is unusual in that no period of development is required outside the host because the first stage larva released is immediately infective:
(A). Filarioides osleri;
(B). Thelazia rhodesii;
(C). Dictyocaulus filaria;
(D). Parelaphostrongylus tenuis

A

Filarioides osleri

182
Q

Which helminth infection in cats can produce spontaneous pulmonary arteriopathy with pulmonary arterial hypertrophy and hyperplasia?:
(A). Platynosomum fastosum;
(B). Aelurostrongylus abstrussus;
(C). Ollulanus tricuspis;
(D). Filaroides hirthi.

A

Aelurostrongylus abstrussus

183
Q

A flattened amphistome with large ventral papillae and found in the large intestine of cattle is:
(A). Gastrodiscus aegyptiacus;
(B). Velasquezotrema brevisaccus;
(C). Gigantocotyle formosanum;
(D). Homalogaster paloniae.

A

Homalogaster paloniae

184
Q

All except one has anticestode and antitrematode activity:
(A). Albendazole;
(B). Praziquantel
(C). Niclosamide
(D). Bunamidine

A

Bunamidine

185
Q

An embryonated egg, which is bilaterally symmetrical, spherical or oval with 3
pairs of hooks is called:
(A). Morula;
(B). Oncosphere
(C). Acanthor
(D). Coracidium.

A

Oncosphere

186
Q

Which is not a characteristic of a freshly voided taeniid egg?:
(A). Thin-shelled;
(B). Radially striated embryophore;
(C). Larvated;
(D). Spherical.

A

Thin-shelled

187
Q

All but one is viviparous:
(A). Ollulanus tricuspis;
(B). Probstmayria vivipara;
(C). Dictyocaulus viviparus;
(D). Dracunculus medinensis

A

Dictyocaulus viviparus

188
Q

In large animals, infection with this species can be diagnosed by rectal palpation:
(A). Parascaris equorum;
(B). Oesophagostomum columbianum;
(C). Strongylus vulgaris;
(D). Oxyuris equi.

A

Strongylus vulgaris

189
Q

Generally in Trichostrongylids, the order of susceptibility from least to most to
adverse conditions is:
(A). 3rd larval stage, embryonated egg, unembryonated egg, 1st larval stage and 2nd larval stage;
(B). 1st larval stage, 2nd larval stage, 3rd larval stage, embryonate egg and unembryonated egg;
(C). Embryonated egg, 3rd larval stage, 2nd larval stage, 1st larval stage and unembryonated egg;
(D). 2nd larval stage, embryonated egg, 3rd larval stage, unembryoanted egg and 1st larval stage.

A

3rd larval stage, embryonated egg, unembryonated egg, 1st larval stage and 2nd larval stage

190
Q

Male and female of these helminths are permanently in copula EXCEPT:
(A). Cyathostoma bronchialis;
(B). Schistosoma japonicum;
(C). Mammomonoganus laryngeus;
(D). Syngamus trachea.

A

Cyathostoma bronchialis

191
Q

This parasite occurs in the circulatory system of cyprinid fishes:
(A). Stephanostomum baccatum;
(B). Crepidostomum spp.;
(C). Sanguinicola inermis;
(D). Diplostomum spp.

A

Sanguinicola inermis

192
Q

The following are tapeworms affecting fishes EXCEPT:
(A). Avetillina;
(B). Caryophyllaeus;
(C). Trianophorus,
(D). Khawia

A

Avetillina

193
Q

From the time of infection to the time eggs or larvae appear in the feces/blood of the host is referred to as.
(A). Incubation period;
(B). Patent period;
(C). Log period;
(D). Prepatent period

A

Prepatent period

194
Q

Lemnisci and uterine bells are present in:
(A). Pentatstomids;
(B). Nematodes;
(C). Acanthocephalans;
(D). Mallophagans

A

Acanthocephalans

195
Q

An organism with both the male and female reproductive organ in one individual is termed as:
(A). Monoecious;
(B). Parthenogenetic;
(C). Dioecious;
(D). Monogamous.

A

Monoecious

196
Q

The main cause of creeping eruption is man is: (A). Ancylostoma ceylanicum;
(B). Ancylostoma braziliense;
(C). Necator americanus;
(D). Ancylostoma duodenale.

A

Ancylostoma braziliense

197
Q

Adult tapeworms can be found the in following EXCEPT:
(A). Pigs;
(B). Cats;
(C). Dogs;
(D). Sheep.

A

Pigs

198
Q

Auto infection is a characteristic feature of these parasites EXCEPT:
(A). Hymenolepis (Vampirolepis) nana;
(B). Capillaria philippinensis;
(C). Hymenolepis diminuta;
(D). Strongyloides stercoralis

A

Hymenolepis diminuta

199
Q

The following are transmitted via both the transplacental and transcolostral or
mammary routes EXCEPT:
(A). Ancylostoma caninum;
(B). Toxacara canis;
(C). Toxocara vitulorum;
(D). Toxocara cati.

A

Toxocara cati

200
Q

Freshwater fish is the intermediate hosts of: (A). Ollulanus tricuspis;
(B).
Gnathostoma spinigerum;
(C). Spirocerca lupi;
(D). Physaloptera canis.

A

Gnathostoma spinigerum

AA4 VPARA Helminthology (9 decks)

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