Heating Flashcards

1
Q

This concentration of carbon monoxide is allowable for an exposure of 8 hours.

A

50 PPM

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2
Q

These concentrations of carbon monoxide are fatal within one hour.

A

4000+ PPM

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3
Q

What is the difference between intermittent and interrupted pilots?

A

Intermittent - pilot stays on while there is a call for heat.
Interrupted - pilot stays on only until the main burner is proving, then shuts off.

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4
Q

What causes yellow flame tips?

A

Not enough primary air flow.

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5
Q

What causes lifting flame?

A

Too high velocity, can be caused by too high gas pressure or too much primary air.

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6
Q

What causes waving blue flames?

A

Drafts/air blowing on burner.

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7
Q

What causes flashback?

A

Not enough gas pressure or the ratio of primary air to gas ratio is skewed. Increase gas pressure or reduce primary air.

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8
Q

What causes the main burner flame to be to large?

A

Too much gas getting to burner. Could be overfired, orifices are too large, or defective regulator.

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9
Q

What causes noisy flame?

A

Too high velocity. Usually caused by too much primary air.

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10
Q

When a unit retry’s more than one time for ignition, it is considered to have what kind of control system?

A

Recycling control.

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11
Q

What is the benefit of a connection diagram?

A

Shows colour and location of wires and location of components.

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12
Q

What is the benefit of a ladder diagram?

A

Shows how the appliance works and helps with troubleshooting.

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13
Q

Which part of incomplete combustion can you smell?

A

Aldehydes.

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14
Q

What should an open circuit test on a thermocouple read?

A

30+-5 mVDC

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15
Q

What should a closed circuit test on a thermocouple read?

A

15+- 5 mVDC

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16
Q

What mVDC should a typical pilot drop out at during a drop out test?

A

1-2mVDC and should take around 90 second or less.

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17
Q

Which test should be conducted on all pilots for safety purposes?

A

Pilot turn down test. This ensures the pilot can light the burner under all conditions.

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18
Q

What are two types of burners and what is the difference between them?

A

Atmospheric - No fan, uses the venturi effect to deliver primary air to the burner.
Power Burner - Uses an inducer fan to supply primary air.

19
Q

What are 5 burner types and what are their defining characteristics?

A

Fanmix: Gas pressure rotates a fan blade which draws in the air used for combustion.
Closed burner: All combustion air is primary air provided directly to the burner.
Open burner: open to atmosphere and allows secondary air.
Upshot: Vertical burner ports.
Inshot: horizontal burner ports.

20
Q

Where can radiant tube burners not be used?

A

Anywhere except explosion proof areas or areas where flammable vapours are present.

21
Q

What is turndown ratio?

A

Turndown ratio defines a heating appliance’s ability to stage between its minimum and maximum outputs. A unit with a 5:1 turndown ratios means that the unit can stage anywhere from a minimum of 20% and a maximum of 100% in 20% increments. A unit with a higher turndown ratio will be able to modulate in smaller increments and therefore be more efficient. These units are typcally fitted with modulating gas valves and vfds in order to properly control the fuel/gas mixture being delivered to the burners.

22
Q

What is done on mid-efficient furnances to prevent positive pressure in the flue?

A

The fan outlet is increased in size. this is typcailly C or B vent. This results in the pressure in the flue being negative in mid efficient furnaces.

23
Q

In the 1970’s, heating equipment had an efficiency rating of about __________?

24
Q

In the late 1970’s, federal government introduced standards that required heating appliances to be at least _________ efficient.

25
What are the two methods for determining the efficiency of appliances and how do they differ?
Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency (AFUE): Calculated by the manufacturer and accounts for overall yearly efficiency including seasonal and venting losses. Steady state efficiency: Calculated by a combustion analyzer at a static point in time using a combustion analyzer. Performed by an HVAC tech if combustion related components are changed.
26
Before the introduction of resistance in heat exchangers, flue gases could reach temperatures of _______?
750F+
27
Throughout the evolution of furnaces, what adaptations allowed them to become more efficient?
1. Standing pilots were slowly phased out. IPI systems were introduced. 2. Dampers were added to keep heat in during off cycle. 3. Resistance was added to heat exchangers in the form of bends and dimples. 4. Inducers were added to control airflow. 5. Secondary heat exchangers were added to extract the latent heat from the air.
28
What is the dew point of a high efficient furnace?
126F
29
What is the typical flue temp of a high efficient furnace?
90-125F. Below 126F as this is the condensing temp.
30
What are the characteristics of a Cat 1 appliance?
Typically galvanized or aluminium venting. Single wall (C vent) or double wall (B vent). These units are non-condensing with around 325F-500F flue temps, and have a negative pressure in the flue.
31
What are the characteristics of a Cat 4 appliance?
Typically plastic venting (636) and requires an inducer fan. Usually high efficient and uses secondary heat exchanger to extract latent heat energy from water vapour to be used in heating. Flue temps around 90F-125F with boilers approaching 150F.
32
Although both Cat 2 and Cat 3 appliances are rare and normally only used on specialized equipment, what is the difference between the two?
Cat 2 appliances have negative pressure in the flue, but they do extract latent heat energy to be used for heating. Cat 3 appliances have a positive pressure in the flue, but they do not extract latent heat.
33
What are the 4 types of draft design?
Natural: No fans, relies on air at atmopsheric pressure and stack action. Forced draft: Fan pushes the air into the combustion box. Induced draft: Fan pulls the air through the combustion box. Balanced draft: Uses a fan to both push and pull the air through the combustion box.
34
Which type of heat exchanger is suitable for a conversion from oil to gas?
Natural draft. Semi revertible is difficult but possible.
35
What are 4 design features common to all burners?
1. Fuel delivery to combustion chamber. 2. Air delivery to combustion chamber. 3. Fuel and air mixing. 4. Safe ignition and complete combustion of the fuel.
36
Why are natural draft burners often called atmospheric burners?
This is because the air used for combustion is provided at atmospheric pressure.
37
What is an inspirated burner?
A burner that entrains and mixes primary air through a design feature that consticts the inlet of the burner throat to produce the venturi effect.
38
What are the three types of air in a heating appliance?
Primary air: Air being directly mixed with gas inside a burners housing and being used for combustion process. Secondary air: Air introduced to the combustion process when fuel is burning. Excess air: Any air being supplied to the combustion zone in excess of what is required for complete combustion.
39
What are the main categories of power burners?
Aspirated: High velocity air entrains fuel for combustion. Mechanical Premixing: Gas/air mixture is mixed in the blower housing and is forced from there to a burner nozzle. Nozzle mixing: Gas and air are kept seperate throughout the burner and are mixed rapidly upon exiting the burner port. Injection
40
What is another name for a blast burner?
High velocity burner.
41
What is the only kind of appliance that has a 100% AFUE rating?
Non-vented. Direct fired.
42
Why are heat exchangers in high efficiency furnaces constructed out of stainless steel?
To combat the corrosivness of the condensate.
43
What are 4 combustion air components on a heating appliance?
1. Combustion air blower. 2. Combustion air proving switch. 3. Heat exchanger. 4. Primary high limit safety switch.