Health Promotion Flashcards
Which medication is safe to take during pregnancy?
a. Metronidazole
b. Aspirin
c. Codeine
d. Acetaminophen
d. Acetaminophen
-Acetaminophen may be taken safely during all stages of pregnancy.
-Metronidazole (Flagyl) should not be used during the first trimester of pregnancy.
-Salicylates like aspirin AND codeine should be avoided throughout pregnancy.
A client at the fertility clinic is being treated for hypertension and obesity and has lost 8lbs (3.6kg) in the past month, and her BP has decreased to 154/98 mmHg. She states she is using self-control strategies to achieve these improvements. Which would be a therapeutic response by the nurse?
a. Explaining to the client that her current program needs revision to improve results
b. Acknowledging the client’s achievements while encouraging continuation of her current program.
c. Emphasizing to the client the importance of exercise in addition to reduced sodium and caloric intake.
d. Recommending the client ask her HCP about a prescription for an antihypertensive or diuretic.
b. Acknowledging the client’s achievements while encouraging continuation of her current program.
-This response recognizes achievement and reinforces the client’s behavior.
-Explaining that her current program needs revision to improve results focuses on the negatives, should focus on positive and reinforce small gains.
-Emphasizing the importance of exercising and reduced sodium and caloric intake implies that the client is not doing enough, should focus on + and small gains.
-The client may need an antihypertensive med because her BP is still elevated and that would require discussion but focusing on that rather than her success would not be therapeutic.
Which statement is an accurate description of dysmenorrhea?
a. Pain with menses
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Bleeding between menses
d. Heavy bleeding with menses
a. Pain with menses
-Dysmenorrhea is defined as pain with menses.
-Endometrial hyperplasia results from anovulation and persistent estrogen stimulation.
-Bleeding BETWEEN menses is metrorrhagia.
-Heavy bleeding WITH menses is menorrhagia.
A client who recently has been told by her primary HCP that she has extensive terminal metastatic carcinoma of the breast tells the nurse that she believes an error has been made. She states that she does not have breast cancer, and she is not going to die. Which stage of death and dying is the client experiencing?
a. Anger
b. Denial
c. Bargaining
d. Acceptance
b. Denial
-The client has difficulty accepting the inevitability of death and is attempting to deny it.
-In the anger stage the client strikes out with “why me?” and “how could God do this?” types of statements.
-In the bargaining stage the client tries to bargain for more time, the reality of death is no longer denied but the client attempts to manipulate and extend the remaining time.
-In the acceptance stage the client accepts death and peacefully awaits it.
Which client care activity may the nurse safely delegate to an unlicensed healthcare worker?
a. Assessing the client’s mastectomy incision for signs of inflammation.
b. Assisting a client who is recovering from an abdominal hysterectomy to the bathroom.
c. Providing information about side effects to a client receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer.
d. Evaluating the effectiveness of an antiemetic that was administered to a client to relieve nausea.
b. Assisting a client who is recovering from an abdominal hysterectomy to the bathroom.
-An unlicensed HCW is taught how to safely ambulate clients; this activity does not require extensive knowledge or expert clinical judgement.
-Assessment, teaching, and evaluation of client responses all require clinical judgement and license to practice nursing.
The nurse plans to delegate some of the tasks for the discharge of a postpartum client to an unlicensed healthcare worker. Which activity must be performed by the nurse?
a. Taking the neonates picture.
b. Calling to arrange the client’s postpartum appointment.
c. Comparing the identification bands of mother and infant.
d. Preparing the discharge packets and distributing them to the parents.
C. comparing identification bands of mother and infant.
It is the nurse’s professional responsibility to compare the mothers and infants identification bans one last time before discharge. This ensures that the correct infant is discharged with the mother. Taking the neonates picture, Arranging the clients postpartum appointment, and preparing the discharge packets and distributing them to parents are all within the role of the nursing assistant and may be delegated safely. Preparing the discharge packets and distributing them to the parents.
A 16 year old high school student comes to a community Health Center because of the fear of having contracted herpes. The teenager is upset and shares this information with the Community Health Center nurse. Which response would the nurse provide?
a. Let me get a brief health history now.
b. Try not to worry until you know whether you have herpes.
c. You sound worried. Let me make arrangements to have you examined.
d. Herpes has received too much attention in the media; let’s be realistic.
c. You sound worried. Let me make arrangements to have you examined.
Telling the client that she sounds worried and offering to arrange an examination immediately identifies the client’s fear as real and offers a service to meet the need for information about the client’s physical status.
Obtaining the health history ignores the client’s concern and focuses on the nurses need to complete the task of obtaining a history.
Telling the client not to worry minimizes the client’s concern about having a sexually transmitted infection.
Saying that herpes has received too much attention in the media minimizes the client’s concern and implies that the client is being unrealistic.
A client informs the nurse that her home pregnancy test was positive and that her last menstrual period. began on June 18th. According to Naegele’s rule, which is the estimated date of birth (EDB)?
a. March 8
b. March 11
c. March 1
d. March 25
d. March 25
-Using Naegele’s rule, take the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) (June 18), subtract three months, and then add 7 days.
-June 18 subtract three months = March 18, plus 7 days = March 25th is EDB
At her first prenatal visit, the client informs the nurse that her last menstrual period started on June 10. Which is her expected date of birth according to Naegele’s rule?
a. March 3
b. March 10
c. March 17
d. March 24
c. March 17
June 10 minus three months = March 10 + 7 days = March 17
Which action would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who is being treated for a sexually transmitted infection and reports fever and irregular bleeding? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
a. The use of analgesics
b. Abdominal palpation
c. Complete blood count
d. Culture of the cervical canal
e. Administration of antibiotics as prescribed
f. Teaching about negative effects of douching
A, B, C, D, E, F
-Sexually transmitted infection is a common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Symptoms include fever, chronic pelvic pain, abnormal vaginal discharge, nausea and anorexia, and irregular vaginal bleeding.
-Analgesics may be needed to provide for patient comfort.
-Palpation of the abdomen and pelvic organs may reveal tenderness.
-A complete blood count may reveal elevated leukocytes and sedimentation rate.
-Cultures of the cervical canal are done to identify the infecting organism, which is most commonly Neisseria gonorrhea or Chlamydia trachomatis.
-Urine analysis is usually done to identify infection of the urinary tract.
-Antimicrobials are begun promptly to treat the infection.
-Douching results in changes in the vaginal flora and predisposes the woman to the development of PID, bacterial vaginosis, and ectopic pregnancy.
Which cause may produce abnormal uterine bleeding? Select all that apply. One, some, or all may be correct.
a. Hypothyroidism.
b. Failure to ovulate.
c. Bleeding disorders.
d. Unidentified pregnancy.
e. Use of oral contraceptives.
f. Benign lesions of the uterus.
A, B, C, D, E, F
-Common causes for any type of abnormal uterine bleeding include endocrine disorders like hypothyroidism, failure to ovulate or respond appropriately to ovulation hormones, bleeding disorders, pregnancy complications, such as an unidentified pregnancy that is ending in spontaneous abortion, breakthrough bleeding (which may occur in the woman taking oral contraceptives), and lesions of the vagina, cervix, or uterus (benign or malignant).
Which information regarding risks that may result from an untreated chlamydia infection with the nurse include when providing education for a female client? Select all that apply. One, some, or all may be correct.
a. Sterility
b. Ectopic pregnancy.
c. Blocked fallopian tubes
d. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
e. Increased likelihood of HIV infection.
A, B, C, D, E
Untreated chlamydia can result in sterility in both women and men, an increased risk for ectopic pregnancy, blocked fallopian tubes, pelvic inflammatory disease, and a five-time greater risk for contracting HIV infection.
Which assessment finding would the nurse question for a client who s considering oral contraceptives? Select all that apply. (one, some, or all may be correct)
a. Blood clots.
b. Heart disease.
c. Breast cancer.
d. Impaired liver function.
e. Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding.
f. Smoking more than 15 cigarettes per day.
A, B, C, D, E, F
Women with the following disorders should not take oral contraceptives or should use them with caution:
-thromboembolic disorders like blood clots,
-cerebral vascular accident
-heart disease;
-Estrogen dependent cancer or breast cancer
-Impaired liver function;
-Confirmed or possible pregnancy;
-Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding;
-Smoking pattern of more than 15 cigarettes per day for women older than 35 (the pill is safe for women older than 35 years if they do not smoke). However, smoking increases the chance of experiencing complications in all age groups.
Which symptoms indicate pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? Select all that apply. One, some, or all may be correct.
a. Fever
b. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
c. Chronic pelvic pain
d. Irregular vaginal bleeding
e. Abnormal vaginal discharge
f. Bilateral adnexal tenderness (pelvic region)
A, b, c, d, e, f
Fever, elevated ESR and CRP, chronic pelvic pain, irregular vaginal bleeding, abnormal vaginal discharge, and bilateral adnexal tenderness are all symptoms of PID, and infection of the upper reproductive tract
Which definition would the nurse use to explain osteoporosis?
a. It is avascular necrosis
b. It is caused by pathological fractures
c. It is hyperplasia of osteoblasts
d. It involves a decrease in bone substance
d. it involves a decrease in bone substance
Osteoporosis involves a defect in the bone matrix formation that weakens bones, making them unable to withstand usual functional stresses.
Avascular necrosis is the death of bone tissue that results from reduced circulation to bone.
Pathological fractures can result from osteoporosis.
Hyperplasia of osteoblasts is not related to osteoporosis. This occurs during bone healing.
