Health Insurance Underwriting Flashcards

1
Q

Adverse Selection

A

Adverse Selection is the tendency of a disproportionate number of poor risks to seek or buy insurance or maintain existing insurance in force (i.e., the selection against the insurance company).

Sound underwriting reduces adverse selection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Age Change

A

The date halfway between birthdays when the applicants age changes to the next higher age.

Some insurers base insurance policy age on the applicants nearest birthday; others base it on the insureds last birthday.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Agents Report

A

Also called an agents statement.

The agents report is where the agent records personal observations about the proposed insured.

It is a confidential way for the agent to provide relevant underwriting information to the insurance carrier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Applicant

A

The person completing the application to the insurance company for the insurance po9licy.

In most cases, the applicant is also the proposed insured, but this is not always the case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Application

A

The statement of information given when a person applies for insurance.

The insurance company’s underwriter uses this information as a basis in determining whether the applicant qualifies for acceptance under the company’s guidelines.

Applications are attached to and made a part of all individual contracts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Attending Physician Statement (APS)

A

Insurers request an attending physicians statement when underwriters need additional detail regarding a medical condition revealed on an application.

Also known as an APS, these reports from the applicants attending physician may elaborate on a past condition or something that currently impact the prospective insured’s health.

Because of the need to respect physician/patient confidentiality, the applicant must sign an authorization, which allows the physician to release information to the insurance company’s underwriter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Avocation

A

Hobbies or non-occupational activities.

Some avocations, such as fishing or studying chess, do not require additional underwriting because they do not measurably increase risk.

Other activities such as sky diving or mountain climbing could require more scrutiny during the underwriting process in the form of a SPECIAL QUESTIONNAIRE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Backdating

A

The practice of making the effective date of a policy earlier than the application date.

Backdating is used to make the issue age lower than an applicants real age in order to get a lower premium.

State laws usually limit the length of time an insurer may backdate a policy to six months.

Backdating is not allowed in variable contracts due to the nature of the investment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Binding Receipt (unconditional receipt)

A

One of the types of receipts given by an insurance company upon the completion of an insurance application when the applicant pays the initial premium with the application.

Insurance becomes effective on the receipt date and continues for a specified period of time or until the insurer declines the application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Buyer’s Guide

A

A pamphlet that describes and compares various forms of life or health insurance.

This guide must be provided to a consumer by the producer when the latter is attempting to solicit insurance.

A buyer’s guide describes the key characteristics of the policy type being purchased.

This information helps consumers make an informed decision when purchasing insurance coverage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Claims experience

A

An insured’s history of claims or rate of loss.

The greater the claims experience, the higher the required premium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Community Rating

A

Insurance carriers generally base community ratings on their overall claim experience and healthcare costs in a geographical area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Conditional Receipt

A

Insurers issue conditional receipts when agents collect the initial premium with an application.

Agents leave signed receipts as proof of payment and temporary guarantees of coverage as long as a specific condition is satisfied.

Coverage can conditionally begin on the date specified in the receipt – on the date of application or date or a required medical exam, whichever is later.

Coverage commences if the proposed insured demonstrates insurability.

If the applicant proves to be uninsurable, no coverage takes effect, and the premium is refunded.

With out a valid receipt, no coverage is in force until the policy is issued, delivered, and accepted with the initial premium paid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Constructive Delivery

A

Occurs when an insurance carrier gives up all control of a policy and releases it for unconditional delivery to someone acting for the policyholder, including the company’s own agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Consumer Report (Investigative Consumer Report)

A

A detailed background investigation that may include an interview with coworkers, friends, and neighbors about an applicants character, reputation, lifestyle, etc.

Insurers are allowed to conduct a consumer report to obtain additional information as long there is no invasion of privacy present.

A common type of consumer report involves a credit report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Counter-offer

A

The legal description of what happens when an insurer declines a paid application for insurance with a standard rate classification but is willing to offer a “rated” or substandard policy that will require a higher premium.

The insurer rejects the initial paid offer and makes a counter-offer in reply.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Credit Report

A

A summary of an insurance applicant’s credit history (credit score, debt levels, repayment history, and assumed creditworthiness, etc.), made by an independent organization that has investigated the applicants credit standing.

Credit reports are typically obtained from one of the three major credit bureaus (Experian, Equifax, and TransUnion).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Declined Risk

A

Describes an individual whose application for coverage was rejected by an insurance company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Delivery Receipt

A

Insurance companies require producers to obtain signed delivery receipts as proof of delivery.

The delivery receipt is important because it can designate the start of the policy’s free-look period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Disclosure Form

A

A comparison form required by various state regulatory agencies to be given to every policyowner when replacing an existing policy with another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Earned Premium

A

A pro-rated amount of paid-in-advance premiums allocated to the portion of the policy term that has already elapsed.

For example, let us assume that a policy’s term is 12 months, and the first three months have elapsed. Twenty-five percent of the policy term is in the past. That portion of risk has been covered. If the premium were $1000, then $250 or 25% would be earned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Effective date

A

The effective date of an insurance policy identifies when coverage is actually in force, and it establishes the date by which the policyowner must pay future annual premiums.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Evidence of Insurability

A

Means a statement or proof regarding a person’s current health status and history that qualify him for coverage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Expense Factor

A

Also known as the LOAD, or LOADING FACTOR, factors the insurers operation expenses into the premiums.

Some of these expenses include commissions, administrative costs, overhead, profits, and regulatory reserves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fair Credit Reporting Act

A

A federal law passed in 1970 that provides an insurer with the right to receive additional information about insurance applicants.

This law permits an insurer to conduct a consumer report on applicants and proposed insureds.

An applicant for insurance must be informed of the purpose of the report.

When the insurance company declines coverage due to information in the report, the insurer must provide the name and address of the reporting agency so that the applicant can secure a copy of the information in the report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Field Underwriter

A

The agent or producer completing the consumers insurance application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Field Underwriting

A

During this process, the producer determines which risks are desirable and submits those to the underwriting department for approval.

The producer provides any required disclosure of information practices to an applicant, such as a notice regarding replacement, a buyers guide, an outline of coverage, or a policy summary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Free-look period

A

All life insurance policies must include at least a ten-day free-look period in a life insurance contract.

This period begins when the producer delivers the insurance policy.

If the policy owner decides to return the contract to the insurer during this period, they will receive a full premium refund.

Mail order or direct response insurers must include a free-look period of at least thirty days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Health Insurance Premium

A

The formula for a health insurance premium is (morbidity - interest + expenses).

30
Q

Information and Privacey Protection Act

A

Each insurer must conform with state and federal laws privacy.

This act also prohibits insurers from basing their decisions solely on previous adverse underwriting decisions.

31
Q

Inspeciton Receipt

A

This receipt documents the temporary release of a new policy to the prospective policyholder without payment.

It allows the prospective insured to review the contract before actually buying it.

The free-look period required by all states makes this inspection receipt relatively obsolete.

32
Q

Inspection Report

A

A report that contains general information regarding the health, habits, finances, and reputation of an applicant.

This report is developed by a firm that specializes in rendering this type of service.

33
Q

Insurable Interest

A

Describes the financial or emotional relationship between two or more parties.

Insurable interest exists in health insurance if the applicant is in a position to suffer a loss should the insured incur medical expenses or be unable to work due to a disability.

34
Q

Interes

A

Represents the income insurance companies earn from investing paid premiums.

Premium calculations assume an expected rate of return.

35
Q

Issue Date

A

The date the insurance company finishes underwriting a risk exposure and generates the insurance contract.

Coverage is already effective if there was a premium receipt.

If no premium were paid. it would go into effect when delivered, assuming the first premium is paid, and a Statement of Good Health is obtained.

36
Q

Medical Information Bureau

A

A service organization that collects medical data on a life and health insurance applicants for member insurance companies.

37
Q

Medical Report

A

May be needed to provide further underwriting information.

This report may be based on a recent examination with the applicants physician or an examination conducted as part of the underwriting process.

38
Q

Moral Hazard

A

Applicant habits or lifestyles that indicate a higher than average level of risk for the insurer.

Such habits include excess drinking, recreational drug use, and dishonest business practices.

39
Q

Morbidity

A

Describes the level of risk that someone has of suffering a disability – usually within a given year, a given age, and as part of a defined population group.

40
Q

Non-Medical

A

Refers to an application evaluated without a medical exam.

41
Q

Outline of Coverage

A

Describes the basic benefits, conditions, and other terms of an insurance policy without using industry jargon.

42
Q

Payor

A

The person responsible for paying the policy premium.

43
Q

Policy Fee

A

A small transaction fee charged by some insurers for the first or subsequent policy years.

44
Q

Policy Summary

A

Summarizes the basic terms of an insurance policy, including the conditions, coverage limitations, and premiums.

45
Q

Policy Term

A

The period of time a policy will remain in existence when premiums are being paid.

It can also be described as a single renewal period for renewable policies.

46
Q

Policyholder

A

The person who can exercise the rights or options conferred by the policy.

The policyholder is usually the payor as well.

47
Q

Preferred Risk

A

Describes an applicant who represents the likelihood of risk lower than that of the standard applicant, typically due to better than average physical condition, occupation, mode of living, and other characteristics compared to other applicants of the same age.

48
Q

Premium

A

Are the initial payments and subsequent periodic payments required to keep a policy in force.

They represent the relatively small, certain price paid for the right to transfer a potentially large uncertain risk to the insurer.

Insurance premiums are always paid in advance.

49
Q

Premium Mode

A

Refers to the frequency of premium payments.

If the policy has an annual premium, the insurer can assess an extra charge if premiums are paid quarterly, semiannually, or monthly.

50
Q

Premium Receipt

A

When an agent collects a premium at the time of application, that producer must give a premium receipt to the applicant.

This receipt is proof that the applicant paid the initial premium with his application.

The type of receipt in use by the insurer determines when coverage becomes effective and what conditions apply.

51
Q

Proposed Insured

A

The person whose life is requesting to be insured.

Typically, but not always, this is also the applicant.

52
Q

Rated Policy

A

The basis for an additional charge to the standard premium because the person insured is classified as a higher than average risk.

The above standard rates usually result from impaired health or hazardous occupations.

53
Q

Rated-up Policy

A

See…Rated Policy and Substandard Risk Classification

54
Q

Rated-up Premium

A

The Additional amount added to the standard premium to account for the additional risk involved in underwriting a substandard loss exposure.

55
Q

Replacement

A

A legal activity where a producer convinces a prospective client to lapse or surrender a life or health policy and purchase a new one.

Producers must provide a “Notice Regarding Replacement” to the consumer when this activity may occur.

The producer must also notify the insurer that a replacement is occurring as well.

56
Q

Representations

A

Most State laws specify that the applicants statements on the application are considered representations and not warranties.

Representations need only be substantially accurate to the best of the applicants knowledge.

Generally, a representation is considered fraudulent if it relates to a situation that wo9uld e material to the risk and that the applicant made with fraudulent intent.

57
Q

Reserves

A

Are Funds set aside to pay future claims.

Some reserves are required by stat statute (Statutory reserves).

58
Q

Risk Classification

A

Describes the underwriting category into which a risk exposure is placed depending upon the applicants susceptibility to injury, illness, or death.

59
Q

Special Class

A

Describes an applicant who cannot qualify for a standard policy but may secure one with a rider waiving the payment for a loss involving certain existing health impairments.

The insurer may require the applicant to pay a higher premium or accept a policy other than the one for which he has applied.

60
Q

Special Questionnaire

A

Gather more detailed information about a non-medical aspect of the applicants life – usually about an activity that often entails a greater than average level of risk.

The requested information may be about: aviation, an avocation, foreign residence, finances, or ones occupation.

The most common of these special questionnaires is the aviation questionnaire.

61
Q

Standard Risk

A

Describes a person who, according to a company’s underwriting standards, is considered an average risk and insurable at standard rates.

High-risk or low-risk candidates may qualify for increased or discounted rates based on their deviation from the standard.

62
Q

Substandard Risk (Impaired Risk)

A

Describes an applicant whose physical condition does not meet the usual minimum standards.

If the substandard classification is due to adverse health, the application may be declined or written with a “rated-up” premium.

An applicant may be in excellent health but considered substandard due to their activities, hobbies, or avocations (i.e., scuba diving, skydiving, etc.).

63
Q

Temporary Insurance Agreement

A

See “Binding Receipt”

64
Q

Trial Application

A

An application submitted without the initial premium.

There is no offer because, by itself, the application is not sufficient consideration to form a contract; the other half, the premium, is missing.

In effect, the consumer is using the application to solicit an offer from the insurer.

65
Q

Underwriter

A

A person who identifies, examines, and classifies the degree of risk represented by a proposed insured to determine whether or not coverage should be provided and, if so, at what rate.

An underwriter applies the insurers standards as their decision-maker in the company’s underwriting process.

66
Q

Underwriting

A

The process of selecting and rating risks.

Underwriters analyze information obtained from various sources pertaining to an applicant for insurance and then determine whether the carrier should decline the application, issue an insurance policy as requested, or offer either a modified policy with restrictions or a contract with a higher required premium.

67
Q

Unearned Premium

A

A pro-rated amount of paid-in-advance premiums that have not been “earned” by the insurer.

It is a pro-rated amount of paid-in-advance premiums allocated to the portion of the policy term that has yet to elapse.

For example:
Let us suppose a policy term is 12 months, and the first three months have elapsed. Seventy-five percent of that policy term is in the future.
That75% of risk has yet to be covered, and that percent of the premium has yet to be earned.
If the premium were$1000 the $750 would be unearned.

Unearned premiums appear as the liability on an insurance company’s balance sheet because the insurer must re-pay any unearned premiums if it cancels an insurance policy.

68
Q

Uninsurable

A

A loss exposure is uninsurable when the risk of covering it is so great that an insurance carrier cannot do so profitably.

The applicant is considered uninsurable, and the insurance company will reject the application.

An insurer may also reject an application when the level of risk is unknown or cannot be reasonably estimated.

69
Q

USA Patriot Act

A

This is anti-terrorism legislation that also addressed money laundering

70
Q

Warranties

A

Most State laws specify that the applicants statements on the application are considered representations and not warranties.

A warranty must be absolutely and literally true.

Breaching a warranty may be sufficient to void the policy regardless of whether the warranty is material or the breach had contributed to the loss.