Health Assessments Module 3 Flashcards

1
Q

In what client situations would a comprehensive assessment be performed?

A

On initial evaluation by the home health nurse

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2
Q

What type of assessment is complaints of chest pain?

A

Focused

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3
Q

What type of assessment is “the patient is found lying on the floor and is unresponsive”?

A

emergency

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4
Q

What type of assessment is “on arrival in the surgery holding area of the operating room”?

A

10 min or focused

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5
Q

The nurse would place information about the client’s concern that his illness is threatening his job security in which functional health pattern?

A

Role-relationship

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6
Q

Which situation would require the nurse to obtain a focused assessment?

A

A previously identified problem needs reassessment

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7
Q

What type of assessment can the nurse perform when a client denies a current health problem?

A

10 minute

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8
Q

What type of assessment can the nurse perform when a baseline health maintenance examination is required?

A

comprehensive

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9
Q

What type of assessment can the nurse perform when an emergency problem is identified during physical examination?

A

emergency

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10
Q

What action should the nurse take to increase the likelihood of obtaining quality data when doing a complete physical examination?

A

Provide adequate lighting and a comfortably warm room for the interview and physical examination

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11
Q

The nurse selects what equipment to test for a patellar reflex?

A

percussion hammer

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12
Q

What do you use a stethoscope for?

A

ausculatation

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13
Q

To perform the proper evaluation of client’s gait, the nurse should place the client in which position?

A

Standing

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14
Q

To administer a suppository or enema, what position should you place the patient in?

A

Sim’s

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15
Q

Which of the following would palpation as an assessment technique be used by the nurse to obtain data? SATA

A. Pitting edema
B. Cyanosis of the lips
C. Hyperactive peristalsis
D. Cool, clammy skin
E. Normal blood flow to the arteries
A

A
D
E

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16
Q

The nurse prepares to conduct a general survey on an adult client. Which assessment is performed first while the nurse initiates the nurse-client relationship?

A

Appearance and behavior

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17
Q

The nurse selects which of the following as the highest priority diagnosis for a 70 y/o male client with an absence of hair on the lower left leg?

A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
B. Risk for infection
C. Deficient fluid volume
D. Impaired peripheral tissue perfusion

A

D b/c absence of hair is arterial not venous

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18
Q

An inspection of the lower extremities is being performed. The presence of venous return impairment is suspected if the nurse observes what?

A. Cooler skin temperatures
B. Diminished pulses
C. Brown pigmentation
D. Numbness and tingling sensation

A

C - Brown pigmentation

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19
Q

Cooler skin temperature is an indication of what?

A

Pallor

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20
Q

Diminished pulses are an indication of what?

A

Pulselessness

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21
Q

Numbness and tingling sensation is an indication of what?

A

Paresthesia

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22
Q

What should the nurse use when palpating an edematous area on a client?

A. Dorsal aspect of the hand
B. Palmar surface of the hand
C. Pads of the fingers
D. Fingertips

A

C - Pads of the fingers

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23
Q

The nurse uses the dorsal aspect of the hand to check for _____________________.

A

temperature

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24
Q

The nurse uses the palmar surface of the hand to check for ____________________.

A

vibration in the lungs; called tactile fremitus

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25
Q

The nurse pinches the skin under the clavicle or on the forearm to check for ___________.

A

skin turgor

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26
Q

In assessing for jaundice, what area should the nurse specifically look on a client with dark skin?

A. Dorsal surface of the hands
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Ear lobe
D. Sclera

A

D - Sclera (the white outer layer of the eyeball)

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27
Q

In assessing for cyanosis, what area should the nurse specifically look on a client with dark skin?

A

Buccal mucosa

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28
Q

When the client is unable to detect a wisp of cotton touching his left cheek, the nurse interprets the finding as an abnormality of which cranial nerve?

A

V - Trigeminal

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29
Q

Which of the following symptoms would occur in a client with a retinal detachment?

A

Flashing lights and floaters

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30
Q

When the client has ptosis, the nurse interprets the finding as an abnormality of which cranial nerve?

A

III

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31
Q

What is the disease of the eye when you have loss of central vision?

A

macular degeneration

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32
Q

What is the disease of the eye when you have blurred vision?

A

cataracts

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33
Q

Which situation makes the nurse suspect the client has macular degeneration?

A. An automobile accident did not see the car in the next lane
B. The cake tasted funny because the client could not read the recipe
C. The client has been wearing mismatched clothes and socks
D. The client ran a stoplight and hit a pedestrian walking in the crosswalk

A

D

A is glaucoma
B cataracts
C color blindness

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34
Q

The client’s vision is tested with a Snellen’s chart. The results of the tests are documented as 20/60. The nurses interprets this as:

A

The client can read only at a distance of 20 ft what a client with a normal vision can read at 60 ft

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35
Q

CN III (Oculomotor) would be assessed using which method?

A

Check pupil for reaction to light and accommodation

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36
Q

CN II (Optic) would be assessed using which methods?

A

Inspection with an ophthalmoscope

Testing vision with Snellen chart

Comparing the patient visual fields with nurse’s own

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37
Q

In order to examine the ocular mobility of a client who recently experienced a stroke, the nurse should examine which of the following cranial nerves? SATA

A. CN II (Optic)
B. CN III (Oculomotor)
C. CN IV (Trochlear)
D. CN V (Trigeminal)
E. CN VI (Abducens)
A

B
C
E

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38
Q

The nurse is assessing a client who has a “pinpoint” pupil size and the pupils do not constrict when the light is shown on the eye. Which should the nurse document?

A. Pupillary response poor
B. Pupils one (1 mm) equal and non-reactive to light
C. Pupils two (2 mm) to three (3 mm) and non-constrictive to light
D. Pupils are barely open and don’t constrict to light

A

B

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39
Q

The student nurse asks the nurse, “Which type of hearing loss involves damage to the cochlea?”

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

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40
Q

Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of how the nurse will perform the Romberg test?

A. “You want to bend over so you can inspect my spine for curvature”
B. “I need to touch my toes without bending my knees if possible.”
C. “I am going to walk five to six steps on my toes only, then on my heels only.”
D. “You want me to stand with my feet together and eyes closed for a short time.”

A

D

Rationale:
A. This is checking for scoliosis
B. Checking for ROM
C. Test for balance or coordination

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41
Q

The nurse is assessing the client’s cranial nerves. Which assessment data indicate cranial nerve I is intact?

A. The client can identify cold and hot on the face
B. The client does not have any tongue tremor
C. The client has not ptosis of the eyelids
D. The client is able to identify a peppermint smell

A

D

Rationale:
A. CN V
B. CN XII
C. CN III

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42
Q

The nurse is assessing the client’s cranial nerves. Which assessment data indicate cranial nerve I is intact?

A. The client can identify cold and hot on the face
B. The client does not have any tongue tremor
C. The client has not ptosis of the eyelids
D. The client is able to identify a peppermint smell

A

D

Rationale:
A. CN V
B. CN XII
C. CN III

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43
Q

Which assessment technique should the nurse use to assess the client’s facial nerve?

A. Have the client identify different smells
B. Have the client discriminate between sugar and salt
C. Have the client read the Snellen chart
D. Have the client say “ah” to assess the rise of the uvula

A

B

Rationale:
A. CN I
C. CN II
D. CN IX-X

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44
Q

During examination of a client’s neck with the bell of the stethoscope, the nurse identifies a carotid bruit. When are bruits audible in the neck?

A

When the carotid artery is partially occluded

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45
Q

A client with a GCS of 3 is most likely to exhibit what behavior?

A

No response to verbal or pain stimuli

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46
Q

A student nurse is working with a client who has asthma. The primary nurse tells the student that wheezes can be heard on auscultation. What should the student expect to hear?

A

High-pitched whistling sounds

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47
Q

What type of normal breath sounds are found at the site of the trachea?

A

Tubular/Bronchial

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48
Q

Where will the nurse hear bronchovesicular sounds?

A

Bronchioles

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49
Q

Where will the nurse hear vesicular sounds?

A

Alveoli

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50
Q

What sounds do crackles make and what area will you hear them?

A

Coarse crackles and bubbling

Hear them in the vesicular area

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51
Q

What does friction rub sound like when auscultating the lungs?

A

Dry, grating noises

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52
Q

What does rhonchi sound like?

A

Loud, low-pitched rumbling

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53
Q

The nurse is auscultating the client’s lungs and notes that bronchovesicular sounds as:

A

medium-pitched, hollow sounds with inspiration equaling expiration

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54
Q

The nurse is auscultating the client’s lungs and notes that bronchial sounds as:

A

loud, high-pitched, hollow sounds with expiration longer than inspiration

sounds created by air moving through large upper airways

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55
Q

The nurse is auscultating the client’s lungs and notes that vesicular sounds as:

A

soft, breezy, low-pitched sounds with longer inspiration

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56
Q

While auscultating the client’s lungs, the nurse hears loud, bubbly sounds during inspiration that did not disappear after the client coughed. Which finding should the nurse document from the lung assessment?

A. Rhonchi
B. Crackles
C. Wheeze
D. Friction Rub

A

B

Rationale:
Crackles don’t disappear with coughing

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57
Q

The nurse is observing the student nurse perform respiratory assessment on a client. Which action by the student nurse requires the nurse to intervene?

A. The student stands at a midline position behind the client observing for position of the spine and scapula
B. The student palpates the thoracic muscles for masses
C. The student places the bell of the stethoscope on the anterior wall to auscultate for breath sounds
D. The student places the palm of the hand over the intercostal spaces and asks the client to say “99”.

A

C

Rationale:
You use the diaphragm when you auscultate for breath sounds.

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58
Q

How does the nurses assess the client’s chest expansion?

A

Place the thumbs at the midline of the lower chest

Rationale:
Respiratory excursion

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59
Q

A nurse is assessing a client’s bilateral pulses for symmetry. Which pulse site should NOT be assessed on both sides of the body at the same time?

A

Carotid

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60
Q

A nurse is preparing to auscultate a client’s chest. In which area should the nurse listen to evaluate the client’s mitral valve?

A

Fifth left intercostal space along the midclavicular line

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61
Q

A nurse is preparing to auscultate a client’s chest. In which area should the nurse listen to evaluate the client’s aortic valve?

A

Second right intercostal space

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62
Q

A nurse is preparing to auscultate a client’s chest. In which area should the nurse listen to evaluate the client’s Erb’s Point?

A

Third left intercostal space

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63
Q

The student nurse is seeking assistance in hearing the client’s abnormal heart sounds. What should the nurse tell the student to do for a more effective assessment?

A

Use the bell of the stethoscope with the client leaning forward or on the left side

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64
Q

A nurse must assess for the presence of bowel sounds. Which technique should the nurse employ to obtain accurate results when auscultating the client’s abdomen?

A. Listen for several minutes in each quadrant of the abdomen
B. Place a warmed stethoscope on the surface of the abdomen
C. Perform auscultation before palpation of the abdomen.
D. Start at the left lower quadrant of the abdomen.

A

C

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65
Q

When grading muscle strength, the nurse records a score of 3/5, which indicates:

A

Active movement against gravity, but against no resistance

Full range of motion with gravity is Fair

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66
Q

When do you check for lumps on the breasts?

A

After menstruation

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67
Q

When do you do a testicular check?

A

After shower

Rationale:
It’s warm so scrotal sac is relaxed

68
Q

The nurse is teaching a client how to perform a testicular self-examination. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching:

A. “I’ll recognize abnormal lumps because they are very painful”
B. “I’ll start performing testicular self-examination monthly after I turn 15”
C. “I’ll perform the self-examination in front of a mirror”
D. “I’ll gently roll the testicle between my fingers”

A

A

69
Q

What are the 4 types of assessment?

A

10 minute

Focused

Comprehensive

Emergency

70
Q

What is a 10 minute assessment?

A

A BRIEF assessment that is concise, timely and realistic. A head-to-toe assessment that enables the nurse to notice abnormalities quickly.

71
Q

What is a focused assessment?

A

An in-depth assessment about an actual or potential problem focusing on 1 or more body systems, classifying the problem as initial or ongoing.

AKA system-specific assessment

72
Q

What is a comprehensive assessment?

A

A DETAILED assessment that provides holistic information.

Provides overall information about body systems and functional abilities; emotional status; cultural and spiritual beliefs; psychosocial situation; family and community dynamics

This is typically done during admission, or initial assessment.

73
Q

What is an emergency assessment?

A

Focused on ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)

Performed mostly in the acute setting (ED, ICU, etc.)

74
Q

A patient presents to the ED with abdominal pain. Which assessment will the nurse perform first? Which one second?

A. Comprehensive Assessment using Gordon’s Fxnal Health Pattern
B. 10 minute assessment
C. Focused assessment
D. Emergency

A

C, followed by A

75
Q

Describe the best patient environment for an assessment.

A

Private and adequate covering on the patient

Room temp should be comfortable

Provide warm blankets if needed

76
Q

What should the nurse do to prepare for a comprehensive assessment?

A

Soundproof the room and turn on the lights if needed

Use an easy to use exam table

Bring the correct equipment: stethoscope, snellen chart, ophthalmoscope, tuning fork, pen light, gloves

Put the patient in the correct position

77
Q

What do we use the standing position to assess?

A

posture, balance, gait

78
Q

What do we use the sitting position to assess?

A

vital signs

the head, neck, anterior and posterior thorax, lungs, heart, breasts, and upper extremities

79
Q

Describe the supine position. What assessments does the nurse perform while the patient is in this position?

A

The pt lies flat on the back with legs extended and knees slightly flexed.

Asses VS, the head, neck, anterior thorax, lungs, heart, breasts, abdomen, extremities, and peripheral pulses.

80
Q

Describe the lithotomy position. What assessments are performed with the patient in this position?

A

The patient is in the dorsal recumbent position with the buttocks at the edge of the examining table and the heels in stirrups.

Assess female genitalia and rectum

81
Q

Describe the knee-chest position. What assessments are performed with the patient in this position?

A

The patient kneels, with the body at a 90-degree angle with hips, back straight, and arms above the head.

Assess the anus and rectum

82
Q

Describe the dorsal recumbent position. What assessments are performed with the patient in this position?

A

The patient lies on the back with legs separated, knees flexed, and soles of the feet on the bed.

Assess the head, neck, anterior thorax, lungs, heart, breasts, extremities, and peripheral pulses.

Do not use for abdominal assessment b/c it causes contraction of the abdominal muscles

83
Q

Describe the sims position. What assessments are performed with the patient in this position?

A

The patient lies on either side with the lower arm below the body and the upper arm flexed at the shoulder and elbow. Both knees are flexed, with the upper leg more acutely flexed.

Assess rectum and vagina

84
Q

Describe the prone position. What assessments are performed with the patient in this position?

A

The patient lies flat on the abdomen with the head turned to one side.

Assess the hip joint and the posterior thorax

85
Q

What are the degrees for each of the following?

High Fowler’s

Fowler’s

Semi Fowler’s

Low Fowlers

A

80-90

45-60

30-45

15-30

86
Q

Describe the Trendelenburg Position

A

Lower extremities higher than the head

87
Q

Describe the Reverse Position

A

Lower extremities lower than the head

88
Q

Describe the Modified Position

A

Lower extremities and head are above the heart

89
Q

During the inspection part of assessment, what does the nurse do?

A

Use the senses of sight, hearing, and smell in gathering data about the patient.

Observe for Color, shape, size, position, symmetry, sounds, odor, abnormalities

90
Q

During the palpation part of assessment, what does the nurse do?

A

Use sense of touch

Use the sensitive parts of the hand to detect different characteristics

91
Q

When do we use the dorsal surface of the hand?

A

Palpate for temperature, moisture

92
Q

When do we use the palm of the hand?

A

Palpate for vibration

93
Q

When do we use the thumb?

A

Palpate for pitting edema

94
Q

When do we use the finger pads and palmar surface?

A

massess, size, pulses, texture, tenderness, and pain

95
Q

When do we use the fingertips in a pinching motion?

A

Assess skin turgor on the forearm, sternum, or under the clavicle (for the elderly)

96
Q

What is percussion and what are the types of percussion?

A

Sound is produced by the fingertip tapping through body tissues. Use the sense of hearing to differentiate different sounds.

Direct: Tap using dominant hand and with 2 fingers

Indirect: Tap the other hand into the body

97
Q

Which organ makes a resonant sound when percussed?

A

Lung

98
Q

Which body part makes a flat sound when percussed?

A

Scapula

99
Q

Which organ makes a dull sound when percussed?

A

Liver

100
Q

Which organ makes a tympanic sound when percussed?

A

Stomach

101
Q

What is auscultation and what are the types?

A

Use sense of hearing, by listening to sounds produced within the body, aided or unaided

Direct: Ex. Ear to chest
Indirect: Use a stethoscope

102
Q

What does the nurse look for during the general survey of the patient?

A

General Appearance and Behavior

VS

Ht and Wt

103
Q

Erythema is a local sign of _____________.

A

inflammation

104
Q

What is pallor and what does it indicate in the patient?

A

Unusual paleness easily observed in the face, buccal mucosa, conjuctivae, and nail beds

105
Q

For a dark individual, what color does the skin change to if it is showing signs of pallor?

A

yellowish brown
or
ashen gray

Means that there is less O2 in the blood = hypoxemia

106
Q

What is cyanosis and what does it indicate in the patient?

A

Bluish discoloration observed in the lips, nail beds, conjunctivae, palms, soles of the foot

Means that there is increased CO2 in the blood

107
Q

What is vitiligo?

A

Loss of pigmentation

108
Q

What is jaundice?

A

Yellowish tinge

109
Q

What is erythema?

A

redness due to inflammation

110
Q

What is hyperhidrosis?

A

excessive perspiration

111
Q

What is bromhidrosis?

A

foul-smelling perspiration

112
Q

How would the nurse assess a pressure ulcer and what would she observe in the case of a stage 1 pressure ulcer?

A

Put pressure on the redness, it should turn white, or blanch

Stage 1 means it doesn’t turn white, or has no blanching

113
Q

What will the nurse observe in the case of a hematoma?

A

A bruise with a bump

114
Q

What will the nurse observe in the case of a ecchymosis?

A

Bruise w/out a bump

115
Q

What will the nurse observe in the case of purpura?

A

Small breaks in blood vessels/capillaries

116
Q

What will the nurse observe in the case of petechiae?

A

Pin-prink size breaks in blood vessels/capillaries

117
Q

What are the 5 Ps of Peripheral Artery Disease

A
Pallor
Pulselessness
Paresthesia
Pain
Poor vascular circulation
118
Q

The nurses is doing an assessment of a wound on the patient’s foot and notices that the would is round with smooth edges. The patient also has no leg hair and an absent pulse in the extremities. The nurse would correctly assume that the patient has which vascular disease?

A

Peripheral Artery Disease

119
Q

The patient presents to the ED with a would on his shin that has irregular edges and is wet and weeping. The nurse assesses the patient and finds that his skin appears to be brown on his hands and feet and his pain improves when she lifts his foot above his heart. The nurse would correctly assume that the patient has which vascular disease?

A

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

120
Q

When assessing for skin turgor, what qualifies as good, poor, and tenting?

A

Good - Instant Recoil
Poor - 2 sec
Tenting - >2sec

121
Q

What is edema?

A

Fluid buildup in the tissues, direct trauma or venous return impairment

122
Q

What causes edema?

A

Trauma, CHF, Glomerulus changes, Venus Return Impairment

123
Q

How can edema lead to kidney failure?

A

If the edema is due to glomerulus changes, this causes albumin to build up in the kidney, which destroys the kidney tissues

124
Q

What are the degrees of edema and their corresponding depths?

A

1+ 2mm
2+ 4mm
3+ 6mm
4+ 8mm

125
Q

What causes primary lesions and what types are there?

A

Primary lesions are brought about by disease processes.

Macule
Papule
Pustule
Vesicle
Nodule
Tumor
Wheal
126
Q

What causes secondary lesions and what types are there?

A

Secondary lesions are brought about by the primary lesions.

Scar
Keloid
Crust
Fissure
Erosion
Excoriation
127
Q

What are the ABCs of Melanoma?

A
Asymmetry
Border
Color (black to bluish brown)
Diameter (greater than size of a pencil eraser)
Evolution (change in size, shape, color)
128
Q

What are the complete steps to skin assessment?

A

ELVis is CoMing To Tucson Tonight

Edema
Lesion
Vascularity
Color
Moisture
Temperature
Turgor
Texture
129
Q

When assessing capillary refill, how do we document it?

A

<3 sec Brisk

>3 sec Sluggish

130
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Obstruction in outflow of cerebral spinal fluid that causes a baby to have a very large skull.

131
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

Too much growth hormone that causes irregularity in facial features and overgrowth of the bones

132
Q

What is alopecia?

A

baldness

133
Q

Which cranial nerve is #5 and is it motor, sensory or both?

A

Trigeminal

Both

134
Q

When the nurse asks the patient to clench her teeth and relax; open her mouth and keep it open against resistance, which cranial nerve is being assessed?

A

CN V - Trigeminal (Motor part)

135
Q

When the nurse asks the patient to point out when she feels a cotton ball touch her face, which cranial nerve is being assessed?

A

CN V - Trigeminal (Sensory)

136
Q

Which cranial nerve is VII and it is motor, sensory, or both?

A

Facial

Both

137
Q

When the nurse asks the patient to smile, frown, show his teeth, puff out checks, raise eyebrows, and resist the force of keeping eyes closed, which cranial nerve is being assessed?

A

CN VII - Facial (Motor)

138
Q

When the nurse asks the patient to identify if something is salty or sweet on the front of the tongue, which cranial nerve is being assessed?

A

CN VII - Facial (Sensory)

139
Q

What vision change happens as a result of macular degeneration?

A

Loss of central vision

140
Q

What vision change happens as a result of glaucoma?

A

Loss of peripheral vision

141
Q

What vision change happens as a result of cataracts?

A

Blurry vision

142
Q

What vision change happens as a result of retinal detachment?

A

Floaters in the eyes or a curtain seems to cover vision

143
Q

What is myopia?

A

Nearsightedness

144
Q

What is astigmatism?

A

The cornea is shaped like a football

145
Q

Which cranial nerve is II and it is motor, sensory, or both?

A

Optic

Sensory

146
Q

When assessing a patient with a Snellen Chart, what does 20/60 mean?

A

This means that the patient, standing 20 feet from the chart, sees what the person with normal vision sees at 60 feet from the chart.

147
Q

What does PERRLA stand for?

A

Pupils are Equally Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation

148
Q

Which cranial nerve is III and is it motor, sensory, or both?

A

Oculomotor

Motor

149
Q

What is ptosis?

A

Abnormal drooping of the eyelid over the pupil

150
Q

What is anisocorla?

A

pupils unequal in size

151
Q

What 3 words do we use to describe the reaction of the pupil?

A

Brisk
Sluggish
Non-reactive

152
Q

When you apply the tuning fork to the mastoid process, the sound goes directly to the ____________________.

A

inner ear

153
Q

When the nurse is conducting the Weber’s Test, will the patient hear the sound on both sides or only one side at a time?

A

Should be heard on both sides at the same time

154
Q

Which cranial nerve is VIII and it is motor, sensory, or both?

A

Auditory

Both - Hearing and Balance

155
Q

Which cranial nerve is I?

A

Olfactory

156
Q

Which cranial nerves are IX and X? Are they sensory, motor, or both?

A

IX - Glossopharyngeal
X - Vagus

Both

157
Q

The longest and only cranial nerve that wanders from the brain stem to the organs of the neck, thorax, and abdomen is ____________.

A

CN X, the Vagus Nerve

158
Q

Which cranial nerve is XIII and is it sensory, motor, or both?

A

Hypoglossal

Motor

159
Q

Which cranial nerve is XI?

A

Spinal Accessory

160
Q

Normally lymph nodes are not palpable. Pay close attention to lymph nodes that are __________, ________, ___________ or ________________.

A

large
fixed
inflamed
tender

161
Q

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale and what are the highest and lowest scores possible?

A

The GCS is a measure of the patient’s level of consciousness

3-15 is possible, where anything <8 is comatose

162
Q

What is aphasia?

A

Impairment of language ability

163
Q

What is receptive aphasia? How do we assess for it?

A

not able to understand written or verbal speech

give the patient a piece of paper and say, “take this in your right hand, fold it in half and put it on the floor”; if they can’t understand, they have receptive aphasia

164
Q

What is expressive aphasia? How do we assess for it?

A

understands written or verbal speech but not able to speak

165
Q

Which area of the brain is affected if receptive aphasia? expressive?

A

Receptive - Wernicke’s area

Expressive - Broca’s area

These are in the frontal and temporal lobes

166
Q

Which part of the brain controls intellectual function? How do we assess it?

A

Frontal lobe

Ask the pt to count backward by seven, beginning with 100

167
Q

What is proprioception? When is assessing it normally used?

A

considered the 6th sense, this is the ability to sense position, location, orientation, movement of the body as well as its parts and equilibrium

Used by law enforcement to test drunks