health assessment test 4 Flashcards
0
Q
Agraphia
A
Loss of ability to express thoughts in writing
1
Q
Agnosia
A
Loss of ability to recognize importance of sensory impressions
2
Q
Amnesia
A
Loss of memory
3
Q
Analgesia
A
Loss of pain sensation
4
Q
Aphasia
A
Loss of power of expression by speech, writing, or signs, or loss of comprehension of spoken or written language
5
Q
Apraxia
A
Loss of ability to perform purposeful movements in the absence of sensory or motor damage (inability to use objects correctly)
7
Q
Ataxia
A
Inability to perform coordinated movements
8
Q
Athetosis
A
bizarre, slow, twisting, writhing movement, resembling a snake or worm
9
Q
Chorea
A
sudden, rapid, jerky, purposeless movement involving limbs, trunk or face
10
Q
Clonus
A
rapidly alternating involuntary contraction and relaxation of a muscle in response to a sudden stretch
11
Q
Coma
A
state of profound unconsciousness from which person cannot be aroused
12
Q
Decerebrate rigidity
A
arms stiffly extended, adducted, internally rotated; legs stiffly extended, plantar flexed
13
Q
Decorticate rigidity
A
arms adducted and flexed, wrists and fingers flexed; legs extended, internally rotated, plantar flexed
14
Q
Dysarthria
A
imperfect articulation of speech due to problems of muscular control resulting from central or peripheral nervous system damage
15
Q
Dysphasia
A
impairment in speech consisting of lack of coordination and inability to arrange words in their proper order
16
Q
Extinction
A
disappearance of conditioned response
17
Q
Fasciculation
A
rapid continuous twitching of resting muscle without movement of limb
18
Q
Flaccidity
A
loss of muscle tone, limp
19
Q
Graphesthesia
A
ability to “read” a number by having it traced on the skin
20
Q
Hemiplegia
A
loss of motor power (paralysis) on one side of the body, usually caused by a stroke; paralysis occurs on the side opposite the lesion
21
Q
Lower motor neuron
A
motor neuron in the peripheral nervous system with its nerve fiber extending out to the muscle and only its cell body in the central nervous system
22
Q
Myoclonus
A
rapid sudden jerk of a muscle
23
Q
Nuchal rigidity
A
stiffness in cervical neck area
24
Q
Nystagmus
A
back-and-forth oscillation of the eyes
25
Opisthotonos
prolonged arching of back, with head and heels bent backward, and meningeal irritation
26
Paralysis
decreased or loss of motor function due to problem with motor nerve or muscle fibers
27
Paraplegia
impairment or loss of motor and/or sensory function in the lower half of the body
28
Paresthesia
abnormal sensation (i.e., burning, numbness, tingling, prickling, crawling skin sensation)
29
Point localization
ability of the person to discriminate exactly where on the body the skin has been touched
30
Proprioception
sensory information concerning body movements and position of the body in space
31
Spasticity
continuous resistance to stretching by a muscle due to abnormally increased tension, with increased deep tendon reflexes
32
Stereognosis
ability to recognize objects by feeling their forms, sizes, and weights while the eyes are closed
33
Tic
repetitive twitching of a muscle group at inappropriate times (e.g., wink, grimace)
34
Tremor
involuntary contraction of opposing muscle groups resulting in rhythmic movement of one or more joints
35
Two-point discrimination
ability to distinguish the separation of two simultaneous pinpricks on the skin
36
Upper motor neuron
nerve located entirely within the central nervous system
37
Abduction
moving a body part away from an axis or the median line
38
Adduction
moving a body part toward the center or toward the median line
39
Ankylosis
immobility, consolidation, and fixation of a joint because of disease, injury, or surgery; most often due to chronic rheumatoid arthritis
40
Ataxia
inability to perform coordinated movements
41
Bursa
enclosed sac filled with viscous fluid located in joint areas of potential friction
42
Circumduction
moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder
43
Crepitation
dry crackling sound or sensation due to grating of the ends of damaged bone
44
Dorsal
directed toward or located on the surface
45
Dupuytren contracture
flexion contracture of the fingers due to chronic hyperplasia of the palmar fascia
46
Eversion
moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle
47
Extension
straightening a limb at a joint
48
flexion
bending a limb at a joint
49
ganglion
round, cystic, nontender nodule overlying a tendon sheath or joint capsule, usually on dorsum of wrist
50
Hallux valgus
lateral or outward deviation of the great toe
51
Inversion
moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle
52
Kyphosis
outward or CONVEX curvature of the thoracic spine; hunchback
53
Ligament
fibrous band running directly from one bone to another bone that strengthens the joint
54
Lordosis
inward or concave curvature of the lumbar spine
55
Nucleus pulposus
center of the intervertebral disk
56
Olecranon process
bony projection of the ulna at the elbow
57
Patella
kneecap
58
Plantar
surface of the sole of the foot
59
Pronation
turning the forearm so that the palm is down
60
Protraction
moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground
61
Range of motion (ROM)
extent of movement of a joint
62
Retraction
moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground
63
Rheumatoid arthritis
chronic systemic inflammatory disease of joints and surrounding connective tissue
64
Sciatica
nerve pain along the course of the sciatic nerve that travels down from the back or thigh through the leg and into the foot
65
Scoliosis
S-shaped curvature of the thoracic spine
66
Supination
turning the forearm so that the palm is up
67
Talipes equinovarus
(clubfoot) congenital deformity of the foot in which it is plantar flexed and inverted
68
Tendon
strong fibrous cord that attaches a skeletal muscle to a bone
69
Torticollis
(wryneck) contraction of the cervical neck muscles, producing torsion of the neck
70
List the major function(s) of the cerebral cortex - frontal lobe
personality, behavior, emotions, intellect
71
List the major function(s) of the cerebral cortex - parietal lobe
sensation
72
List the major function(s) of the cerebral cortex - temporal lobe
hearing; taste; smell
73
List the major function(s) of the cerebral cortex - Wernicke's area
language comprehension
74
List the major function(s) of the cerebral cortex - Broca's area
motor speech
75
List the major function(s) of the basil ganglia
initiate and coordinate movement and control automatic associated movements of the body
76
List the major function(s) of the thalamus
main relay station where sensory pathways form synapses
77
List the major function(s) of the hypothalamus
regulates temperature, appetite, sex drive, heart rate, blood pressure, sleep, pituitary glands and ANS activity
78
List the major function(s) of the cerebellum
motor coordination, equilibrium, muscle tone
79
List the major function(s) of the midbrain
merges into thalamus, hypothalamus. many motor neurons and tracts
80
List the major function(s) of the pons
enlarged area containing ascending and descending fiber tracts
81
List the major function(s) of the medulla
contains ascending and descending fiber tracts that control respiration, heart rate, gastrointestinal function. Nuclei for CN 8-12.
82
List the major function(s) of the spinal cord
contains ascending and descending fiber tracts that mediate reflexes
83
List the primary sensations mediated by the 2 major sensory pathways of the CNS.
Spinothalamic tract: mediates pain, temperature, and crude or light touch (not precisely localized). ( lateral spinothalamic tract = pain, temperature) (anterior spinothalamic tract = crude touch)
Posterior dorsal columns = sensation of position, vibration and fine, localized touch (identify objects by touch)
84
Describe 3 major motor pathways in the CNS including the type of movements mediated by each.
Corticospinal/pyramidal tract = "higher" motor system for purposeful and skilled movements (writing)
Extrapyramidal tract = "lower" or primitive movements
Cerebellar system = coordinates movements, maintains equilibrium and helps maintain posture
85
Differentiate an upper motor neuron from a lower motor neuron.
Upper = located in CNS and are the descending fibers that influence/modify the lower motor neurons. convey impulses from the cerebral cortex to the lower.
Lower = located in the PNS cell body in gray matter of spinal cord, nerve fiber extends to directly connect to the muscles (the final common pathway).
86
List the 5 components of a deep tendon reflex arc.
1) an intact sensory nerve (afferent)
2) a functional synapse in the cord
3) an intact motor nerve fiber
4) the neuromuscular junction
5) a competent muscle
87
List the major symptom areas to assess when collecting a health history for the neurologic system.
headaches, head injury, dizziness/vertigo, seizures, tremors, weakness, incoordination, numbness/tingling, difficulty swallowing, difficulty speaking, significant past history, and environmental/occupational hazards.
88
List the method of testing for each of the 12 cranial nerves.
- I olfactory= identify familiar odor
- II optic= visual acuity, visual fields (confrontation), shine light in eye (light reflex test), direct inspection.
- III oculomotor= inspection, extraocular muscle movement, shine light in eye.
- IV trochlear= extraocular muscle movement (move eyes down or out ward)
- V trigeminal= superficial touch/sensory function (absent touch, pain, paresthesias), corneal reflex, clench teeth.
- VI Abducens= extraocular muscle movement to right and left sides
- VII Facial= wrinkle forehead, close eyes tightly, smile, puff cheeks identify tastes
- VIII acoustic= hearing acuity (whisper test)
- IX glossopharyngeal= gag reflex
- X Vagus= phonates "ahh", gag reflex, note coice quality, and swallowing
- XI Spinal accessory= turn head, shrug shoulders against resistance
- XII Hypoglossal= protrude tongue wiggle tongue from side to side
89
List and describe 3 tests of cerebellar function.
Gait: observe as the person walks 10 to 20 feet, turns, and returns to starting point.
Romberg test: ask the person to stand up with feet together and arms at the sides. Once standing, ask the person to close their eyes and hold.
Rapid Alternating Movements: pat knees with both hands, lift up, turn hands over, pat with back side of hands.
90
Describe the methods of testing the sensory system for pain, temperature, touch, vibration, and position.
```
Pain = poke with dull/sharp tongue blade
Temperature = tuning fork --> touch
Touch = light cotton ball
Vibration = tuning fork on bony prominences
Position = move extremities up/down with patient's eyes closed. Ask the patient to state the direction of movement.
```
91
Define the 4 point grading scale for deep tendon reflexes.
4+: very brisk, hyperactive with clonus. indicative of disease.
3+: brisker than average, may indicate disease, probably normal
2+: average, normal
1+: diminished, low normal, occurs only with reinforcement
0: no response
92
What vertebral levels would you assess with eliciting a biceps reflex?
C5-C6
93
What vertebral levels would you assess with eliciting a triceps reflex?
C7-C8
94
What vertebral levels would you assess with eliciting a brachioradialis reflex?
C5-C6
95
What vertebral levels would you assess with eliciting a quadriceps reflex?
L2-L4
96
What vertebral levels would you assess with eliciting a achilles reflex?
L5-S2
97
List the components of the neurologic recheck examination that are performed routinely on hospitalized persons being monitored for neurologic deficit.
1) level of consciousness
2) motor function
3) pupillary response
4) vitals
98
List the 3 areas of assessment on the Glasgow Coma Scale.
1) eye opening
2) verbal response
3) motor response
99
Describe the gait pattern of someone with spastic hemiparesis.
Arm is immobile against the body, with flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers and adduction of the shoulder, does not swing freely. The leg is stiff and circumducts with each step (drags in a semicircle).
100
Describe the gait pattern of someone with cerebellar ataxia.
Staggering, wide-based gait; difficulty with turns; uncoordinated movement with positive Romberg sign.
101
Describe Parkinsonian abnormal gait pattern.
Posture is stooped; trunk is pitched forward; elbows, hips, and knees are flexed. Steps are short and shuffling. Hesitation to begin walking, and difficult to stop suddenly. The person holds the body rigid. Walks and turns body as one fixed unit. Difficulty with any change in direction.
102
Describe scissors abnormal gait pattern.
Knees cross or are in contact, like holding an orange between the thighs. The person uses short steps, and walking requires effort.
103
Describe steppage abnormal gait pattern.
Slapping quality - looks as if walking up stairs and finds no stair there. Lifts knee and foot high and slaps it down hard and flat to compensate for footdrop.
104
Describe waddling abnormal gait pattern.
Weak hip muscles - when the person takes a step, the opposite hip drops, which allows compensatory lateral movement of pelvis. Often, the person also has marked lumbar lordosis and a protruding abdomen.
105
State the type of reflex response you would expect to see with an upper motor neuron lesion versus a lower motor neuron lesion.
Upper = hyperreflexia, ankle clonus, dimished or absent superficial abdominal reflexes, positive babinski sign
Lower = hyporeflexia, arereflexia. No babinski sign. No pathologic reflexes.
106
Describe the method of testing the type of reflexes that are also termed frontal release signs.
1) snout = gently percuss oral region.
2) sucking = touch oral region
3) grasp = touch palm with your finger
107
Differentiate synovial from nonsynovial joints.
In nonsynovial joints, the bones are united by fibrous tissue or cartilage and are immovable or are only slightly movable (vertebrae).
Synovial joints are freely movable because they have bones that are separated from each other and are enclosed in a joint cavity.
108
Describe the function of intervertebral disks.
The disks cushion the spine like a shock absorber and help it move.
109
List 4 signs that suggest acute inflammation in a joint.
swelling, heat, redness, pain.
110
Define dislocation.
displacement of a body part
111
Define subluxation
incomplete or partial dislocation of a bone in a joint
112
Define contracture
abnormal shortening of muscle tissue, rendering the muscle highly resistant to passive stretching.
113
Define ankylosis
immobility, consolidation and fixation of a joint because of disease, injury or surgery.
114
Differentiate testing of active range of motion versus passive range of motion.
Active ROM is done when a person can do the exercises himself.
Passive ROM exercises are done for a person by a helper.
115
State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the elbow.
Flexion: 150 degrees
Extension: 0 degrees
116
State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the wrist.
Flexion: 90
Extension: 0
117
State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the fingers (at metacapophalangeal joints).
Flexion: 90
Extension: 0
118
State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the hips.
Flexion (knee straight): 90
Flexion (knee flexed): 120
Hyperextension (while standing): 15
119
State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the knees.
Flexion: 130
Extend: 0
120
State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the ankles.
Plantar Flexion: 45
Dorsiflexion: 20
Extension: 0
121
Explain the method for measuring leg length.
measure between fixed points, from the anterior iliac spine to the medial malleolus, crossing the medial side of the knee.
122
Describe the Ortolani maneuver for checking an infant's hips.
checks for congenital dislocation. with the infant supine, flex the knees holding your thumbs on the inner mid-thighs and your fingers outside on the hips touching the greater trochanters. Adduct the legs until your thumbs touch. Then gently lift and abduct until their lateral aspects touch the table.
123
State 4 landmarks to note when checking an adolescent for scoliosis.
unequal shoulder elevation
unequal scapula
obvious curvature
unequal hip level
124
State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to walk.
shuffling pattern, swaying, arms out, broader support base
125
State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to climb up stairs.
holds hand rail, lead with stronger leg, pulls self
126
State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to walk down stairs.
holds hand rail, sometimes with both hands.
127
State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to pick up object from the floor.
bends at waist, holds furniture for support.
128
State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to rise up from sitting in a chair.
person uses arms to push off chair arms, upper trunk leans forward before body straightens
129
State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to rise up from lying in bed.
may roll to one side, push with arms to lift up torso, grab bedside table to increase leverage
130
Describe the signs and symptoms in carpal tunnel syndrome
pain, burning and numbness, positive phalen test, positive tinel sign, atrophy of thenar muscles
131
Name and describe two techniques of examination for the syndrome.
phalen test reproduces numbness and burning in person with CTS.
In CTS, percussion of the median nerve produces burning and tingling along its distribution, which is a positive tinel sign.
132
Describe swan neck deformity and boutonniere deformity.
Boutonniere deformity is extension of the metacarpophalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints, and flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint as a result of rupture of the central slip of the extensor hood. The knuckle looks as if it is being pushed through a button hole.
Swan neck deformity is flexion of the MP and DIP joints with extension of the PIP joint as a result of contracture of the intrinsic muscles or tearing of the volar plate. The flexion contracture resembles curve of a swan's neck.
133
Contrast bouchard's nodes with Heberden's nodes.
Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard, nontender nodules 2 to 3 mm or more. These osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal interphalangeal joints are called Heberden's nodes, and those of the proximal interphalangeal joints are called Bouchard's nodes.
134
Contrast syndactyly and polydactyly.
Syndactyly --> webbed fingers
| Polydactyly --> extra digits
135
The medical record indicates that a person has an injury to Broca's area. When meeting this person, you expect:
a. difficulty speaking
b. receptive aphasia
c. visual disturbances
d. emotional lability
a. difficulty speaking
136
The control of body temperature is located in:
a. Wernicke's area
b. the thalamus
c. the cerebellum
d. the hypothalamus
d. the hypothalamus
137
To test for stereognosis, you would:
a. have the person close his or her eyes, and then raise the person's arm and ask the person to describe its location
b. touch the person with a tuning fork
c. place a coin in the person's hand and ask him or her to identify it
d. touch the person with a cold object
C. place a coin in the person's hand and ask him or her to identify it
138
During the examination of an infant, use a cotton-tipped applicator to stimulate the anal sphincter. The absence of a response suggests a lesion of:
A. L2
B. T12
C. S2
D. C5
C. S2
139
During a neurologic examination, the tendon reflex fails to appear. Before striking the tendon again, the examiner might use the technique of:
a. two-point discrimination
b. reinforcement
c. vibration
d. graphesthesia
b. reinforcement
140
Cerebellar function is assessed by which of the following tests?
a. muscle size and strength
b. cranial nerve examination
c. coordination - hop on one foot
d. spinothalamic test
c. coordination - hop on one foot
141
To elicit a Babinski reflex:
a. gently tap the Achilles tendon
b. stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from heel to the ball
c. the expected response in healthy adults
d. withdrawal of the stimulated extremity from the stimulus
b. stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from heel to the ball
142
A positive Babinski sign is:
a. dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes
b. plantar flexion of the big toe with a fanning of all toes
c. the expected response in healthy adults
d. withdrawal of the stimulated extremity from the stimulus
a. dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes
143
The cremasteric response:
a. is positive when disease of the pyramidal tract is present
b. is positive when the ipsilateral testicle elevates upon stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh
c. is a reflex of the receptors in the muscles of the abdomen
d. is not a valid neurologic examination.
b. is positive when the ipsilateral testicle elevates upon stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh
144
To examine for the function of the trigeminal nerve in an infant, you would:
a. startle the baby
b. hold an object within the child's line of vision
c. pinch the nose of the child
d. offer the baby a bottle
d. offer the baby a bottle
145
Senile tremors may resemble Parkinsonianism, except that senile tremors do not include:
a. nodding the head as if responding yes or no
b. rigidity and weakness of voluntary movement
c. tremor of the hands
d. tongue protrusion
b. rigidity and weakness of voluntary movement
146
People who have Parkinson disease usually have which of the following characteristic styles of speech?
a. a garbled manner
b. loud, urgent
c. slow, monotonous
d. word confusion
c. slow, monotonous
147
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is divided into three areas. They include:
a. pupillary response, a reflex test, and assessing pain.
b. eye opening, motor response to stimuli, and verbal response.
c. response to fine touch, stereognosis, and sense of position.
d. orientation, rapid alternating movements, and the Romberg test
b. eye opening, motor response to stimuli, and verbal response.
148
The Landau reflex in the infant is seen when:
a. the head is held and then flops forward as the baby is pulled to a sitting position by holding the wrists
b. the toes curl down tightly in response to touch on the ball of the baby's foot
c. the infant attempts to place his foot on the table while being held with the top of the foot touching the underside of the table.
d. the baby raises the head and arches the back, as in a swan dive.
d. the baby raises the head and arches the back, as in a swan dive.
149
What is the function of the olfactory nerve?
smell
150
What is the function of the optic nerve?
vision
151
What is the function of the oculomotor nerve?
extraocular movement, pupil constriction, down and inward movement of the eye
152
What is the function of the trochlear nerve?
down and inward movement of the eye
153
What is the function of the trigeminal nerve?
mastication and sensation of face, scalp, cornea
154
What is the function of the abducens nerve?
lateral movement of the eyes
155
What is the function of the facial nerve?
taste anterior two thirds of tongue, close eyes
156
What is the function of the vestibulocochlear (acoustic) nerve?
hearing and equilibrium
157
What is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve?
phonation, swallowing, taste posterior third of tongue
158
What is the function of the vagus nerve?
talking, swallowing, and sensory information from pharynx and carotid sinus
159
What is the function of the accessory (spinal) nerve?
movement of trapezius and sternomastoid muscles
160
What is the function of the hypoglossal nerve?
movement of the tongue
161
During an assessment of the spine, the patient would be asked to:
a. adduct and extend
b. supinate, evert, and retract
c. extend, adduct, invert, and rotate
d. flex, extend, abduct, and rotate
d. flex, extend, abduct, and rotate
162
Pronation and supination of the hand and forearm are the result of articulation of the:
a. scapula and clavicle
b. radius and ulna
c. patella and condyle of fibula
d. femur and acetabulum
b. radius and ulna
163
Anterior and posterior stability are provided to the knee joint by the:
a. medial and lateral menisci
b. patellar tendon and ligament
c. medial collateral ligament and quadriceps muscle
d. anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
d. anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
164
A 70-year-old woman has come for a health examination. Which of the following is a common age-related change in the curvature of the spinal column?
a. lordosis
b. scoliosis
c. kyphosis
d. lateral scoliosis
c. kyphosis
165
The timing of joint pain may assist the examiner in determining the cause. The joint pain associated with rheumatic fever would:
a. be worse in the morning
b. be worse later in the day
c. be worse in the morning but improve during the day
d. occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat
d. occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat
166
Examination of the shoulder includes four motion. These are:
a. forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation.
b. abduction, adduction, pronation, and supination.
c. circumduction, inversion, eversion, and rotation.
d. elevation, retraction, protraction, and circumduction.
a. forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation.
167
The bulge sign is a test for:
a. swelling in the suprapatellar pouch
b. carpal tunnel syndrome
c. Heberden's nodes
d. olecranon bursa inflammation
a. swelling in the suprapatellar pouch
168
The examiner is going to measure the patient's legs for length discrepancy. The normal finding would be:
a. no difference in measurements
b. 0.5 cm difference
c. within 1 cm of each other
d. 2 cm difference
c. within 1 cm of each other
169
A 2-year-old has been brought to the clinic for a health examination. A common finding would be:
a. kyphosis
b. lordosis
c. scoliosis
d. no deviation is normal
b. lordosis
170
Briefly describe the functions of the musculoskeletal system.
The musculoskeletal system provides support to the body, enabling it to stand erect and to move. The system protects inner organs, produces red blood cells, and provides for the storage of minerals.
171
Positive Phalen test and Tinel sign are seen in a patient with:
a. a torn meniscus
b. hallux valgus
c. carpal tunnel syndrome
d. tennis elbow
c. carpal tunnel syndrome
172
When assessing an infant, the examiner completes Ortolani maneuver by:
a. lifting the newborn and noting a C-shaped curvature of the spine
b. gently lifting and abducting the infant's flexed knees while palpating the greater trochanter with the fingers.
c. comparing the height of the tops of the knees when the knees are flexed up
d. palpating the length of the clavicles
b. gently lifting and abducting the infant's flexed knees while palpating the greater trochanter with the fingers.
173
Flexion
bending a limb at a joint
174
Extension
straightening a limb at a joint
175
Abduction
moving a limb away from the midline of the body
176
Adduction
moving a limb toward the midline of the body
177
Pronation
turning the forearm so that the palm is down
178
Supination
turning the forearm so that the palm is up
179
Circumduction
moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder
180
Inversion
moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle
181
Eversion
moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle
182
Rotation
moving the head around a central axis
183
Protraction
moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground
184
Retraction
moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground
185
Elevation
raising a body part
186
Depression
lowering a body part
187
Crepitation is:
a. A normal finding in adults
b. A crackling or grating sound noted in a joint
c. A special technique for assessing the nervous system
d. Hesitating when moving a joint
b. A crackling or grating sound noted in a joint
188
Kyphosis is:
a. The concavity of the lumbar spine
b. The concavity of the thoracic spine
c. The convex curvature of the thoracic spine
d. The convexity of the lumbar spine
C: The convex curvature of the thoracic spine.
189
To assess for internal rotation of the shoulders, you should have the patient:
a. Raise their arms straight up over their head
b. Place their arms behind their back, palms up
c. Place their hands behind their head
d. Swing their arms in a circle
b. Place their arms behind their back, palms up
190
Ortolani maneuver is:
a. Assessing for hip strength in an infant
b. Assessing for hip dysplasia in an infant
c. Assessing for leg length in a child
d. Moving the knee to assess for stability
b. Assessing for hip dysplasia in an infant
191
Normal findings when assessing the temporomandibular joint include all of the following except:
a. Vertical motion with maximal opening
b. An audible click with opening
c. Range of motion of 3-6 cm
d. Crepitus and pain with opening
d. Crepitus and pain with opening
192
Adduction is:
a. Movement of a limb away from midline
b. Movement of a limb towards midline
c. Putting the hands behind the head
d. Lifting one leg to the side
b. Movement of a limb towards midline
193
Abduction is:
a. Standing on one leg and lifting the other out to the side
b. Putting the hands on the back
a. Standing on one leg and lifting the other out to the side
194
Flexion is:
a. Putting out the arm straight
b. Straightening the knee
c. Pulling the knees to the chest
d. Raising the arms out to the sides and over the head
c. Pulling the knees to the chest
195
A positive straight leg raise test indicates a herniated disc.
A. True
B. False
A. True
196
Genu Valgum is another term for “knock knees."
A. True
B. False
A. True.
Valgum the knees Go toGether.
197
Genu Varum is another term for “bow legged."
A. True
B. False
A. True RRRRRR for RRRRRounded.
198
The tinels and Phalens tests are all of the following except:
A. Tests for carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Indicated if the patient complains of burning and tingling in their hands
C. Tests for vascular compression
D. Useful if your patient complains of numbness and tingling of their hands
C. Tests for vascular compression.
It is a test of the NERVE. Not the vessel.
199
The wrist can perform the following motions except:
a. Supination
b. Pronation
c. Flexion
d. Inversion
D. inversion
Only the ankles invert. Your wrists to ulnar and radial deviations.
200
The functional unit of the musculoskeletal system are the bones.
A. True
B. False
B. False
201
When assessing the spine, you should ask the patient to:
a. Hyperextend, circumduct, and abduct
b. Adduct, retract and rotate
c. Rotate, flex, and extend
d. Supinate, pronate, and evert
c. Rotate, flex, and extend
202
Normal curvature of the spine starting at the cervical spine is convex, concave, convex.
A. True
B. False
B. False
203
All of the following are true about the spinothalamic tract except:
a. Sense pain
b. Sense temperature
c. Sense crude touch
d. Delivers motor impulse
D. Delivers motor impulse
204
All of the following about the posterior column is true except:
a. Senses position
b. Senses vibration
c. Interprets fine touch (stereognosis)
d. Controls voluntary movement
D. controls voluntary movement
205
The cerebellum is responsible for motor coordination of voluntary movements.
A. True
B. False
A. True
206
Which of the following statements regarding the Romberg test is false?
a. A positive Romberg is the ability to stand with the eyes closed without losing balance
b. A positive Romberg occurs with alcohol intoxication
c. A positive Romburg occurs with cerebral ataxia
d. A positive Romberg indicates loss of vestibular function
a. A positive Romberg is the ability to stand with the eyes closed without losing balance
This would be a negative Romberg test.
207
The 512 hz tuning fork is used to test vibratory sense.
A. True
B. False
B. False.
want it to be between 120 and 256 hz. for vibratory sense.
208
To test for graphesthesia, you would draw a letter on a persons hand and have them tell you what you drew.
A. True
B. False
A. True
209
To test for position sense you would have the person move their head right, left, up and down.
A. True
B. False
B. False.
use hands or feet. move it for them.
210
When you are attempting to check the patellar reflex, you are unable to elicit a response. You should then:
a. Always due to poor technique
b. A normal finding
c. Document as a 0 on a scale of 0-4
d. Use reinforcement
d. Use reinforcement
211
Cranial nerve I tests visual acuity.
A. True
B. False
B. False
212
Cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6 are assessed by:
a. The snellen chart
b. Checking the EOM
c. Palpating the temporal muscle when the teeth are clenched
d. Having the patient lift their eyebrows
b. Checking the EOM
213
When assessing the triceps reflex you are assessing:
a. C5-C6
b. L2-L4
c. T3-T4
d. C7-C8
d. C7-C8
214
The whisper test assesses:
a. CN VIII
b. CN VI
c. CN X
d. CN V
A. CN VIII (vestibulocochlear/acoustic)
215
Nonsynovial joints
the bones are united by fibrous tissue or cartilage and are immoveable (the sutures in the skull) or are only slightly moveable (the vertebrae).
216
Synovial joints
freely moveable because they have bones that are separated from each other and are enclosed in a joint cavity.
217
Ligaments
Fibrous bands running directly from one bone to another that strengthen the joint and help prevent movement in undesirable directions.
218
Bursa
enclosed sac filled with viscous synovial fluid, much like a joint. Bursa located in areas of potential friction (shoulder, knee) and help muscles and tendons glide smoothly over bone.
219
Tendon
attach muscle to bone
220
What condition does someone with hard and nontender Heberden and Bouchard nodules probably suffer from?
Osteoarthritis
221
Hallux Vagus
the distal part of the great toe is directed away from the body midline.
