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Health Assessment Test 4 > health assessment test 4 > Flashcards

health assessment test 4 Flashcards

0
Q

Agraphia

A

Loss of ability to express thoughts in writing

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1
Q

Agnosia

A

Loss of ability to recognize importance of sensory impressions

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2
Q

Amnesia

A

Loss of memory

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3
Q

Analgesia

A

Loss of pain sensation

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4
Q

Aphasia

A

Loss of power of expression by speech, writing, or signs, or loss of comprehension of spoken or written language

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5
Q

Apraxia

A

Loss of ability to perform purposeful movements in the absence of sensory or motor damage (inability to use objects correctly)

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7
Q

Ataxia

A

Inability to perform coordinated movements

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8
Q

Athetosis

A

bizarre, slow, twisting, writhing movement, resembling a snake or worm

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9
Q

Chorea

A

sudden, rapid, jerky, purposeless movement involving limbs, trunk or face

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10
Q

Clonus

A

rapidly alternating involuntary contraction and relaxation of a muscle in response to a sudden stretch

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11
Q

Coma

A

state of profound unconsciousness from which person cannot be aroused

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12
Q

Decerebrate rigidity

A

arms stiffly extended, adducted, internally rotated; legs stiffly extended, plantar flexed

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13
Q

Decorticate rigidity

A

arms adducted and flexed, wrists and fingers flexed; legs extended, internally rotated, plantar flexed

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14
Q

Dysarthria

A

imperfect articulation of speech due to problems of muscular control resulting from central or peripheral nervous system damage

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15
Q

Dysphasia

A

impairment in speech consisting of lack of coordination and inability to arrange words in their proper order

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16
Q

Extinction

A

disappearance of conditioned response

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17
Q

Fasciculation

A

rapid continuous twitching of resting muscle without movement of limb

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18
Q

Flaccidity

A

loss of muscle tone, limp

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19
Q

Graphesthesia

A

ability to “read” a number by having it traced on the skin

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20
Q

Hemiplegia

A

loss of motor power (paralysis) on one side of the body, usually caused by a stroke; paralysis occurs on the side opposite the lesion

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21
Q

Lower motor neuron

A

motor neuron in the peripheral nervous system with its nerve fiber extending out to the muscle and only its cell body in the central nervous system

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22
Q

Myoclonus

A

rapid sudden jerk of a muscle

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23
Q

Nuchal rigidity

A

stiffness in cervical neck area

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24
Q

Nystagmus

A

back-and-forth oscillation of the eyes

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25
Q

Opisthotonos

A

prolonged arching of back, with head and heels bent backward, and meningeal irritation

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26
Q

Paralysis

A

decreased or loss of motor function due to problem with motor nerve or muscle fibers

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27
Q

Paraplegia

A

impairment or loss of motor and/or sensory function in the lower half of the body

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28
Q

Paresthesia

A

abnormal sensation (i.e., burning, numbness, tingling, prickling, crawling skin sensation)

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29
Q

Point localization

A

ability of the person to discriminate exactly where on the body the skin has been touched

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30
Q

Proprioception

A

sensory information concerning body movements and position of the body in space

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31
Q

Spasticity

A

continuous resistance to stretching by a muscle due to abnormally increased tension, with increased deep tendon reflexes

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32
Q

Stereognosis

A

ability to recognize objects by feeling their forms, sizes, and weights while the eyes are closed

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33
Q

Tic

A

repetitive twitching of a muscle group at inappropriate times (e.g., wink, grimace)

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34
Q

Tremor

A

involuntary contraction of opposing muscle groups resulting in rhythmic movement of one or more joints

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35
Q

Two-point discrimination

A

ability to distinguish the separation of two simultaneous pinpricks on the skin

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36
Q

Upper motor neuron

A

nerve located entirely within the central nervous system

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37
Q

Abduction

A

moving a body part away from an axis or the median line

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38
Q

Adduction

A

moving a body part toward the center or toward the median line

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39
Q

Ankylosis

A

immobility, consolidation, and fixation of a joint because of disease, injury, or surgery; most often due to chronic rheumatoid arthritis

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40
Q

Ataxia

A

inability to perform coordinated movements

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41
Q

Bursa

A

enclosed sac filled with viscous fluid located in joint areas of potential friction

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42
Q

Circumduction

A

moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder

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43
Q

Crepitation

A

dry crackling sound or sensation due to grating of the ends of damaged bone

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44
Q

Dorsal

A

directed toward or located on the surface

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45
Q

Dupuytren contracture

A

flexion contracture of the fingers due to chronic hyperplasia of the palmar fascia

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46
Q

Eversion

A

moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle

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47
Q

Extension

A

straightening a limb at a joint

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48
Q

flexion

A

bending a limb at a joint

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49
Q

ganglion

A

round, cystic, nontender nodule overlying a tendon sheath or joint capsule, usually on dorsum of wrist

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50
Q

Hallux valgus

A

lateral or outward deviation of the great toe

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51
Q

Inversion

A

moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle

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52
Q

Kyphosis

A

outward or CONVEX curvature of the thoracic spine; hunchback

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53
Q

Ligament

A

fibrous band running directly from one bone to another bone that strengthens the joint

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54
Q

Lordosis

A

inward or concave curvature of the lumbar spine

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55
Q

Nucleus pulposus

A

center of the intervertebral disk

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56
Q

Olecranon process

A

bony projection of the ulna at the elbow

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57
Q

Patella

A

kneecap

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58
Q

Plantar

A

surface of the sole of the foot

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59
Q

Pronation

A

turning the forearm so that the palm is down

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60
Q

Protraction

A

moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground

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61
Q

Range of motion (ROM)

A

extent of movement of a joint

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62
Q

Retraction

A

moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground

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63
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

chronic systemic inflammatory disease of joints and surrounding connective tissue

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64
Q

Sciatica

A

nerve pain along the course of the sciatic nerve that travels down from the back or thigh through the leg and into the foot

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65
Q

Scoliosis

A

S-shaped curvature of the thoracic spine

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66
Q

Supination

A

turning the forearm so that the palm is up

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67
Q

Talipes equinovarus

A

(clubfoot) congenital deformity of the foot in which it is plantar flexed and inverted

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68
Q

Tendon

A

strong fibrous cord that attaches a skeletal muscle to a bone

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69
Q

Torticollis

A

(wryneck) contraction of the cervical neck muscles, producing torsion of the neck

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70
Q

List the major function(s) of the cerebral cortex - frontal lobe

A

personality, behavior, emotions, intellect

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71
Q

List the major function(s) of the cerebral cortex - parietal lobe

A

sensation

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72
Q

List the major function(s) of the cerebral cortex - temporal lobe

A

hearing; taste; smell

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73
Q

List the major function(s) of the cerebral cortex - Wernicke’s area

A

language comprehension

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74
Q

List the major function(s) of the cerebral cortex - Broca’s area

A

motor speech

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75
Q

List the major function(s) of the basil ganglia

A

initiate and coordinate movement and control automatic associated movements of the body

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76
Q

List the major function(s) of the thalamus

A

main relay station where sensory pathways form synapses

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77
Q

List the major function(s) of the hypothalamus

A

regulates temperature, appetite, sex drive, heart rate, blood pressure, sleep, pituitary glands and ANS activity

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78
Q

List the major function(s) of the cerebellum

A

motor coordination, equilibrium, muscle tone

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79
Q

List the major function(s) of the midbrain

A

merges into thalamus, hypothalamus. many motor neurons and tracts

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80
Q

List the major function(s) of the pons

A

enlarged area containing ascending and descending fiber tracts

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81
Q

List the major function(s) of the medulla

A

contains ascending and descending fiber tracts that control respiration, heart rate, gastrointestinal function. Nuclei for CN 8-12.

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82
Q

List the major function(s) of the spinal cord

A

contains ascending and descending fiber tracts that mediate reflexes

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83
Q

List the primary sensations mediated by the 2 major sensory pathways of the CNS.

A

Spinothalamic tract: mediates pain, temperature, and crude or light touch (not precisely localized). ( lateral spinothalamic tract = pain, temperature) (anterior spinothalamic tract = crude touch)

Posterior dorsal columns = sensation of position, vibration and fine, localized touch (identify objects by touch)

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84
Q

Describe 3 major motor pathways in the CNS including the type of movements mediated by each.

A

Corticospinal/pyramidal tract = “higher” motor system for purposeful and skilled movements (writing)

Extrapyramidal tract = “lower” or primitive movements

Cerebellar system = coordinates movements, maintains equilibrium and helps maintain posture

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85
Q

Differentiate an upper motor neuron from a lower motor neuron.

A

Upper = located in CNS and are the descending fibers that influence/modify the lower motor neurons. convey impulses from the cerebral cortex to the lower.

Lower = located in the PNS cell body in gray matter of spinal cord, nerve fiber extends to directly connect to the muscles (the final common pathway).

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86
Q

List the 5 components of a deep tendon reflex arc.

A

1) an intact sensory nerve (afferent)
2) a functional synapse in the cord
3) an intact motor nerve fiber
4) the neuromuscular junction
5) a competent muscle

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87
Q

List the major symptom areas to assess when collecting a health history for the neurologic system.

A

headaches, head injury, dizziness/vertigo, seizures, tremors, weakness, incoordination, numbness/tingling, difficulty swallowing, difficulty speaking, significant past history, and environmental/occupational hazards.

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88
Q

List the method of testing for each of the 12 cranial nerves.

A
  • I olfactory= identify familiar odor
  • II optic= visual acuity, visual fields (confrontation), shine light in eye (light reflex test), direct inspection.
  • III oculomotor= inspection, extraocular muscle movement, shine light in eye.
  • IV trochlear= extraocular muscle movement (move eyes down or out ward)
  • V trigeminal= superficial touch/sensory function (absent touch, pain, paresthesias), corneal reflex, clench teeth.
  • VI Abducens= extraocular muscle movement to right and left sides
  • VII Facial= wrinkle forehead, close eyes tightly, smile, puff cheeks identify tastes
  • VIII acoustic= hearing acuity (whisper test)
  • IX glossopharyngeal= gag reflex
  • X Vagus= phonates “ahh”, gag reflex, note coice quality, and swallowing
  • XI Spinal accessory= turn head, shrug shoulders against resistance
  • XII Hypoglossal= protrude tongue wiggle tongue from side to side
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89
Q

List and describe 3 tests of cerebellar function.

A

Gait: observe as the person walks 10 to 20 feet, turns, and returns to starting point.
Romberg test: ask the person to stand up with feet together and arms at the sides. Once standing, ask the person to close their eyes and hold.
Rapid Alternating Movements: pat knees with both hands, lift up, turn hands over, pat with back side of hands.

90
Q

Describe the methods of testing the sensory system for pain, temperature, touch, vibration, and position.

A 
Pain = poke with dull/sharp tongue blade
Temperature = tuning fork --> touch
Touch = light cotton ball
Vibration = tuning fork on bony prominences
Position = move extremities up/down with patient's eyes closed. Ask the patient to state the direction of movement.
91
Q

Define the 4 point grading scale for deep tendon reflexes.

A

4+: very brisk, hyperactive with clonus. indicative of disease.
3+: brisker than average, may indicate disease, probably normal
2+: average, normal
1+: diminished, low normal, occurs only with reinforcement
0: no response

92
Q

What vertebral levels would you assess with eliciting a biceps reflex?

A

C5-C6

93
Q

What vertebral levels would you assess with eliciting a triceps reflex?

A

C7-C8

94
Q

What vertebral levels would you assess with eliciting a brachioradialis reflex?

A

C5-C6

95
Q

What vertebral levels would you assess with eliciting a quadriceps reflex?

A

L2-L4

96
Q

What vertebral levels would you assess with eliciting a achilles reflex?

A

L5-S2

97
Q

List the components of the neurologic recheck examination that are performed routinely on hospitalized persons being monitored for neurologic deficit.

A

1) level of consciousness
2) motor function
3) pupillary response
4) vitals

98
Q

List the 3 areas of assessment on the Glasgow Coma Scale.

A

1) eye opening
2) verbal response
3) motor response

99
Q

Describe the gait pattern of someone with spastic hemiparesis.

A

Arm is immobile against the body, with flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers and adduction of the shoulder, does not swing freely. The leg is stiff and circumducts with each step (drags in a semicircle).

100
Q

Describe the gait pattern of someone with cerebellar ataxia.

A

Staggering, wide-based gait; difficulty with turns; uncoordinated movement with positive Romberg sign.

101
Q

Describe Parkinsonian abnormal gait pattern.

A

Posture is stooped; trunk is pitched forward; elbows, hips, and knees are flexed. Steps are short and shuffling. Hesitation to begin walking, and difficult to stop suddenly. The person holds the body rigid. Walks and turns body as one fixed unit. Difficulty with any change in direction.

102
Q

Describe scissors abnormal gait pattern.

A

Knees cross or are in contact, like holding an orange between the thighs. The person uses short steps, and walking requires effort.

103
Q

Describe steppage abnormal gait pattern.

A

Slapping quality - looks as if walking up stairs and finds no stair there. Lifts knee and foot high and slaps it down hard and flat to compensate for footdrop.

104
Q

Describe waddling abnormal gait pattern.

A

Weak hip muscles - when the person takes a step, the opposite hip drops, which allows compensatory lateral movement of pelvis. Often, the person also has marked lumbar lordosis and a protruding abdomen.

105
Q

State the type of reflex response you would expect to see with an upper motor neuron lesion versus a lower motor neuron lesion.

A

Upper = hyperreflexia, ankle clonus, dimished or absent superficial abdominal reflexes, positive babinski sign

Lower = hyporeflexia, arereflexia. No babinski sign. No pathologic reflexes.

106
Q

Describe the method of testing the type of reflexes that are also termed frontal release signs.

A

1) snout = gently percuss oral region.
2) sucking = touch oral region
3) grasp = touch palm with your finger

107
Q

Differentiate synovial from nonsynovial joints.

A

In nonsynovial joints, the bones are united by fibrous tissue or cartilage and are immovable or are only slightly movable (vertebrae).

Synovial joints are freely movable because they have bones that are separated from each other and are enclosed in a joint cavity.

108
Q

Describe the function of intervertebral disks.

A

The disks cushion the spine like a shock absorber and help it move.

109
Q

List 4 signs that suggest acute inflammation in a joint.

A

swelling, heat, redness, pain.

110
Q

Define dislocation.

A

displacement of a body part

111
Q

Define subluxation

A

incomplete or partial dislocation of a bone in a joint

112
Q

Define contracture

A

abnormal shortening of muscle tissue, rendering the muscle highly resistant to passive stretching.

113
Q

Define ankylosis

A

immobility, consolidation and fixation of a joint because of disease, injury or surgery.

114
Q

Differentiate testing of active range of motion versus passive range of motion.

A

Active ROM is done when a person can do the exercises himself.

Passive ROM exercises are done for a person by a helper.

115
Q

State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the elbow.

A

Flexion: 150 degrees
Extension: 0 degrees

116
Q

State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the wrist.

A

Flexion: 90
Extension: 0

117
Q

State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the fingers (at metacapophalangeal joints).

A

Flexion: 90
Extension: 0

118
Q

State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the hips.

A

Flexion (knee straight): 90
Flexion (knee flexed): 120
Hyperextension (while standing): 15

119
Q

State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the knees.

A

Flexion: 130
Extend: 0

120
Q

State the expected range of degrees of flexion and extension in the ankles.

A

Plantar Flexion: 45
Dorsiflexion: 20
Extension: 0

121
Q

Explain the method for measuring leg length.

A

measure between fixed points, from the anterior iliac spine to the medial malleolus, crossing the medial side of the knee.

122
Q

Describe the Ortolani maneuver for checking an infant’s hips.

A

checks for congenital dislocation. with the infant supine, flex the knees holding your thumbs on the inner mid-thighs and your fingers outside on the hips touching the greater trochanters. Adduct the legs until your thumbs touch. Then gently lift and abduct until their lateral aspects touch the table.

123
Q

State 4 landmarks to note when checking an adolescent for scoliosis.

A

unequal shoulder elevation
unequal scapula
obvious curvature
unequal hip level

124
Q

State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to walk.

A

shuffling pattern, swaying, arms out, broader support base

125
Q

State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to climb up stairs.

A

holds hand rail, lead with stronger leg, pulls self

126
Q

State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to walk down stairs.

A

holds hand rail, sometimes with both hands.

127
Q

State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to pick up object from the floor.

A

bends at waist, holds furniture for support.

128
Q

State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to rise up from sitting in a chair.

A

person uses arms to push off chair arms, upper trunk leans forward before body straightens

129
Q

State the common adaptations the aging person makes when attempting to rise up from lying in bed.

A

may roll to one side, push with arms to lift up torso, grab bedside table to increase leverage

130
Q

Describe the signs and symptoms in carpal tunnel syndrome

A

pain, burning and numbness, positive phalen test, positive tinel sign, atrophy of thenar muscles

131
Q

Name and describe two techniques of examination for the syndrome.

A

phalen test reproduces numbness and burning in person with CTS.

In CTS, percussion of the median nerve produces burning and tingling along its distribution, which is a positive tinel sign.

132
Q

Describe swan neck deformity and boutonniere deformity.

A

Boutonniere deformity is extension of the metacarpophalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints, and flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint as a result of rupture of the central slip of the extensor hood. The knuckle looks as if it is being pushed through a button hole.

Swan neck deformity is flexion of the MP and DIP joints with extension of the PIP joint as a result of contracture of the intrinsic muscles or tearing of the volar plate. The flexion contracture resembles curve of a swan’s neck.

133
Q

Contrast bouchard’s nodes with Heberden’s nodes.

A

Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard, nontender nodules 2 to 3 mm or more. These osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal interphalangeal joints are called Heberden’s nodes, and those of the proximal interphalangeal joints are called Bouchard’s nodes.

134
Q

Contrast syndactyly and polydactyly.

A

Syndactyly –> webbed fingers

Polydactyly –> extra digits

135
Q

The medical record indicates that a person has an injury to Broca’s area. When meeting this person, you expect:

a. difficulty speaking
b. receptive aphasia
c. visual disturbances
d. emotional lability

A

a. difficulty speaking

136
Q

The control of body temperature is located in:

a. Wernicke’s area
b. the thalamus
c. the cerebellum
d. the hypothalamus

A

d. the hypothalamus

137
Q

To test for stereognosis, you would:

a. have the person close his or her eyes, and then raise the person’s arm and ask the person to describe its location
b. touch the person with a tuning fork
c. place a coin in the person’s hand and ask him or her to identify it
d. touch the person with a cold object

A

C. place a coin in the person’s hand and ask him or her to identify it

138
Q

During the examination of an infant, use a cotton-tipped applicator to stimulate the anal sphincter. The absence of a response suggests a lesion of:

A. L2
B. T12
C. S2
D. C5

A

C. S2

139
Q

During a neurologic examination, the tendon reflex fails to appear. Before striking the tendon again, the examiner might use the technique of:

a. two-point discrimination
b. reinforcement
c. vibration
d. graphesthesia

A

b. reinforcement

140
Q

Cerebellar function is assessed by which of the following tests?

a. muscle size and strength
b. cranial nerve examination
c. coordination - hop on one foot
d. spinothalamic test

A

c. coordination - hop on one foot

141
Q

To elicit a Babinski reflex:

a. gently tap the Achilles tendon
b. stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from heel to the ball
c. the expected response in healthy adults
d. withdrawal of the stimulated extremity from the stimulus

A

b. stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from heel to the ball

142
Q

A positive Babinski sign is:

a. dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes
b. plantar flexion of the big toe with a fanning of all toes
c. the expected response in healthy adults
d. withdrawal of the stimulated extremity from the stimulus

A

a. dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes

143
Q

The cremasteric response:

a. is positive when disease of the pyramidal tract is present
b. is positive when the ipsilateral testicle elevates upon stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh
c. is a reflex of the receptors in the muscles of the abdomen
d. is not a valid neurologic examination.

A

b. is positive when the ipsilateral testicle elevates upon stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh

144
Q

To examine for the function of the trigeminal nerve in an infant, you would:

a. startle the baby
b. hold an object within the child’s line of vision
c. pinch the nose of the child
d. offer the baby a bottle

A

d. offer the baby a bottle

145
Q

Senile tremors may resemble Parkinsonianism, except that senile tremors do not include:

a. nodding the head as if responding yes or no
b. rigidity and weakness of voluntary movement
c. tremor of the hands
d. tongue protrusion

A

b. rigidity and weakness of voluntary movement

146
Q

People who have Parkinson disease usually have which of the following characteristic styles of speech?

a. a garbled manner
b. loud, urgent
c. slow, monotonous
d. word confusion

A

c. slow, monotonous

147
Q

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is divided into three areas. They include:

a. pupillary response, a reflex test, and assessing pain.
b. eye opening, motor response to stimuli, and verbal response.
c. response to fine touch, stereognosis, and sense of position.
d. orientation, rapid alternating movements, and the Romberg test

A

b. eye opening, motor response to stimuli, and verbal response.

148
Q

The Landau reflex in the infant is seen when:

a. the head is held and then flops forward as the baby is pulled to a sitting position by holding the wrists
b. the toes curl down tightly in response to touch on the ball of the baby’s foot
c. the infant attempts to place his foot on the table while being held with the top of the foot touching the underside of the table.
d. the baby raises the head and arches the back, as in a swan dive.

A

d. the baby raises the head and arches the back, as in a swan dive.

149
Q

What is the function of the olfactory nerve?

A

smell

150
Q

What is the function of the optic nerve?

A

vision

151
Q

What is the function of the oculomotor nerve?

A

extraocular movement, pupil constriction, down and inward movement of the eye

152
Q

What is the function of the trochlear nerve?

A

down and inward movement of the eye

153
Q

What is the function of the trigeminal nerve?

A

mastication and sensation of face, scalp, cornea

154
Q

What is the function of the abducens nerve?

A

lateral movement of the eyes

155
Q

What is the function of the facial nerve?

A

taste anterior two thirds of tongue, close eyes

156
Q

What is the function of the vestibulocochlear (acoustic) nerve?

A

hearing and equilibrium

157
Q

What is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A

phonation, swallowing, taste posterior third of tongue

158
Q

What is the function of the vagus nerve?

A

talking, swallowing, and sensory information from pharynx and carotid sinus

159
Q

What is the function of the accessory (spinal) nerve?

A

movement of trapezius and sternomastoid muscles

160
Q

What is the function of the hypoglossal nerve?

A

movement of the tongue

161
Q

During an assessment of the spine, the patient would be asked to:

a. adduct and extend
b. supinate, evert, and retract
c. extend, adduct, invert, and rotate
d. flex, extend, abduct, and rotate

A

d. flex, extend, abduct, and rotate

162
Q

Pronation and supination of the hand and forearm are the result of articulation of the:

a. scapula and clavicle
b. radius and ulna
c. patella and condyle of fibula
d. femur and acetabulum

A

b. radius and ulna

163
Q

Anterior and posterior stability are provided to the knee joint by the:

a. medial and lateral menisci
b. patellar tendon and ligament
c. medial collateral ligament and quadriceps muscle
d. anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

A

d. anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

164
Q

A 70-year-old woman has come for a health examination. Which of the following is a common age-related change in the curvature of the spinal column?

a. lordosis
b. scoliosis
c. kyphosis
d. lateral scoliosis

A

c. kyphosis

165
Q

The timing of joint pain may assist the examiner in determining the cause. The joint pain associated with rheumatic fever would:

a. be worse in the morning
b. be worse later in the day
c. be worse in the morning but improve during the day
d. occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat

A

d. occur 10 to 14 days after an untreated sore throat

166
Q

Examination of the shoulder includes four motion. These are:

a. forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation.
b. abduction, adduction, pronation, and supination.
c. circumduction, inversion, eversion, and rotation.
d. elevation, retraction, protraction, and circumduction.

A

a. forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation.

167
Q

The bulge sign is a test for:

a. swelling in the suprapatellar pouch
b. carpal tunnel syndrome
c. Heberden’s nodes
d. olecranon bursa inflammation

A

a. swelling in the suprapatellar pouch

168
Q

The examiner is going to measure the patient’s legs for length discrepancy. The normal finding would be:

a. no difference in measurements
b. 0.5 cm difference
c. within 1 cm of each other
d. 2 cm difference

A

c. within 1 cm of each other

169
Q

A 2-year-old has been brought to the clinic for a health examination. A common finding would be:

a. kyphosis
b. lordosis
c. scoliosis
d. no deviation is normal

A

b. lordosis

170
Q

Briefly describe the functions of the musculoskeletal system.

A

The musculoskeletal system provides support to the body, enabling it to stand erect and to move. The system protects inner organs, produces red blood cells, and provides for the storage of minerals.

171
Q

Positive Phalen test and Tinel sign are seen in a patient with:

a. a torn meniscus
b. hallux valgus
c. carpal tunnel syndrome
d. tennis elbow

A

c. carpal tunnel syndrome

172
Q

When assessing an infant, the examiner completes Ortolani maneuver by:

a. lifting the newborn and noting a C-shaped curvature of the spine
b. gently lifting and abducting the infant’s flexed knees while palpating the greater trochanter with the fingers.
c. comparing the height of the tops of the knees when the knees are flexed up
d. palpating the length of the clavicles

A

b. gently lifting and abducting the infant’s flexed knees while palpating the greater trochanter with the fingers.

173
Q

Flexion

A

bending a limb at a joint

174
Q

Extension

A

straightening a limb at a joint

175
Q

Abduction

A

moving a limb away from the midline of the body

176
Q

Adduction

A

moving a limb toward the midline of the body

177
Q

Pronation

A

turning the forearm so that the palm is down

178
Q

Supination

A

turning the forearm so that the palm is up

179
Q

Circumduction

A

moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder

180
Q

Inversion

A

moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle

181
Q

Eversion

A

moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle

182
Q

Rotation

A

moving the head around a central axis

183
Q

Protraction

A

moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground

184
Q

Retraction

A

moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground

185
Q

Elevation

A

raising a body part

186
Q

Depression

A

lowering a body part

187
Q

Crepitation is:

a. A normal finding in adults
b. A crackling or grating sound noted in a joint
c. A special technique for assessing the nervous system
d. Hesitating when moving a joint

A

b. A crackling or grating sound noted in a joint

188
Q

Kyphosis is:

a. The concavity of the lumbar spine
b. The concavity of the thoracic spine
c. The convex curvature of the thoracic spine
d. The convexity of the lumbar spine

A

C: The convex curvature of the thoracic spine.

189
Q

To assess for internal rotation of the shoulders, you should have the patient:

a. Raise their arms straight up over their head
b. Place their arms behind their back, palms up
c. Place their hands behind their head
d. Swing their arms in a circle

A

b. Place their arms behind their back, palms up

190
Q

Ortolani maneuver is:

a. Assessing for hip strength in an infant
b. Assessing for hip dysplasia in an infant
c. Assessing for leg length in a child
d. Moving the knee to assess for stability

A

b. Assessing for hip dysplasia in an infant

191
Q

Normal findings when assessing the temporomandibular joint include all of the following except:

a. Vertical motion with maximal opening
b. An audible click with opening
c. Range of motion of 3-6 cm
d. Crepitus and pain with opening

A

d. Crepitus and pain with opening

192
Q

Adduction is:

a. Movement of a limb away from midline
b. Movement of a limb towards midline
c. Putting the hands behind the head
d. Lifting one leg to the side

A

b. Movement of a limb towards midline

193
Q

Abduction is:

a. Standing on one leg and lifting the other out to the side
b. Putting the hands on the back

A

a. Standing on one leg and lifting the other out to the side

194
Q

Flexion is:

a. Putting out the arm straight
b. Straightening the knee
c. Pulling the knees to the chest
d. Raising the arms out to the sides and over the head

A

c. Pulling the knees to the chest

195
Q

A positive straight leg raise test indicates a herniated disc.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

196
Q

Genu Valgum is another term for “knock knees.”

A. True
B. False

A

A. True.

Valgum the knees Go toGether.

197
Q

Genu Varum is another term for “bow legged.”

A. True
B. False

A

A. True RRRRRR for RRRRRounded.

198
Q

The tinels and Phalens tests are all of the following except:

A. Tests for carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Indicated if the patient complains of burning and tingling in their hands
C. Tests for vascular compression
D. Useful if your patient complains of numbness and tingling of their hands

A

C. Tests for vascular compression.

It is a test of the NERVE. Not the vessel.

199
Q

The wrist can perform the following motions except:

a. Supination
b. Pronation
c. Flexion
d. Inversion

A

D. inversion

Only the ankles invert. Your wrists to ulnar and radial deviations.

200
Q

The functional unit of the musculoskeletal system are the bones.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

201
Q

When assessing the spine, you should ask the patient to:

a. Hyperextend, circumduct, and abduct
b. Adduct, retract and rotate
c. Rotate, flex, and extend
d. Supinate, pronate, and evert

A

c. Rotate, flex, and extend

202
Q

Normal curvature of the spine starting at the cervical spine is convex, concave, convex.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

203
Q

All of the following are true about the spinothalamic tract except:

a. Sense pain
b. Sense temperature
c. Sense crude touch
d. Delivers motor impulse

A

D. Delivers motor impulse

204
Q

All of the following about the posterior column is true except:

a. Senses position
b. Senses vibration
c. Interprets fine touch (stereognosis)
d. Controls voluntary movement

A

D. controls voluntary movement

205
Q

The cerebellum is responsible for motor coordination of voluntary movements.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

206
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the Romberg test is false?

a. A positive Romberg is the ability to stand with the eyes closed without losing balance
b. A positive Romberg occurs with alcohol intoxication
c. A positive Romburg occurs with cerebral ataxia
d. A positive Romberg indicates loss of vestibular function

A

a. A positive Romberg is the ability to stand with the eyes closed without losing balance

This would be a negative Romberg test.

207
Q

The 512 hz tuning fork is used to test vibratory sense.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False.

want it to be between 120 and 256 hz. for vibratory sense.

208
Q

To test for graphesthesia, you would draw a letter on a persons hand and have them tell you what you drew.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

209
Q

To test for position sense you would have the person move their head right, left, up and down.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False.

use hands or feet. move it for them.

210
Q

When you are attempting to check the patellar reflex, you are unable to elicit a response. You should then:

a. Always due to poor technique
b. A normal finding
c. Document as a 0 on a scale of 0-4
d. Use reinforcement

A

d. Use reinforcement

211
Q

Cranial nerve I tests visual acuity.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

212
Q

Cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6 are assessed by:

a. The snellen chart
b. Checking the EOM
c. Palpating the temporal muscle when the teeth are clenched
d. Having the patient lift their eyebrows

A

b. Checking the EOM

213
Q

When assessing the triceps reflex you are assessing:

a. C5-C6
b. L2-L4
c. T3-T4
d. C7-C8

A

d. C7-C8

214
Q

The whisper test assesses:

a. CN VIII
b. CN VI
c. CN X
d. CN V

A

A. CN VIII (vestibulocochlear/acoustic)

215
Q

Nonsynovial joints

A

the bones are united by fibrous tissue or cartilage and are immoveable (the sutures in the skull) or are only slightly moveable (the vertebrae).

216
Q

Synovial joints

A

freely moveable because they have bones that are separated from each other and are enclosed in a joint cavity.

217
Q

Ligaments

A

Fibrous bands running directly from one bone to another that strengthen the joint and help prevent movement in undesirable directions.

218
Q

Bursa

A

enclosed sac filled with viscous synovial fluid, much like a joint. Bursa located in areas of potential friction (shoulder, knee) and help muscles and tendons glide smoothly over bone.

219
Q

Tendon

A

attach muscle to bone

220
Q

What condition does someone with hard and nontender Heberden and Bouchard nodules probably suffer from?

A

Osteoarthritis

221
Q

Hallux Vagus

A

the distal part of the great toe is directed away from the body midline.

Health Assessment Test 4 (1 decks)

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