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Health Assessment Final > Health Assessment Final > Flashcards

Health Assessment Final Flashcards

1
Q

Cotton wool spots are caused by

A

vascular disease from HTN and Diabetes Mellitus

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2
Q

Papilledema is caused by

A

increased intracranial pressure

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3
Q

optic nerve head cupping is caused by

A

glaucoma increased intraocular pressure

glaucoma can cause intense ocular pain, blurred vision, halos around lights a red eye, and dilated pupil

can even cause stomach pain, N/V

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4
Q

Dot hemorrhages and cotton wool spots can be caused by

hemorrhage at disc margin

A

diabetic retinopathy

undiagnosed glaucoma

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5
Q

Hypertensive retinopathy look like what in the eye

A

hemorrhage dot, blot, cotton wool spots if severe papilledema

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6
Q

interruption of red reflex with opacities may indicate

A

cataract, retinoblastoma, or other serious intraocular pathology

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7
Q

at _ years of age vision test such as _ can begin

A

4, HOTV or LEA

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8
Q

macular degeneration in elderly is seen as what in the eye

this is the leading cause of legal blindness in people older than

A

drusen bodies

55 in US

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9
Q

white reflex on photos could indicate (Also called cat eye reflex)

A

retinoblastoma in children

mutation in RB1 (embryonic malignant tumor arising from the retina).

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10
Q

pregnant patients can experience nasal stuffiness, decreased sense of smell, and impaired hearing from

A

elevated estrogen

can also have hoarseness, vocal changes, persistent cough

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11
Q

smell begins to deteriorate at

taste at what age

A

60

50

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12
Q

otitis externa signs and symptoms

What type of hearing loss occurs?

A

itching in ear canal, typically with swimming

Pain intense with movement on pinna and chewing

Watery and purulent and thick mixed with pus and epithelial cells FOUL smelling

Conductive hearing loss exudate and swelling of canal

Canal is red edematous, tympanic membrane obscured

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13
Q

otitis media with effusion

A

Sticking or cracking sound on yawning or swallowing

discomfort feeling of fullness

no discharge

conductive as middle ear fills with fluid

tympanic membrane retracted or bulging yellowish air fluid level and bubbles

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14
Q

acute otitis media

A

abrupt onset of fever, feeling of blockage, anorexia, irritability

Deep- seated earache, that interferes with sleep pulling at the ear

discharge only if tympanic membrane ruptures foul smelling

conductive loss of middle ear fills with pus

Tympanic membrane distinct erythema, thickened clouding bulging air fluid level or bubbles

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15
Q

Rinne postive=

A

air-conduction longer then bone conduction 2:1 (Good)

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16
Q

infants chest is generally round AP diameter is

A

equal to lateral and circumference is roughly equal to that of head until 2 years old

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17
Q

PDA and foramen ovale

A

usually close at birth in minutes however if not large PDA can cause murmur on auscultation and left ventricular overload/heart failure.

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18
Q

Biot or ataaxic respiration

A

associated with severe and persistent increased intracranial pressure, resp compromise drug poisoning, brain damage at level of medulla and indicates poor prognosis.

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19
Q

DULLNESS to percussion and DECREASED tactile fremitus means

A

pleural effusion

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20
Q

decreased or absent fremitus can also mean

A

obstruction, air, empysema, pleural thickening, bronchial obstruction.

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21
Q

anterior mediastinal mass signs

A

leaning foward, stridor may compress trachea

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22
Q

resonance on percussion means

hyperresonance

dullness /flatness

A

healthy lung tissue

empysema, asthma, pneumo

pleural effusion, pneumonia, atlectasis, asthma

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23
Q

Vesicular lung sounds

Bronchovesicular

Bronchial

A

heard over healthy lung tissue over most lung low pitch

Heard over main bronchus medium pitch

heard over trachea high pitch

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24
Q

hyperresonnace is common in

also bronchial and bronchovestibular sounds are common in this age group

A

children

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25
Q

s1 sound is

A

lub and when systole contraction occurs

sound is from mitral and tricuspid valves closing

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26
Q

s2 sound is

A

dub and is diastole is when arotic and pulmonic close

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27
Q

s3 is during

s4

A

diastole and is sometimes there when the heart is filling

is when the atria contract to make sure all blood is ejected

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28
Q

sounds of heart sounds are best heard where

A

in the area away from the anatomic site because sound is transmitted in the direction of blood flow.

29
Q

closure of the ductus arteriosus occurs when

the heart lies more _ in children and infants the location is where?

adult heart position occurs at what age

A

24-48 hours

horizontally, fourth left intercostal space

7

30
Q

blood volume for prego increases by

returns to prepregnancy volume by

cardiac output increases by 30-40%

A

40-50%

3-4 weeks

31
Q

Chest pain in a _ or _ is seldom due to a cardiac problem

A

child or adolescent

32
Q

feeling for a thrill in second inter-coastal spaces can detect

A

aortic and pulmonic stenosis, atrial septal defect or pulm htn

33
Q

a loud _ always suggest pathology and needs additional eval

Kentucky goes with which heart sound

Tennessee

A

s4

s3

s4

34
Q

pregnancy more audible

_ is abnormal

_ ejection murmurs may be heard over pulmonic , but _ murmurs is not normal

A

S1 S2 and S3

s4

systolic , diastolic should not be louder than grade II

35
Q

Markle sign is seen with

A

peritoneal irritation (positive heel jar test)

36
Q

Tests for appendicitis are

A

Aaron sign (pain in heart stomach when pushing on mcburney point)

Blumberg (rebound tenderness)

Mcburney sign (pain in right lower quadrant)

Rovsing (Pain in right lower quadrant when left lower quadrant palpated)

37
Q

Peritoneal irritation tests

A

Ballance (Dullness on percussion on left and right flank changes with position)

Blumberg (Rebound tenderness)

Markle (heel jar) heel to floor causes abdominal pain

Rovsing (Pain in right lower quad when pushing on left lower)

38
Q

Murphy results from

A

cholecystitis

cessation of inspiration when palpating gallbladder

39
Q

Cullen sign

seen with

A

Ecchymosis around umbilicus

Hemoperitoneum, pancreatitis, ectopic pregnancy

40
Q

Gray turner

A

flank bruising

Hemoperitoneum, pancreatitis

41
Q

Dance sign is seen with

A

intussusception

Absence of bowel signs right lower quadrant

42
Q

Kehr sign

seen with

A

abdominal pain radiating to left shoulder

spleen rupture, renal calculi, ectopic pregnancy

43
Q

iloopsoas muscle test is done to look for

A

appendicitis , push down on leg when patient lifts if pain means

positive psoas sign

44
Q

Obturator muscle test is done to look for

A

ruptures appendix or pelvic abscess

lift leg to 90 degree grab by ankle and turn medially and laterally if pain R hypogastric region obturator muscle irritated

45
Q

spider nevi in newborn

A

liver disease

46
Q

superficial veins normal on abdomen in

distended veins across abdomen

A

thin infant

abnormal

47
Q

peristaltic waves in infant can mean

A

pyloric stenosis or intestinal obstruction

48
Q

Hepatitis b coinfection is

Hep E is self limited and occurs from

A

hep D

contaminated water fecal or food

49
Q

cirrhosis is mostly caused by

A

hep C and alcohol in US

50
Q

example of a hinge joint is the

ball and socket joint

A

elbow, knee

shoulder, hip

51
Q

ligaments are stronger than bone in _ and _ until _

A

infants children , adolescents (more prone to fractures)

52
Q

bone growth is completed by which age

A

20

53
Q

Osteoarthritis risk factors

A 
obesity
female 
family history 
hypermobility syndromes 
aging >40 
injury high level sports 
peripheral neuropathy
occupation with overuse of joints
54
Q

osteoporosis risk factors

A

Nulliparous
ammenorhea,
menopause
inadequate vitamin D, calcium excessive carbonated drinks
sedentary lifestyle, lack of aerobic or weight bearing exercise
race white, asian, native american

55
Q

passive range of motion often exceeds active by

if joint increase or limitation in ROM use

A

5 degrees

goniometer to measure angle

56
Q

muscle strength grading

A

0-5
0 no movement
1 trace movement
2 Full ROM not against gravity
3 Full ROM against gravity not resistance
4 Full ROM against gravity and some resistance, but weak
5 Full ROM against gravity and resistance

57
Q

RA signs

A

deviation of fingers to ulnar side
boutonniere disease
swan neck

58
Q

osteoarthritis seen as

these nodules are called

A

hard nontender nodules 2-3 mm in distal interphalangeal joints

Heberden nodes
Bouchard nodes

59
Q

subcurtaneous nodule on ulnar side may indicate

A

RA or gout tophi

60
Q

olecranon bursitis results in

A

swelling, tenderness of bursa

61
Q

crepitus, locking or popping in TMJ can mean

A

TMJ dysfunction

62
Q

kyphosis is common in

Lordosis in

Gibbus

A

elderly

prego or obese

collapsed verterbrae from osteoporosis (sharp , angular deformity)

63
Q

gouty arthritis suspected when

A

inflamed big toe

64
Q

Thickened achiles tendon

A

tendonitis

65
Q

HEAT, swelling, tenderness, redness, signs of inflamed joint caused by

A

RA, gout, septic joint, fracture, tendonitis

66
Q

genu valgum

genu varum

A

knock knees

bow legs (common in children till 18 months)

67
Q

carpal tunnels tests (medial nerve integrity)

A 
Katz test hand diagram 
thumb abduction (weakness when push on thumb) 
tinel sign (tap on wrist) 
phalen test (1 min hold if numbness or paresthesia)
68
Q

Allis sign is for _ to detect

A

infants , hip dislocation or shortened femur

69
Q

Barlow/Ortalani used to detect

A

hip dislocation or subluxation (clunk or sensation)

Health Assessment Final (1 decks)

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