Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

BCM > Head and Neck Anatomy > Flashcards

Head and Neck Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

CN I

A

Olfactory

Special sensory: smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CN II

A

Optic

Special sensory: vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CN III

A

Occulomotor

Motor: -

superior rectus

  • inferior rectus
  • medial rectus
  • inferior oblique
  • levator palpebrae superioris

Parasympathetic:

  • changes lens shape for accommodation
  • constricts pupil and ciliary muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CN IV

A

Trochlear

Motor: superior oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CN V

A

Trigeminal

SENSORY!!! and motor (V3 only)

V1 = Opthalmic

V2 = Maxillary

V3= Mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CN VI

A

Abducens

Motor: lateral rectus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CN VII

A

Facial

Sensory: taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue

Motor:

  • facial expression
  • Stapedius muscle to dampen sound
  • Orbicularis occuli to close eyes

Parasympathetic: “spitting and crying” - lacrimal gland - nasal mucosa - 2/3 salivary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CN VIII

A

Vestibulocochlear

Sensory: balance and hearing

Motor: inhibitory efferents allow hair cells to modify sounds coming in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CN XI

A

Glossopharyngeal

Sensory: gag reflex, sensation in the back of the tongue, hearing,

Parasymathetic: parotid salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CN X

A

Vagus

Sensory: Parasympathetic: Motor:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CN XI

A

Spinal Accessory

Motor: to sternocleidomastooid then trapezius muscle to lift shoulders up and down, move head side to side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CN V1

A

Opthalmic nerve

Sensory: forehead, cornea, tip of nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CN V2

A

Maxillary nerve

Sensory: cheek, upper lip, roof of mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CN V3

A

Mandibular nerve

Sensory: chin, bottom lip

Motor:

  • Anterior belly of digastric (nerve to myohyoid)
  • Myohyoid (nerve to myohyoid)
  • Temporalis (deep temporal)
  • Tensor palati
  • Tensor tympani- to dampen sound
  • Lateral pterygoid nerve
  • Medial pterygoid nerve
  • Masseter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Branches of V1

A

NFL

Nasocilliary

Frontal

Lacrimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Branches of CN VII that innervate orbicularis occuli

A

Temporal branch: superior eyelid

Zygomatic branch: inferior eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CN XII

A

Hypoglossal

Motor: movement of tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Three cranial nerves whose nuclei are not located in brainstem

A

CN I, II, XI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Spinal roots of CN XI

A

C1-C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cranial nerves that contain PRESYNAPTIC PARASYMPATHETIC fibers

A

3, 7, 9, 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Special sense only CN

A

1, 2, 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Motor only (striated)

A

IV, VI, XI, XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Two layers of dura

A

Periosteal layer (continuous with bone) Intermeningial layer (continuous with spinal cord dura)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

3 cranial meninges

A
  1. Pia mater 2. Arachnoid mater 3. Dura mater
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is the arachnoid mater held against the dura?

A

pressure from CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

3 parts of the arachnoid space

A
  1. granulations (allow CSF absorption into venous structures) 2. trabeculae (merges with pia) 3. sub arachnoid space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

rupture of middle meningeal artery

due to hard blow to the head

blood strips dura from cranium

arterial in origin

A

Epidural hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

separates dura/arachnoid

due to blow to head that jerks brain inside cranium

venous in origin

A

Subdural hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

due to aneurysm

arterial in origin

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what exits the supraorbital foramen?

A

V1 supraorbiral branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what exits the infraorbiral foramen?

A

V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Portion of skull the middle meningial arteriy lies under

A

Pterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

skull fracture at middle meningial artery causes

A

epidural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

is the groove/hiatus for greater or lesser petrosal more ANTERIOR?

A

Lesser petrosal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which is more ANTERIOR, jugular foramen or internal auditory meatus?

A

internal auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What passes through the stylomastoid foramen?

A

Facial Nerve (CN VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What passes through the jugular foramen?

A

jugular vein

CN IX, X, XI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What passes through the carotid canal?

A

internal carotid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What exits through the hypoglossal canal?

A

Hypoglossal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What passes through the foramen spinosum?

A

Middle meningial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What exits through foramen rotundum?

A

V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What exits through foramen ovale?

A

V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What exits through the cribiform plate?

A

Olfactory nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What exits through the optic canal?

A

Optic nerve and opthalmic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What exits through the superior orbital fissure?

A

CN III, IV, V1, VI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What exits through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

CN VII, VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What exits through the hypoglossal canal?

A

CN XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

infection of the arachnoid and pia mater

A

meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

dizziness, nausea, fatgue, metalic taste in mouth

A

CSF leak from subarachnoid space to dura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

interruption of normal SCF absorption through the arachnoid granulations

A

Hydrocephalous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Stroke vs TIA

A

Stoke: results in impaired neurological function after 24 hours

TIA: Impairment resolves within 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

CN I exits cranial cavity..

A

cribriform plate/foramina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

CN II exits the cranial cavity…

A

Optic canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

CN III exits the cranial cavity…

A

superior orbital fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

CN IV exits the cranial cavity…

A

suprior orbital fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

V1 exits the cranial cavity…

A

superior orbital fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

V2 exits the cranial cavity…

A

foramen rotundum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

V3 exits the cranial cavity…

A

foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

CN VI exits the cranial cavity…

A

superior orbital fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

CN VII exits the cranial cavity…

A

internal auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

CN VIII exits the cranial cavity…

A

internal auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

CN IX exits the cranial cavity…

A

jugular foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

CN X exits the cranial cavity…

A

jugular foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

CN XI exits the cranial cavity…

A

jugular foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

CN XII exits the cranial cavity…

A

hypoglossal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

levator palpebrae superioris innervation

A

CN III and sympathetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what do the levator palpebrae superioris and superior tarsal muscles attach to?

A

tarsal plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

superior tarsal muscle innervation

A

sympathetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

layer of the eye that contains blood vessels to give “blood shot” appearance

A

bulbar conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

ptosis

A

drooping eyelid due to loss of sympathetics to superior tarsal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

2 symptoms of Horner’s Syndrome

A
  1. ptosis
  2. miosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Horner’s syndrome results from

A

loss of sympathetic nerve supply to the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Lesion to CN III (2 things)

A
  1. completely closed eyelid
  2. mydriasis (due to unopposed sympathetics)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Flow of tears

A
  1. lacrimal gland
  2. puncta
  3. lacrimal canaliculi
  4. lacrimal sac
  5. nasolacrimal duct empties into nasal cavity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

CN III innervates what eye muscles

A

levator palpebrae superioris

superior rectus

medial rectus

inferior rectus

inferior oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

CN IV innervates what eye muscles

A

superior oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

CN VI innervates what eye muscles

A

lateral rectus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Branches of the nasocilliary nerve

A

Short ciliary

Long ciliary

Anterior and Posterior Ethmoidals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

branches of frontal nerve

A

supraorbital

supratrochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Long and short ciliary nerves go to

A

globe of eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

ethmoidals of V1 nasociliary go to

A

nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what branch of V1 supplies sensation to the forehead?

A

Frontal

Supraorbital is more superior to supratrochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

long ciliary nerve has what type of fibers from what ganglion

A

postsynaptic sympathetic

superior cervical ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

short ciliary nerve has what two types of fibers

A
  1. postsynaptic parasympathetic from ciliary ganglion

(presynaptic fibers are from CNIII)

  1. postsynaptic sympathetic

(from superior cervical ganglion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What do postsynaptic parasympathetic fibers in short ciliary nerves do?

A

accommodation and pupil constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

where does the superior cervical gangion come from?

A

carotid plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what nerves are responsible for the corneal reflex?

A

long and short ciliary fibers of V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Presynaptic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion are from what?

A

CN III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

4 things pass through the cavernous sinus

A

CN III, IV, VI on their way to the superior orbital fissure

Internal Carotid Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Pathway of postsynaptic sympathetic fibers to orbit

A
  • come from superior cervical ganglion
  • hitchhike on ICA
  • jump off ICA and hitchhike on long and short ciliary nerve fibers
  • go to globe of eye and to levator palpebrae superioris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Pathway of parasympathetic fibers to orbit

A

CN III to ciliary ganglion through SHORT ciliary fibers to globe of eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

4 parasympathetic ganglion to head

A

3977 COPS

CN III: ciliary ganglion

CN IX: otic ganglion

CN VII: pterygopalatine ganglion

CN VII: submandibular ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Opthalmic venous drainage pathway

A

superior orbital fissure > cavernous sinus > internal jugular via superior and inferior petrosal sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Pathway of opthalmic artery

A

internal carotid branch > through optic canal > ceneral artery of the retina dives into CN II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Lesion of CN VI will result in

A

adducted eye (due to unopposed action of MR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

CN III lesion results in…

A
  1. closed eyelid (loss of innervation to levator palpebrae superioris)
  2. mydriasis (loss of parasympathetics to iris, unopposed sympathetics)
  3. abducted eye (unopposed action of lateral rectus, CN VI)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

CN IV lesion results in…

A
  1. extorted and slightly elevated eye (unopposed IO)
  2. pt compensating by tilting away from the affected side and flexing head
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Outer layer of the globe (3 parts)

A
  1. sclera
  2. cornea
  3. (corneal) limbus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Middle layer of the globe/uveal tract (3 parts)

A
  1. choroid
  2. ciliary body with ciliary processes
  3. iris stroma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

embryonic origin of melanocytes of the iris

A

neural crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Inner layer of the globe (5 parts)

A
  1. retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)
  2. neural retina
  3. ora serrata
  4. anterior projections of ciliary processes
  5. posterior iris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Near Synkinesis Reflex is a response to stimulus consisting of: (3 things)

A
  1. Acommodation
  2. Convergence
  3. Miosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Lens looses elasticity with age and does not get FATTER despite the same contraction of circumfrential muscle in the ciliary body

A

presbyopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Termination of the retina

A

ora serrata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

2 vascular supplies to retina

A
  1. central retinal artery to inner 2/3
  2. choroidal vasculature to the outer 1/3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what does rhodopsin do?

A

It’s in the photoreceptor cells of the retina… it phototransduces light into an electrical signal that excites neurons.

These excite ganglion, which send AP through CN II

VISION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Primarily for dim light, black and white

A

rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Primarily for brigh light, color

A

Cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

where retinal nerve fibers come together to exit the eye as the optic nerve

A

optic disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

“blind spot”

A

optic disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

responsible for central vision

A

macula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

greatest density of cones

A

macula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

multiple layers of ganglion here as opposed to only one elsewere in the eye

A

macula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

center of the macula

A

fovea centralis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Loss of central vision is due to

A

macular degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

neural retina attaches to the RPE by

A

ion pumping of the RPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Histological components of the lens (3)

A
  1. capsule (type IV collagen)
  2. epithelium (simple cuboidal epithelium)
  3. fibers (crystalin alpha, beta, gamma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Embryologic origin of the lens

A

surface ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

3 anatomical layers of the lens

A
  1. capsule
  2. cortex
  3. nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Disease associated with lens dislocation

A

Marfan’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

= a crystaline lens that has lost its transparency

A

cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Risk factors for cataracts

A

DM
UV light

Smoing

Trauma

Aging

Meds (steroids)

Systemic Dz (Down’s, myotonic dystrophy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Histology of the conjunctiva

A

stratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Embryologic origin and type of collagen in the sclera

A

neural crest; type 1 collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Why is the sclera opaque?

A

IRREGULAR distribution of type 1 collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Why is the cornea clear?

A

REGULAR distribution of type 1 collagen and complete avascularity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Where the sclera and the cornea meet

A

limbus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Major focusing power of the eye

A

cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

curvature irregularities of the cornea causes

A

astygmatism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What nerve triggers the blink reflex?

A

V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

If the cornea is avascular, how does it recieve nurtrition? (3)

A
  1. tear film
  2. lateral diffusion from limbus vasculature
  3. aqueous humor in anterior chamber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

5 layers of the cornea

A

Elephants Bring Silly Dumbo Everywhere

  1. Epithelium

stratified, squamous non-keritonized

  1. Bowman’s layer
  2. Stroma

type I collagen

  1. Descement’s layer

type IV collagen

  1. Endothelium

contains ATP-driven pumps that remove water from teh stromal matrix to preserve the spacing that maintains corneal optic clarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

degenerative dz that causes protrusion of the cornea into a cone shape

A

keratoconus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Which layer of the cornea is affected in keratoconus?

A

Bowman’s layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

2 fun facts about corneal transplants

A
  1. only part of the eye we can transplant
  2. does not require HLA or blood type matching
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

the space formed where the cornea and the iris meet

A

the angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Flow of aqueous humor

A
  1. produced by epithelial cells of the ciliary processes in the posterior chamber
  2. flows behind iris
  3. flows through the iris into the anterior chamber
  4. drained by Schlemm’s canal in the angle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Formation of aqueous humor and secretion into the posterior chamber is the result of three things:

A
  1. active secretion
  2. ultrafiltration
  3. simple diffusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

purpose of aqueous humor

A

to provide nutrients to the cornea and lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

2 major routes of aqueous humor outflow

A
  1. trabecular outflow: pressure-dependent
  2. uveoscleral outflow: pressure-independent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

pathway of trabecular outflow for aqueous humor

A

out of anterior chamber through trabecular meshwork > Schlemm’s canal > scleral veins > cavernous sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Pathophysiology of open-angle glaucoma

A

dysfunctional outflow/obstruction leads to increased IOP, which kills optic nerve cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Describe loss of vision in open-angle glaucoma

A

SLOW and painless. goes from periphery to the center. patients don’t realize it’s happening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

3 main risk factors for open-angle glaucoma

A

increasing age

FHx

African American

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

4 portions of the optic nerve

A
  1. nerve fiber
  2. prelaminar
  3. laminar
  4. retrolaminar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

the primary site of axonal injury to ganglion cells in glaucoma

A

lamina cribrosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

lamina cribrosa

A

= specialized part of the sclera where the optic nerve passes through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

3 C’s of a glocomatous optic nerve

A

Cupping: central depression of the optic disc is larger than normal

Color: pale instead of pink

Contour: sharp margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

2 muscles attach to to mastoid process

A
  1. SCM
  2. postior belly of digastric
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What cranial nerve exits the skull through the stylomastoid foramen?

A

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Carotid canal terminates at articuation with the sphenoid bone to form what?

A

foramen lacerum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Where does corda tympani exit the temporal bone?

A

petrotympanic fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

The gap between the petrous portion of temporal the bone and the occipital bone

A

jugular foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What runs in the hiatus of facial canal?

A

greater petrosal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

The petrous ridge of the petrous portion of the temporal bone is the location of two things:

A
  1. attachment of the tentorium cerebelli
  2. superior petrosal sinus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Real name for eustacian tube

A

pharyngotympanic tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

3 branches the facial nerve gives off before exiting the skull

A
  1. greater petrosal nerve
  2. chorda tympani
  3. tiny branch to the stapedius muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Tensor tympani muscle innervation

A

CN V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

where does the largest portion of CN VII exit the skull?

A

stylomastoid foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

the opening of the posterior wall of the middle ear cavity that leads to the mastoid air cells

A

aditus ad antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

portion of the malleus that attaches to the tympanic membrane

A

handle of the malleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

tip of the handle of the malleus attaches to the…

A

umbo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

hyperaccusis is associated with lesion of what cranial nerve?

A

VII (stapedius muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

stapedius originates from where?

A

posterior wall of the middle ear cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

the head of the stapes articulates with what?

A

long process of incus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

the base of the stapes attaches to the…

A

oval window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

innervation of the stapedius muscle

A

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Mastoiditis endangers what nerve?

A

Facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

the promontory in the middle ear cavity is due to what?

A

deeper lying cochlea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

what nervous structure is found on the promontory in the middle ear cavity?

A

Tympanic plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

the tympanic plexus is from what nerve?

A

sensory of CN XI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Some branches of CN XI go into the temporal bone via canaliculi. What’s the risk?

A

otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

describe the fibers that make up the greater petrosal nerve

A

preganglionic parasympathetic

from CN VII

going to the lacrimal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

describe the fibers that make up the lesser petrosal nerve

A

preganglionic parasympathetic

from CN IX

to the parotid gland

continuation of the tympanic plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

part of the tympanic membrane that doesn’t vibrate as much

A

pars flacida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

pars flaccida is in what quadrant of the TM?

A

posterosuperior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

cone of light is in what quadrant of the TM?

A

anteroinferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

TM quadrant location for myringotomy and tube placement

A

posteroinferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

what provides general sensory innervation to the middle ear cavity?

A

tympanic plexus of CN IX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

nerve that supplies sensation to the helix of the outer ear

A

auriculotemporal nerve - a branch of V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

nerve that supplies sensation to the lobe of the outer ear

A

greater auricular nerve - C2, C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

VERY thin bone creating the roof of the middle ear cavity

A

tegmen tympani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What sits on top of the tegmen tympani?

A

dura of the middle cranial fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

what comes next if otitis media is not treated?

A

mastoiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

swimmer’s ear

A

otitis externa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

signs of otitis externa

A

pulling on auricle and/or applying pressure to the tragus increases pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

what if you see a bulging red tympanic membrane on exam?

A

sign of otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

incision to release pus from a middle ear abscess

A

myringotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

complication of mastoiditis

A

osteomyelitis of tegmen tympani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

what part of the temporal bone forms the anterior wall of the external auditory canal?

A

tympanic plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

what separates the middle and posterior cranial fossa?

A

petrous ridge of the petrous portion of the temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

pain info associated with otitis media will be carried by…

A

tympanic plexus of CN IX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

special sensory innervation to the inner ear is provided by…

A

vestibular and cochlear portions of CN VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

what features are located in the posterior wall of the middle ear cavity?

A

mastoid air cells and the facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

the concavity of the TM is pointed…

A

anteriorly, laterally, inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

where does the transmission of sound from bone to fluid occur?

A

oval window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

stylohyoid is innervated by…

A

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

posterior belly of digastric is innervated by…

A

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

muscles of facial expression are innervated by…

A

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

innervation of the anterior belly of digastric

A

nerve to myohyoid

201
Q

Where does the greater petrosal nerve terminate/what is it’s function?

A
  1. lacrimal gland for tear production
  2. nasal cavity for mucous production
202
Q

describe the fibers of the deep petrosal nerve

A

postsynaptic sympathetic fibers that have jumped off the ICA

203
Q

describe the fibers of the nerve of the pterygoid canal

A

postsynaptic sympathetic fibers of the deep petrosal nerve + presynaptic parasympathetic fibers of the greater petrosal nerve

204
Q

greater petrosal nerve hitchhikes on what other nerve to get to the lacrimal gland and mucous glands of the nasal cavity?

205
Q

where does chorda tympani terminate/what is its function?

A
  1. anterior 2/3 of tongue for taste sensation
  2. submandibular gland for mucous production
  3. sublingual gland for saliva secretion
206
Q

chorda tympani hitchhikes on what nerve to the floor of the mouth?

A

lingual nerve of V3

207
Q

synaps of chorda tympani’s parasympathetic fibers occurs at which ganglion?

A

submandibular ganglion

208
Q

synapse of greater petrosal nerve’s parasympathetic fibers occurs at which ganglion?

A

pterygopalatine ganglion

209
Q

describe the fibers of chorda tympani

A

parasympathetics to the submandibular and sublingual glands

sympathetics for taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

210
Q

where does chorda tympani exit the skull?

A

petrotympanic fissure

211
Q

In a lesion with facial paralysis/Bell’s palsey: if there is preserved taste function, where did the lesion occur?

A

distal to chorda tympani

212
Q

In a lesion with facial paralysis/Bell’s palsey: with NO taste function, where did the lesion occur?

A

proximal to chorda tympani

213
Q

If you have a lesion that is resulting in Bell’s palsey, do you also have louder hearing on one side?

A

yes. an infection producing Bell’s palsey also affects stapedius

214
Q

Mumps has what consequence in the face?

A

enlarged parotid gland

215
Q

parotid duct function

A

carries saliva from the parotid gland and dumps it into the mouth

216
Q

parotid gland function

A

saliva synthesis and secretion

217
Q

innervation of the parotid duct

A

lesser petrosal nerve (CN IX)

218
Q

things that pass through the parotid gland

A

external carotid artery

retromandibular vein

major portion of facial nerve (will supply muscles of facial expression)

auriculotemporal branch of V3 (with hitchhiking secretomotor fibers from otic ganglion (IX))

parotid duct

219
Q

termination of the parotid duct? (Stenson’t duct)

A

pierces the buccinator and ends opposite the upper second molar

220
Q

6 named branches of the facial nerve to muscles of facial expression

A

“To Zanzibar By Motor Car”

  1. Temporal
  2. Zygomatic
  3. Buccal
  4. Maxillary
  5. Cervical
  6. Posterior Auricular
221
Q

temporal branch of CN VII innervates…

A

upper eyelid of orbicularis occuli and superior to that

222
Q

zygomatic branch of the facial nerve innervates…

A

the lower eyelid of orbicularis occuli

223
Q

buccal branch of facial nerve innervates…

A

upper lip and buccinator muscle

224
Q

mandibular branch of facial nerve innervates…

A

lower lip and chin

225
Q

cervical branch of facial nerve innervates…

226
Q

posterior auricular branch of facial nerve innervates…

A

occipitalis muscle

227
Q

special sensory taste fibers going to the tongue have their soma in which ganglion?

A

geniculate ganglion

228
Q

what defines the superficial and deep portions of the parotid gland?

A

passage of the facial nerve

229
Q

what is the terminal branch of the nasocilliary nerve?

A

external nasal nerve

230
Q

what branches of CN V2 carry hitchhiking fibers of CN VII to the lacrimal gland?

A

zygomaticofacial and zygomaticotemporal

231
Q

nerve supplying sensation to the inside of the cheek

A

buccal branch of V3

232
Q

nerve supplying sensation to the chin

A

mental branch of V3

233
Q

named nerve supplying sensation to the tip of the nose

A

external nasal banch of V1

234
Q

named nerve supplying sensation to the bridge of the nose

A

infratrochlear branch of V1

235
Q

named nerve supplying sensation to the middle forehead

A

supratrochlear branch of V1

236
Q

named nerve supplying sensation to just above the eyebrow

A

supraorbital branch of V1

237
Q

named nerve supplying sensation to the lateral eyebrow

A

lacrimal branch of V1

238
Q

named nerve that supplies sensation to the cheek just below the eye

A

infraorbital branch of V2

239
Q

named nerve that supplies sensation to the temporal region

A

zygomaticotemporal branch of V2

240
Q

named nerve that supplies sensation to the tip of cheek bone area

A

zygomaticofacial branch of V2

241
Q

named nerve that supplies sensation to the jaw line

A

greater auricular nerve (C2, C3)

242
Q

named nerve that supplies sensation to the ear lobe

A

greater auricular nerve (C2, C3)

243
Q

Named nerve that supplies sensation to the proximal helix of the outer ear (concha?)

A

auriculotemporal branch of V3

244
Q

named nerve that supplies sensation to the skin behind the ear

A

lesser occipital nerve (C2, C3)

245
Q

named nerve that supplies sensation to the skin on the posterior head

A

greater occipital

246
Q

frontalis muscle is innervated by…

A

CN VII temporal branch

247
Q

occipitalis muscle is innervated by…

A

posterior auricular (occipital) branch of CN VII

248
Q

orbicularis oris muscle is innervated by…

A

buccal and mandibular branches of CN VII

249
Q

embryonic origin of the muscles of facial expression

A

2nd pharyngeal arch

250
Q

5 layers of the scalp

A

SCALP
1. Skin

  1. Connective tissue
  2. aponeurosis (gala aponeurotica)
  3. Loose areaolar tissue
  4. pericranium
251
Q

innervation of skin superficial to platysma

A

transverse cervical nerve

252
Q

function of buccinator muscle

A

pushes food medially when eating, sucking on a straw.

food accumulates between teeth and gums if buccinator muscle looses nerve supply

253
Q

the retromandibuolar vein is formed by the junction of what two veins?

A

superficial temporal vein + maxillary vein

254
Q

common facial vein is formed by the junction of what two veins?

A

anterior division of the retromandibular vein + facial vein

255
Q

the anterior division of the retromandibular vein drains into…

A

internal jugular vein

256
Q

the posterior division of the retromandibular vein drains into the…

A

external jugular vein

257
Q

describe the clinical significance of the danger triangle

A

infections of the face near the nose may spread into the cranial cavity by passing through the emmissary veins associated with the pterygoid plexus of veins (may also spread through opthalmic veins of the orbit). Opthalmic veins and emmisary veins of the pterygoid plexus will drain into the cavernous sinus.

258
Q

what makes the facial nerve of newborns so vulnerable and puts them at risk for facial paralysis (especially during the birthing process)?

A

their skulls lack a mastoid process, so the facial nerve is not well-protected

259
Q

which cranial nerve does Bell’s palsey affect?

260
Q

which muscle is important for swallowing without drooling?

A

orbicularis oris

261
Q

which muscle plays a role in eating but NOT mastication??

A

buccinator

262
Q

Where do the branches of CN V exit the cranial cavity?

A

“Standing Room Only”

V1: Superior orbital fissure

V2: foramen Rotundum

V3: foramen Ovale

263
Q

function of the masseter

A

elevation of the mandible

264
Q

function of the temporalis muscle

A

elevation and retraction of the mandible

265
Q

innervation of the temporalis muscle

A

DEEP temporal nerve of V3

266
Q

what is the doorway from the infratemporal fossa to the pterygopalatine fossa?

A

pterygomaxillary fissure

267
Q

the pterygomaxillary fissure connects the infratemporal fossa to the…

A

pterygopalatine fossa

268
Q

petrotympanic fissure

A

where chorda tympani exits the skull

269
Q

pterygopalatine fossa

A

houses the pterygopalatine ganglion (in which presynaptic parasympathetic fibers of GPN synapse onto postsynaptic parasympathetic fibers)

located between the maxilla and the pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone

270
Q

pterygomaxillary fissure

A

the doorway/connection between the infratemporal fossa and the pterygopalatine fossa

271
Q

infratemporal fossa

A

inferior to zygomatic arch, medial to ramus of the mandible, lateral to the lateral pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone

272
Q

what exits the mental foramen?

A

inferior alveolar nerve

273
Q

what is on the body of the mandible and holds the teeth in place?

A

alveolar process

274
Q

what ENTERS the mandibular foramen?

A

inferior alveolar nerve

275
Q

what does the inferior alveolar nerve supply?

A

sensation to lower teeth

276
Q

what is the function of the lateral pterygoid muscle?

A

protraction and lateral grinding of the mandible

277
Q

what is the function of the medial pterygoid muscle?

A

elevation and grinding of the mandible

278
Q

does the lateral or medial pterigoid muscle have a vertical orientation?

A

medial pterygoid muscle

279
Q

describe the differences in attachmets between the lateral and medial pterygoid muscles

A

Lateral: from LATERAL aspect of the lateral pterygoid plate and the inferior surface of greater wing of the sphenoid

Medial: from MEDIAL aspect of the lateral pterygoid plate and posterior surface of the maxilla

280
Q

These TWO muscles contribute to the protrusion and lateral grinding motion of teeth

A

medial and lateral pterygoid muscles

281
Q

two things that live in the pterygopalatine fossa

A
  1. branches of V2
  2. pterygopalatine ganglion
282
Q

Contraction of pterygoid muscles on the LEFT will move the mandible…

A

to the RIGHT

283
Q

what two branches of V3 come out between the lateral and medial pterygoid muscles in the infatemporal fossa?

A
  1. lingual
  2. inferior alveolar
284
Q

what is the function of the lingual nerve?

A

general sensory to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue (chorda tympani does TASTE here and hitchhikes on the lingual nerve to the tongue)

285
Q

nerve to myohyoid is a branch of what nerve?

A

inferior alveolar nerve

286
Q

auriculoemporal nerve forms a loop around what artery?

A

middle meningial artery

287
Q

auriculotemporal nerve runs with what artery?

A

superficial temporal artery

288
Q

what supplies sensation to the upper teeth and mandible?

A

posterior superior alveolar nerve

289
Q

posterior superior alveolar is a branch of what nerve

290
Q

8 muscles with motor innervation from V3

A
  1. anterior belly of digastric
  2. temporalis
  3. lateral pterygoid
  4. medial pterygoid
  5. masseter
  6. myohyoid
  7. tensor tympani
  8. tenor palati
291
Q

specific innervation of anterior belly of digastric (motor)

A

nerve to myohyoid (branch of V3)

292
Q

specific name of motor innervation to lateral pterygoid muscle

A

lateral pterygoid nerve (branch of V3)

293
Q

speciffic innervation of medial pterygoid muscle (motor)

A

medial pterygoid nerve (branch of V3)

294
Q

specific innervation of masseter (motor)

A

masseteric nerve (branch of V3)

295
Q

termination of the middle meningial artery

A

sphenopalatine artery

296
Q

nasal cavity is supplied by which artery?

A

sphenopalatine artery

297
Q

secretomotor parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland are supplied by what?

298
Q

how do postsynaptic parasympathetic fibers of CN IX (coming from otic ganglion) get to the parotid gland?

A

they hitchhike on the auriculotemporal nerve

299
Q

describe the lesser petrosal nerve

A

presynaptic parasympathetic nerves of CN IX coming from the tympanic plexus going to the otic ganglion

300
Q

lateral wall of the temporal bone

A

squamous portion

301
Q

floor of the temporal bone

A

petrous portion

302
Q

what artery runs on the inside of the squamous portion of the temporal bone?

A

middle meningeal

303
Q

what comes out of foramen spinosum?

A

middle meningeal artery

305
Q

foramen lacerum is a gap between what two things?

A

greater wing of the sphenoid and the petrous portion of the temporal bone

306
Q

jugular foramen is a gap between what two things?

A

occipital bone and the petrous portion of the temporal bone

307
Q

lesser petrosal nerve exits the skull where after going through the middle ear and running along the petrous portion of the temporal bone?

A

foramen ovale

308
Q

the common carotid bifurcates what what vertebral level?

309
Q

what is the vertebral level of the lower pharynx/larynx?

310
Q

what holds the dens against the anterior arch of the atlas?

A

cruciate ligament of the atlas

311
Q

what joint turns the head side to side, “no”

A

atlantoaxial joints

312
Q

what joint nonds the head “yes”

A

atlantooccipital joints

313
Q

what prevents over extension of the head?

A

anterior atlanto-occipital membrane

314
Q

what prevents hyperflexion of the head?

A

posterior atlanto-occipital membrane

315
Q

what syndromes cause laxity of the the craniovertebral ligaments?

A

spinal cord injury

Down’s

RA

316
Q

25% of stroke occur…

A

in the vertebral artery

317
Q

where does the vertebral artery enter the cranial cavity?

A

foramen magnum

318
Q

right and left vertebral arteries form to become the…

A

basilar artery

319
Q

hyoid bone sits at what vertebral level?

320
Q

clinical correlation of the cricothyroid ligament

A

important for emergency access to lower airway when the upper airway is blocked

321
Q

cervical plexus includes what spinal cord levels?

322
Q

C1-C7 exit the spinal canal above or below their respective vertebrae?

A

ABOVE. beginning with C8 spinal cord level, the nerves will exit above their corresponding vertebrae

323
Q

motor portion of the cervical plexus

A

Ansa cervicalis

324
Q

investing fascia of the neck contains what two muscles?

A
  1. trapezius
  2. SCM
325
Q

which fascia layer extends laterally as the axillary sheeth?

A

prevertebral fascia

326
Q

contents of the carotid sheath (3)

A
  1. carotid arteries
  2. internal jugular vein
  3. vagus nerve
327
Q

carotid bodies are innervated by CN…

328
Q

carotid sinus are innervated by CN…

329
Q

carotid sinus detect…

A

blood pressure (baroreceptors)

330
Q

carotid bodies detect…

A

O2 content (chemoreceptors)

331
Q

this vessel pierces the investing fascia just above the clavicle

A

external jugular vein

332
Q

4 muscles of the suboccipital triangle

A
  1. rectus capitus posterior major
  2. rectus capitus posterior minor (doesn’t define triangle)
  3. obliquus capitus inferior

obliquus capitus superior

333
Q

2 important facts about the suboccipital triangle

A
  1. it is the region of passageway for the vertebral artery FROM foramen transversarium of C1, PIERCES the posterior atlanto-occipital membrane, and goes INTO the vertebral foramina on it’s way to the skull
  2. only area where aspects of posterior rami are seen and given names
334
Q

Named posterior ramus of C1

A

suboccipital nerve

335
Q

named posterior ramus of C2

A

greater occipital nerve

336
Q

named posterior ramus of C3

A

third occipital nerve

337
Q

what nerve runs on the surface of anterior scalene muscle

A

phrenic nerve (C3, C4, C5)

338
Q

two triangles of the lateral neck

A
  1. occipital triangle (larger)
  2. subclavian/omoclavicular triangle (smaller)
339
Q

sensory branches of the cervical plexus (and spinal roots)

A
  1. lesser occipital (C2)
  2. greater auricular (C2, C3)
  3. transverse cervical (C2, C3)
  4. supraclavicular (C3, C4)
340
Q

which lymph nodes lie along the EJV?

A

superficial cervical lymph nodes

341
Q

which lymph nodes lie along the IJV?

A

deep cervical lymph nodes

342
Q

sentinel lymph node of the tonsils

A

jugulodigastric

343
Q

sentinel lymph node of the tongue

A

jugulo omo-hyoid

344
Q

SCM innervation

345
Q

geniohyoid innervation

346
Q

stylohyoid innervation

347
Q

posterior belly of digastric innervation

348
Q

anterior belly of digastric innervation

349
Q

thyrohyoid innervation

350
Q

sternothyroid innervation

A

C1-C3, ansa cervicalis

351
Q

sternohyoid innervation

A

C1-C3, ansa cervicalis

352
Q

omohyoid innervation

A

C1-C3, ansa cervicalis

353
Q

spinal cord levels of superior root of ansa cervicalis

354
Q

spinal cord levels of inferior root of ansa cervicalis

355
Q

boundaries of the submandibular triangle

A
  1. hyoid
  2. anterior bellies of digastric
  3. myohyoid muscles (floor)
  4. mandibular symphysis
356
Q

muscular triangle boundaries

A
  1. superior belly of omohyoid
  2. anterior border of SCM
  3. midline of the neck
357
Q

carotid triangle borders

A
  1. superior belly of omohyoid
  2. posterior belly of digastric
  3. anterior border of SCM
358
Q

borders of submandibular triangle

A
  1. inferior border of mandible
  2. anterior and posterior bellies of digastric
  3. mylohyoid (floor)
359
Q

3 cervical ganglion and their roots

A

superior (C1, C2)

middle (C6)

inferior (C7)

*** NO white rami communicans

360
Q

embryologic origin of the thyroid gland

A

foramen cecum

361
Q

superior thyroid artery is a branch off the..

A

external carotid artery

362
Q

inferior thyroid artery is a branch off the…

A

thyrocervical trunk

363
Q

the one muscle in the suprahyoid region innervated by C1

A

geniohyoid

364
Q

C1 innervates what 2 muscles

A

geniohyoid

thyrohyoid

365
Q

Roots of the cervical plexus (dorsal/sensory + ventral/motor)

366
Q

Roots of sensory branches of the cervical plexus

367
Q

Roots of the motor branches of cervical plexus (=ansa cervicalis)

368
Q

What nerve runs on the anterior surface of anterior scalene?

A

Phrenic (C3-C5)

369
Q

Location of the jugulodigasctic deep cervical lymph node

A

Where the postior belly of the digastric crosses the internal jugular vein

370
Q

Location of the Jugulo-omohyoid deep cervical lymph node

A

At the tendon of omohyoid

371
Q

What drains to the Jugulodigastric lymph node?

372
Q

What drains to the jugulo-omohyoid lymph node?

373
Q

What vertebral level does the cricoid cartilage sit at and what does it represent?

A

C6

End of the pharynx, beginning of the esophagus

374
Q

Omohyoid innervation

A

Superior belly: superior root of ansa cervicalis

Inferior belly: inferior root of ansa cercicalis

375
Q

Embryological remnant of the thyroglossal duct

A

Foramen cecum

376
Q

Which tonsil lies between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal folds?

A

Palatine tonsil

377
Q

Four intrinic tongue muscles

A
  1. Superior longitudinal
  2. Inferior longitudinal
  3. Transverse
  4. Vertical
378
Q

What do the intrinsic tongue muscles do?

A

Change the shape of the tongue

(no boney attachments)

379
Q

Innervation on the intrinsic tongue muscles

A

Hypoglossal (CNXII)

380
Q

Four extrinsic muscles of the tongue

A
  1. Genioglossus
  2. Hyoglossus
  3. Styloglossus
  4. Palatoglossus
381
Q

What do the extrinsic tongue muscles do?

A

Move the tongue

(they have boney attachments)

382
Q

Action on palatoglossus

A

Lift tongue up

383
Q

Action of genioglossus

A

Stick tongue out

384
Q

Styloglossus action

A

Bring tongue backwards

385
Q

Hyoglossus action

A

Move tongue down, towards bottom of oral cavity

386
Q

Innervation of the extrinsic tongue muscles

A

All are innervated by hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), EXCEPT… palatoglossus, which is innervated by glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

387
Q

What would a patient with a lesion to the hypoglossal nerve present with?

A

Tongue deviating TO the AFFECTED side… away from the healthy side

388
Q

Taste innervation of the tongue

A

Anterior 2/3: CN VII via chorda tympani

Posterior 1/3: CN IX

Epiglotis/behind tongue: CN X

389
Q

Somatic sensation (touch, pain) innervation of the tongue

A

Anterior 2/3: Lingual nerve, CN V3

Posterior 1/3: CN IX

Epiglotis/behind tongue: CN X

390
Q

Arterial supply to the tongue

A

Lingual artery from the external carotid artery

391
Q

submandibular, sublingual, and microscopic mucosal glands are innervated by what?

A

chorda tympani

392
Q

3 structures superficial to hyoglossus muscle:

A
  1. Lingual nerve (of CN V3)
  2. Warton’s duct
  3. Hypoglossal nerve (CN IX)
393
Q

2 structures deep to the hyoglossus muscle:

A
  1. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
  2. lingual artery
394
Q

What causes cleft palate?

A

failure of the mesenchymal masses in lateral palatine processes to meet and fuse…

maxillary and palatine bones to fuse in the midline as the intermaxillary and interpalatine sutures

395
Q

Four soft palate muscles

A
  1. Tensor veli palatine (above)
  2. Levator veli palatine (above)
  3. Palatoglossus (below)
  4. Palatopharyngeous (below)
396
Q

Innervation of the soft palate muscles

A

All are innervated by Vagus nerve (CN X), EXCEPT…

Tensor veli palatine, which is CNV3

397
Q

If unilateral Vagus nerve is paralyzed, what would the patient present as?

A

Uvula deviating AWAY from the affected side, toward the healthy side

398
Q

The Greater and Lesser Palatine Arteries come from where?

A

They come from the pterygopalatine fossa, and are branches of the maxillary artery (branchh of external carotid)

399
Q

The Nasopalatine, Greater Palatine, and Lesser Palatine nerves contain what type of fibers?

A
  1. Somatosensory from CN V2
  2. Parasympathetic visceral motor from CN VII
  3. Sympathetics
400
Q

The hard palate recieves most of its sensory innervation from terminal branches of the Maxillary nerve division of the Trigeminal nerve (CNV2), what is the acception?

A

Buccal nerve is a branch of the Mandibular division of CN V3, and innervates the lateral, posterior teeth

401
Q

Where do you administer nerve blocks for upper and lower teeth?

A

Upper: multiple injections

Lower: one injection at mandibular foramen

402
Q

Borders of the nasopharynx

A

Choana to the uvula

403
Q

Borders of the oropharynx

A

Uvula to the epiglottis

404
Q

Borders of the laryngopharynx

A

Epiglottis to cricoid cartilage

405
Q

Anterior boundary of the nasopharynx

406
Q

anterior boundary of the oropharynx

A

palatoglossal arch

407
Q

anterior boundary of the laryngopharynx

A

laryngeal inlet

408
Q

origin of all 3 pharyngeal constrictors

A

pharyngeal raphe

409
Q

anterior attachments of superior pharyngeal constrictor (3)

A
  1. medial pterygoid plate
  2. hamulus
  3. pterygomandibular raphe
410
Q

anterior attachments of the middle pharyngeal constrictor (2)

A
  1. stylohyoid ligament
  2. hyoid bone
411
Q

anterior attachments of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor (2)

A
  1. thyroid cartilage
  2. cricoid cartilage
412
Q

2 layers of the pharyngeal fascia

A

Buccopharyngeal fascia (outside)

Pharyngobasilar fascia (inside)

413
Q

Three pharyngeal lifters

A
  1. Stylopharyngeus
  2. Palatopharyngeus
  3. Salpingopharyngeus
414
Q

projection of the medial end of the cartilagenous pharyngeotympanic tube is called…

A

torus tubarius

415
Q

Mucous membrane found just inferior to the pharyngeal orifice in the nasopharynx

A

lebator veli palatine

416
Q

lies under the mucus membrane along the arch of the torus tubarius, deep to levator veli palatine

A

tensor veli palatine

417
Q

2 functions that levator veli palatine and tensor veli palatine do together, at the same time

A
  1. raise the soft palate
  2. opent the PT tube
418
Q

all muscles of the palate are innervated by _____, EXCEPT _____, which is innervated by _____.

A

Vagus

Tensor veli palatine

V3`

419
Q

all muscles of the pharynx are innervated by _____, EXCEPT _____, which is innervated by ______.

A

Vagus

stylopharyngeus

only motor branch of IX

420
Q

Boundary between the oral cavity and the pharynx

A

palatoglossal fold

421
Q

Three muscles originate from the styloid process

A
  1. stylohyoid
  2. stylopharyngeous
  3. styloglossus
422
Q

Vertebral level of superior cervical ganglion

423
Q

vertebral level of middle cervical ganglion

424
Q

vertebral level of inferior (Stellate) cervical ganglion

425
Q

All muscles of the larynx are innervated by _____, EXCEPT _____, which is innervated by ______.

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve (Vagus)

cricothyroid

superior laryngeal nerve (external branch)

426
Q

8 muscles innervated by V3

A
  1. masseter
  2. temporalis
  3. medial pterygoid
  4. lateral pterygoid

(4 muscles of mastication)

  1. tensor tympani
  2. tensor veli palatine

(2 tensors)

  1. mylohyoid
  2. anterior belly of digastric

(2 accessory muscles of mastication)

427
Q

4 tonsils from superior to inferior

A

PTPL

Pharyngeal

Tubal

Palatine

Lingual

428
Q

Where does lymph from the tonsils generally drain to?

A

jugulodigastric (superior deep) lymph nodes

429
Q

6 locations of superficial lymph nodes

A
  1. scattered along external jugular vein
  2. occipital
  3. posterior auricular (mastoid)
  4. parotid
  5. submandibular
  6. submental
430
Q

3 locations of deep lymph nodes

A
  1. scattered along internal jugular vein
  2. jugulodigastric: at posterior belly of digastric crossing the internal jugular vein
  3. jugulo-omohyoid: at intermediate tendon of omohyoid
431
Q

Sentinel lymph nodes primarily targeted by cancer mets

A

jugulodigastric

juguloomohyoid

432
Q

jugulodigastric gets drainage from where?

A

roof of oral cavity and posterior tongue

433
Q

Floor of oral cavity and anterior tongue drains to which lymph nodes…

A

to submental or submandibular nodes, then to deep cervical nodes

434
Q

what runs through the pterygoid canal (2)

A
  1. parasympathetic greater petrosal nerve
  2. sympathetic deep petrosal nerves

Both >>> to pterygopalatine ganglion

435
Q

maxillary and sphenoid sinuses drain properly when head is in what position?

A

flexed

spenoid ostium are higher than the floor of the phenoid sinues, which maes drainage in the erect position difficult

436
Q

anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries come from where?

A

opthalmic artery

437
Q

sphenopalatine artery is the TERMINAL branch of what artery

A

TERMINAL branch of maxillary artery

438
Q

Greater palatine artery is a branch of which artery

A

maxillary artery

439
Q

septal branch of superior labial artery is a branch of which artery

A

facial artery

440
Q

4 arteries of the nasal septum

A
  1. ethmoidals (from opthalmic artery)
  2. greater palatine artery (from maxillary artery)
  3. sphenopalatine artery (terminal branch of mexillary artery)
  4. septal branch of superior labial artery (from facial artery)
441
Q

site of anastamoses of nasal arteries

A

Kiesselbach’s area

442
Q

Nasopalatine nerve contains… (3)

A
  1. sensory fibers from V2
  2. parasympathetic fibers from pterygopalatine ganglion (VII)
  3. sympathetics from pterygopalatine ganglion
443
Q

what nerves run at the very top of the nasal septum

A

anterior and posterior ethmoidals from V1 nasocilliary nerve

444
Q

4 spaces on lateral wall of nasal cavity

A
  1. inferior nasal meatus
  2. middle nasal meatus
  3. superior nasal meatus
  4. spheno-ethmoidal meatus
445
Q

what drains into spheno-ethmoidal meatus

A

sphenoid sinus

446
Q

what drains into superior nasal meatus?

A

posterior ethmoidal sinus

447
Q

what drains into middle nasal meatus?

A

frontal sinus

maxillary sinus

anterior ethmoidal sinus

middle ethmoidal sinus

448
Q

what drains into inferior nasal meatus

A

nasolacrimal duct

449
Q

CN V2 sensory + VII p/s + sympathetics gives rise to 5 nerves of the nasal cavity:

A
  1. superior nsal branch (on middle concha)
  2. inferior nasal branch (on inferior concha)
  3. nasopalatine nerve
  4. greater palatine nerve
  5. lesser palatine nerve
450
Q

function on the nasal conchae

A

increase surface area of nasal canal for cleansing, warming, and humidifying incoming air

451
Q

parasympathetics cause ______ of the nasal mucosal arteries

A

vasodilation

452
Q

sympathetics cause ______ of the nasal mucosal arteries

A

vasoconstriction

453
Q

4 sets of nasal sinuses

A
  1. frontal (2)
  2. maxillary (2)
  3. sphenoid (1 or 2)
  4. ethmoidal air cells (3 per side)
454
Q

3 functions of sinuses

A
  1. lighten skull
  2. add resonance
  3. protect brain from temperature of inspired air
455
Q

drainage of frontal sinus

A

anterior hiatus semilunaris through ethmoidal infundibulum

456
Q

Maxillary sinus drainage

A

middle hiatus semilunaris through maxillary ostium

457
Q

Sphenoid sinus drainage

A

through spheno-ethmoidal recess

458
Q

ethmoidal air cell sinus drainage

A
  1. posterior ethmoidal air cells: superior nasal meatus
  2. middle ethmoidal air cells: semilunar hiatus >> middle nasal meatus
  3. anterior ethmoidal air cells: ethmoidal infundibulum >> middle nasal meatus
459
Q

nasolacrimal duct drains into…

A

inferior nasal meatus

460
Q

Maxillary, sphenoid, and poisterior ethmoidal sinuses ONLY drain when head is in ______ positoin

461
Q

which sinus has the poorest drainage?

A

maxillary sinus: its location is lower than the drain opening

462
Q

lymph from anterior nasal cavity drains to…

A

submandibular lymph nodes then to jugulodigastric nodes

463
Q

posterior nasal cavity lymph drains to…

A

tonsils, then to jugulodigastric nodes

464
Q

Length and thickness of the vocal cords are fixed, how do you change the tension?

A
  1. stretch the strings by rocking the thyroid back and forth
  2. harden the strings by contracting the muscle and stretching
465
Q

2 muscles shorten the vocal cord

A

vocalis

thyroarytenoid

466
Q

what does the cricothyroid muscle do to the vocal cords

A

elongate and tense the vocal cords

467
Q

muscles that adduct the vocal cords (4)

A
  1. lateral cricoarytenoid
  2. thyroarytenoid
  3. oblique arytenoid
  4. transverse arytenoid
468
Q

ONLY muscle to abduct (open) the vocal cords

A

posterior cricoarytenoid

469
Q

muscle that pulls the epiglottis toward the arytenoid cartilages and CLOSES the larynx

A

aryepiglottis muscle

470
Q

what is the ligament at the inferior tip of the epiglottis?

A

thyroepiglottic ligament

471
Q

what ligament is in the glossoepiglotic fold?

A

hyoepiglotic ligament

472
Q

the hyoepiglottic ligament is in what fold?

A

glossoepiglottic fold

473
Q

function of the hyoepiglottic ligament

A

pulls the epiglottis back into its vertical position

474
Q

these are spaces that hold saliva to delay the swallowing reflex

A

valleculae

475
Q

false vocal cord is in what fold?

A

vestibular fold

476
Q

superior laryngeal artery brances from what?

A

superior thyroid artery

477
Q
  1. superior laryngeal nerve branches from what?
  2. and gives off what branches?
A
  1. Vagus
  2. internal branch and external branch
478
Q

internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve’s function

A

sensory to vestibule

479
Q

external branch of superior laryngeal nerve’s function

A

motor to cricothyroid

480
Q

All laryngeal muscles are are innervated by _____, EXCEPT ______, which is innervated by ______.

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve (from vagus)

cricothyroid

external branch of superior laryngeal nerve

481
Q

Sensory innervation above the true vocal cord (entire vestibule)

A

internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

482
Q

Sensory innervation below the true vocal cords

A

recurrent (inferior) laryngeal nerve

BCM (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions