Head And Neck Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 main muscles in the head?

A

o Muscles of facial expression
o Muscle of the cheek (buccinators)
o Occipitofrontalis muscle
o Muscles of mastication

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2
Q

What are the functions of the muscles in the face?

A

The muscles of the face are in the subcutaneous tissue and they move the skin and change facial expressions

They surround the orifices (opening) of the mouth, eyes and nose and act as sphincters and dilators to open and close them.

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3
Q

Do the muscles of the face pull or push?

A

Most muscles, attached to bone or fascia produce their effects by pulling the skin.

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4
Q

What is the function of the buccinators?

A

The buccinators keep the cheeks taut (not slack) and aids in chewing.

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5
Q

What nerve are the muscles of mastication supplied by?

A

mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (branch of CN V).

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6
Q

What is CNVII and what does it supply?

A

Facial nerve
supplies the superficial muscle of the neck and chin (platysma), muscles of facial expression, buccinators, muscles of the ear and the occipitofrontalis muscle.

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7
Q

What is the course of the facial nerve?

A

It exits the cranium and enters the substance of the parotid gland in which it divides into its extra-cranial branches. It exits the facial canal via the stylomastoid foreamen

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of facial paralysis?

A

The most common non-traumatic cause of facial paralysis is inflammation of the facial nerve near its exit from the cranium at the stylomastoid foramen.
The inflammation causes oedema and compression of the nerve (Bell’s palsy) in the intracranial facial canal, resulting in a number of structural and functional disorders.

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9
Q

What happens during Bell’s Palsy?

A

The affected area sags, and facial expression is distorted, making it appear passive or sad.

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10
Q

What happens during facial nerve damage?

A

As the branches of the facial nerve are superficial, they are subject to injury in wounds, cuts and in child-birth. As the nerve and its branches pass through the parotid gland, they are vulnerable to injury during surgery on the gland or in disease of the gland.

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11
Q

What is a consequence of parotid gland disease?

A

Parotid gland disease often causes pain in the auricle of the ear, external acoustic meatus, temporal region and the TMJ.

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12
Q

What is the blood supply to the face?

A

Branches of the external carotid artery.

The facial artery is the major arterial supply to the face.

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13
Q

Where do you feel for the facial artery pulse?

A

The pulse of the facial artery can be palpated as the artery winds around the inferior border of the mandible.

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14
Q

Why do you have to compress both arteries during facial artery laceration?

A

Because the artery has many anastomoses with other arteries of the face, in the event of laceration of the artery on one side of the face, it is necessary to compress both the arteries to stop bleeding.

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15
Q

What is the main venous drainage of the face?

A

facial vein

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16
Q

Where does the facial nerve drain into?

A

Internal jugular vein

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17
Q

Where do Superficial temporal vein and maxillary vein drain into?

A

External jugular vein

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18
Q

Where do internal and external jugular vein drain into?

A

Subclavian vein

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19
Q

What are the structures in the neck surrounded by?

A

Layer of subcutaneous tissue

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20
Q

How are structures in the neck compartmentalised?

A

Layers of deep cervical fascia

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21
Q

Define superficial cervical fascia

A

layer of fatty connective tissue that lies between the dermis of the skin and the investing layer of deep cervical fascia

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22
Q

What does the superficial cervical fascia contain?

A

It contains cutaneous nerves, blood and lymphatic vessels, superficial lymph nodes and variable amounts of fat.
Anterolaterally, it contains the platysma.

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23
Q

What is the platysma?

A

broad, thin sheet of muscle in the subcutaneous tissue of the neck

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24
Q

Which pharyngeal arch does the platysma develop from?

A

2nd Pharyngeal arch

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25
Q

What is the nerve supply to the platysma?

A

Facial nerve

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26
Q

Where do you find the platysma?

A

The platysma covers the anterolateral aspect of the neck. Inferiorly, the fibres diverge, leaving a gap anterior to the larynx and trachea.

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27
Q

What is the function of the platysma?

A

Acting from its superior attachment, the platysma tenses the skin.

Acting from its inferior attachment, the platysma helps depress the mandible and draw the corners of the mouth inferiorly, as in a grimace.

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28
Q

What are the 3 layers of the deep cervical fascia?

A

Investing
Pretracheal
Prevertebral

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29
Q

What does the carotid sheath contain?

A

common carotid arteries, internal jugular veins and vagus nerves

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30
Q

What are the functions of deep cervical fascia?

A

o Support
• Viscera (e.g. thyroid gland)
• Muscles, Vessels and deep Lymph Nodes
o Limit the spread of abscesses that result from infections
o Slipperiness that allows structures in the neck to move and pass over one another without difficulty
• Swallowing
• Turning the head and neck

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31
Q

What is the investing layer?

A

most superficial, the investing layer surrounds the entire neck deep to the skin

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32
Q

What does the investing layer contain?

A

o Sternocleidomastoid
o Trapezius
o Submandibular and Parotid Salivary Glands

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33
Q

How does the pretracheal layer run in the neck?

A

A thin layer, limited to the anterior part of the neck. Inferiorly it extends into the thorax, where it blends with the fibrous pericardium. Laterally it blends with the carotid sheath.

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34
Q

What does the pretracheal layer enclose?

A
o	Muscular layer
       •	Encloses infrahyoid muscles
o	Visceral layer
       •	Thyroid gland
       •	Trachea
       •	Oesophagus
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35
Q

How does the prevertebral layer extend in the neck?

A

The innermost layer of the deep fascia, which forms a sheath for the vertebral column and the muscles associated with it. Extends from the base of the cranium of the 3rd thoracic vertebra and extends laterally as the axillary sheath that surrounds the axillary vessels and the brachial plexus.

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36
Q

What is the course of the carotid sheath?

A

A tubular, fibrous structure that extends from the base of the cranium to the root of the neck.

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37
Q

What does the carotid sheath contain?

A

o The common carotid artery - medially
o Internal jugular vein - laterally
o The vagus nerve (CN X) - inbetween and posterior

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38
Q

How does infection spread in the deep cervical layers?

A

Determine the direction in which abscesses in the neck may spread. If an infection occurs:
o Between the Investing layer and the muscular part of the pretracheal surrounding the infrahyoid muscles, it will not spread beyond the manubrium.
o Between the Investing and visceral Pretracheal layers, it can spread into the thoracic cavity anterior to the pericardium.
o Pus from an abscess lying behind the Prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia may extend laterally in the neck.
• May perforate the fascial layer and enter the retropharyngeal space.
• This will produce a bulge (retropharyngeal abscess) in the pharynx, resulting in dysphasia (difficulty swallowing) and dysphonia (difficulty speaking)

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39
Q

What is retropharyngeal space?

A

potential space between the Prevertebral layer of fascia and the fascia surrounding the pharynx superficially.

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40
Q

What is the importance of retropharyngeal space?

A

major route of spread of infection from the neck to the thorax.

The space runs to the diaphragm.

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41
Q

What are the borders of the anterior triangle of the neck?

A

o Anterior – Mid line
o Posterior – The anterior border of SCM
o Superior – Inferior border of the mandible
o Apex – Jugular notch in the manubrium
o Roof – Superficial cervical fascia, containing the platysma
o Floor – Pharynx, larynx, thyroid gland

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42
Q

What are the subdivisions of the anterior triangle of the neck?

A

Submandibular triangle
Submental triangle
Carotid triangle
Muscular triangle

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43
Q

What does the submandibular triangle contain?

A
  • Submandibular gland
  • Submandibular lymph nodes
  • Hypoglossal and Mylohyoid nerves
  • Parts of facial artery and vein
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44
Q

What does the submental triangle contain?

A
  • Submental lymph nodes

* Small veins which unite to form anterior jugular vein

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45
Q

What does the carotid triangle contain?

A
•	Carotid sheath
      o	Common carotid artery 
      o	Internal jugular vein 
      o	Vagus nerve
      o	Deep Cervical Lymph Nodes
•	Thyroid gland
•	Larynx
•	Pharynx
•	External carotid artery and some of its branches
•	Hypoglossal and Spinal accessory nerves
•	Branches of cervical plexus
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46
Q

What does the muscular triangle contain?

A
  • Sternothyroid
  • Sternohyoid
  • Thryoid
  • Parathyroid
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47
Q

What are the borders of the posterior triangle in the neck?

A

o Anterior – Posterior border of SCM
o Posterior – Anterior border of Trapezius
o Inferiorly – Middle third of the clavicle, between Trapezius and SCM
o Apex – Where SCM and Trapezius meet on the superior nuchal line of the occipital bone
o Roof – Investing layer of deep cervical fascia
o Floor – Muscles covered by the Prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia

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48
Q

What are the subdivisions of the posterior triangle?

A

Occipital triangle

Omoclavicular (subclavian) triangle

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49
Q

What are the contents of the occipital triangle?

A
  • Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI)
  • Trunks of Brachial Plexus
  • Part of external jugular vein
  • Posterior branches of cervical plexus
  • Cervicodorsal trunk
  • Cervical lymph node
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50
Q

What are the contents of the omoclavicular (subclavian) triangle?

A
  • 3rd part Subclavian Artery
  • Part of Subclavian Vein
  • Suprascapular artery
  • Supraclavicular lymph nodes
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51
Q

What are the attachments of the hyoid muscles?

A

In the anterolateral part of the neck, the hyoid bone provides attachments for the Suprahyoid Muscles superiorly, and the Infrahyoid Muscles inferiorly.

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52
Q

What are the functions of the hyoid muscles?

A

steady or move the hyoid and larynx.

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53
Q

Name the suprahyoid muscles

A
o	Mylohyoid
o	Geniohyoid
o	Stylohyoid
o	Digastric Muscles
•	Two bellies (Anterior and Posterior)
•	Joined by an intermediate tendon
•	Fibrous sling, from Pretracheal layer of Deep Cervical Fascia allows the tendon to slide anteriorly and posteriorly
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54
Q

What are the suprahyoid muscles innervated by?

A
o	Mylohyoid (inferior alveolar nerve)
o	Geniohyoid (Cranial nerve I)
o	Stylohyoid (Facial nerve)
o	Digastric Muscles
•	Anterior - Facial nerve
•       Posterior - Inferior alveolar nerve
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55
Q

What are the functions of the suprahyoid muscles?

A

Supporting the hyoid in providing a base from which the tongue functions. They also elevate the hyoid and larynx in relation to swallowing and tone production.

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56
Q

What are the innervations to the infrahyoid muscles?

A

C1 - C3 innervation

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57
Q

What are the infrahyoid muscles?

A

o Superficial Plane
• Sternohyoid
• Omohyoid
• Has two bellies (Superior and Inferior)
• Joined by an intermediate tendon
• Fascial sling for the tendon connects to the clavicle
o Deep Plane
• Sternothyroid
• Thyrohyoid

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58
Q

What are the functions of the Infrahyoid muscles?

A

Anchor the hyoid, sternum, clavicle and scapula, and depress the hyoid and larynx during swallowing and speaking.
They also work with the Suprahyoid muscles to steady the hyoid, providing a firm base for the tongue.

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59
Q

What is the blood supply to the head and neck?

A

Common Carotid Arteries and Vertebral Arteries.

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60
Q

What is the blood drainage from the head and neck?

A

Internal Jugular Vein, with the External Jugular Vein and Anterior Jugular Vein

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61
Q

How does the carotid sheath form?

A

Fusion of:
o The Prevertebral layer of cervical fascia
• Posteriorly
o The Pretracheal layer of cervical fascia
• Anteromedially
o The Superficial layer of cervical fascia
• Anterolaterally

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62
Q

Where does the sympathetic trunk lie in relation to the carotid sheath?

A

Medially and posterior

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63
Q

Where does the Right common carotid artery originate from?

A

bifurcation of the Brachiocephalic Trunk behind the right sternoclavicular joint.

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64
Q

Where does the Left common carotid artery originate from?

A

Arch of the Aorta.
Consequently, the left common carotid artery is slightly longer as it courses for about 2cm in the superior mediastinum before entering the neck.

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65
Q

Where do the common carotids terminate?

A

midway between the angle of the mandible and the mastoid process of the temporal bone. A reliable anatomical landmark for this is the upper border of the thyroid cartilages.

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66
Q

What do you find at the bifurcation of the common carotids?

A

Carotid sinus?

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67
Q

What is the vertebral level of the bifurcation of the common carotids?

A

C4

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68
Q

What do you find at the carotid sinus?

A

Baroreceptors, which detect changes in blood pressure.

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69
Q

What is the importance of the carotid sinus?

A

used to Alleviate Supra-Ventricular Tachycardia through gentle rubbing. This is known as a Carotid Massage.

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70
Q

What do you find at the carotid body?

A

Peripheral Chemoreceptors, which detect arterial O2 concentrations

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71
Q

What is a common problem at the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries?

A

common site for atheroma formation. This causes narrowing (stenosis) of the artery.
Rupture of the clot can cause an embolus to travel to the brain. This will cause a Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA) or Stroke.

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72
Q

How are internal carotid arteries different to external carotid arteries?

A

Lack branches in the neck

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73
Q

How does the internal carotid artery enter the skull?

A

Through the carotid canal

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74
Q

What are the branches of the external carotid artery?

A

8 branches

Stop Superior Thyroid
Alcohol Ascending Pharyngeal
Late Lingual
Friday Facial
Or Occipital
Puke Posterior Auricular
More Maxillary
Saturday Superficial Temporal

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75
Q

What do you find within the substance of parotid gland?

A

Maxillary and Superficial Temporal Arteries within the substance of the Parotid Gland. It is accompanied here by the Facial Nerve (CN VII) and the Retromandibular Vein.

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76
Q

Where do the vertebral arteries arise from?

A

Subclavian artery

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77
Q

What is the course of the vertebral artery?

A

ascend through the Transverse Foramen in Cervical Vertebrae 6 → 1

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78
Q

Which vertebral transverse foramen does the vertebral artery not go through?

A

C7

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79
Q

What is the function of the vertebral arteries?

A

Supply brain along with internal carotid arteries

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80
Q

Which nerves can be accessed via the carotid triangle?

A

Vagus and Hypoglossal nerves

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81
Q

What are the borders of the carotid triangle?

A
o	Superiorly
•	Posterior Belly of the Digastric
o	Laterally
•	Sternocleidomastoid
o	Medially
•	Superior belly of Omohyoid
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82
Q

What are the layers of the scalp?

A
o	Skin
o	Connective tissue (dense)
o	Aponeurosis
o	Loose connective tissue
       •	Contains blood vessels
o	Periosteum
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83
Q

Which 2 arteries to the scalp are not derived from the external carotid artery?

A

Supratrochlear and suborbital arteries

Which are branches of opthalmic arteries which arise from internal carotid arteries

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84
Q

Why does the scalp bleed profusely?

A

Numerous anastomoses and the walls of the arteries being closely attached to connective tissue, limiting their constriction.

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85
Q

Why do deep lacerations of epicranial aponeurosis bleed profusely?

A

Opposing pull of occipitofrontalis

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86
Q

Why does blood loss to scalp not lead to skull necrosis?

A

Different blood supply

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87
Q

Which artery supplies the skull?

A

Middle Meningeal artery

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88
Q

What is the venous drainage of the scalp?

A

Superficial veins accompany arteries
o Superficial Temporal Veins
o Occipital Veins
o Posterior Auricular Veins

Some deep parts of the scalp in the temporal region have veins that drain into the Pterygoid Venous Plexus.

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89
Q

What is the course of drainage of skull?

A

Supraorbital and Supratrochlear Veins unite at the medial angle of the eye to form the Angular Vein, which drains into the Facial Vein.

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90
Q

How are veins of scalp dural venous sinuses connected?

A

The veins of the scalp connect to the Diploic Veins of the Skull via several valve-less Emissary Veins and therefore connect to the Dural Venous Sinuses.

This relationship means that infection from the scalp can spread to the cranial cavity and affect the meninges.

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91
Q

What is the blood supply to the dura and skull?

A

The Anterior and Posterior Branches of the Middle Meningeal Artery supplies the Dura and Skull. It is is a branch of the Maxillary Artery, which in turn is a branch of the External Carotid Artery.

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92
Q

What is extradural haemorrhage?

A

bleeding deep to the cranium but superficial to the Dura.

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93
Q

What is craniotomy?

A

gain access into the cranial cavity. When preformed the bone and skin flap are reflected inferiorly to preserve blood supply.

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94
Q

Where do you find dural venous sinuses?

A

Endothelium-lined spaces between the periosteal and meningeal layers of the Dura.

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95
Q

Which veins drain into the dural venous sinuses?

A

o Superior Sagittal Sinus
o Inferior Sagittal Sinus
o Cavernous Sinus
o Sigmoid Sinus
• Continue as the Internal Jugular Veins
• Exit the skull through the jugular foramen
o Transverse Sinus

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96
Q

What are the superficial arteries of the face?

A

External Carotid Artery, except the Supraorbital and Supratrochlear that are from the Internal Carotid Artery via the Opthalmic Artery.

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97
Q

What is the blood supply to the face?

A

Facial
•External Carotid
•Muscles of facial expression and face

Superior and Inferior Labial
•Facial
•Upper lip, side and septum of nose
Lower lip

Maxillary
•External Carotid
•Deep structures of the face

Lateral Nasal
•Facial
•Skin on ala and dorsum of nose

Angular
•Facial
•Superior cheek and lower eyelid

Transverse Facial
•Superficial Temporal
•Facial muscles and skin of temporal frontal and temporal regions

Supratrochlear
•Opthalmic (Int. Carotid)
•Muscles and skin of forehead and scalp
Superior conjuctiva

Supraorbital
•Opthalmic (Int. Carotid)
•Muscles and skin of forehead and scalp
Superior conjuctiva

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98
Q

What is the venous drainage of the face?

A

Facial Vein, which in turn drains into the Internal Jugular Vein.

Cavernous sinus
Supratrochlear vein
Supra-orbital vein
Angular vein
Deep facial vein
Facial vein
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99
Q

What is the cavernous sinus?

A

plexus of extremely thin-walled veins on the upper surface of the spehnoid bone.

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100
Q

What is the content of the cavernous sinus?

A
o	Internal Carotid Artery
o	CN III – Oculomotor
o	CN IV – Trochlear
o	CN VI – Abducent
o	CN V – Trigeminal
       •	CN V 1 – Opthalmic 
       •	CN V 2 – Maxillary
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101
Q

Where do facial vein and superior opthalmic vein communicate?

A

At the medial angle of the eye the Facial Vein and the Superior Opthalmic Vein communicate and drain into the Cavernous Sinus

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102
Q

What are problems of deep facial veins draining into pterygoid plexus?

A
  • Infection can travel from Facial Vein → Dural Venous Sinuses
  • Thrombophlebitis of Facial Vein – Infected clot can travel to intracranial system
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103
Q

What is the venous drainage of the head?

A
superior sagittal sinus
Cavernous sinus
Transverse sinus
sigmoid sinus
facial vein
jugular vein
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104
Q

Which muscle does the IJV lie under?

A

Under sternocleidomastoid

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105
Q

Which vein is used to show right atrium pressure?

A

Internal jugular vein

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106
Q

How do you measure JVP?

A

o Use right IJV
o Effectively like a direct connection to right atrium
o Patient at 450 angle
o Height from sternal angle + 5cm

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107
Q

What are the regional lymph nodes?

A
o	Occipital
o	Retroauricular (A.k.a. Mastoid)
o	Parotid
o	Buccal  (A.k.a. Facial)
o	Submandibular
o	Submental
o	Anterior
o	Cervical
o	Superficial Cervical
       •	Along the course of External Jugular Vein
o	Retropharyngeal
o	Laryngeal
o	Tracheal
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108
Q

What are the terminal lymph nodes + what does drain?

A

o A.k.a. Deep Cervical Nodes
• Receive all the afferent lymph vessels of the head and neck, either directly or indirectly, via one of the regional groups.
• Closely related to the Carotid Sheath (Internal Jugular Vein)

o Jugulo-Digastric
• A.k.a. Tonsillar node
• Located just below and behind the angle of the mandible
• Lymphatic drainage of tonsil and tongue

o Jugulo-Omohyoid
• A.k.a. Tongue node
• Lymphatic drainage of the tongue, oral cavity, trachea, oesophagus and the thyroid gland

oDeep Cervical Nodes in the Posterior Triangle of the neck
• Lie along the course of the Accessory Nerve.
• Accessory Nerve may have to be removed in malignancy of the neck

o Supraclavicular nodes
• Root of the neck
• Enlarge in late stages of malignancies of the thorax and abdomen
• Virchow’s Node associated with Gastric Carcinoma

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109
Q

Explain the jugular lymph trunk

A

On the left side the Jugular Lymph Trunk usually joins the Thoracic Duct, which enters the Left Brachiocephalic Vein at the junction between the Subclavian and Internal Jugular Veins.

On the right side the Jugular Lymph Trunk enters the venous system at the junction between the Subclavian and Internal Jugular Veins, but this time via a short Right Lymphatic Duct.

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110
Q

What is the thoracic duct?

A

Thoracic Duct is the body’s main duct for the return of lymph to venous blood.

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111
Q

What is the course of the thoracic duct?

A

o Begins in the abdomen at the cisterna chyli (L2)
o 38-45cm long
o Extends vertically in the chest and curves posteriorly to the left Common Carotid Artery and left Internal Jugular Vein
o Empties into the Left Brachiocephalic Vein at the junction between the Subclavian and Internal Jugular Veins
• Left Venous Angle

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112
Q

What does the right lymphatic duct drain?

A

o Drains the upper right side of the body
• Right side of head and neck
• Right upper limb
• Right thorax

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113
Q

Where does the right lymphatic duct drain into?

A

o Drains into the junction of the Subclavian Vein and Internal Jugular Vein
• Right Venous Angle

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114
Q

What is lymphadenopathy?

A

Lymphadenopathy is the enlargement of lymph nodes

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115
Q

What are the causes of lymphadenopathy?

A
o	Infection
•	Feel tender, smooth
•	Glandular Fever
o	Malignancy
•	Feel non-tender, craggy
•	Primary or Metastases
•	Lymphoma, Head and Neck Cancers
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116
Q

What are the causes of glandular fever?

A

o Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)

o Viral infiltration produces atypical lymphocytes

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117
Q

What are the symptoms of glandular fever?

A

o Swollen, painful lymph node, sore throat, fatigue, fever

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118
Q

What is the treatment for cervical metastases?

A

block dissection of the cervical nodes. This procedure involves the removal, as a unit (en bloc), of the Internal Jugular Vein, Fascia, Lymph Nodes and the Submandibular Salivary Gland.

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119
Q

What are the functions of lymph nodes?

A

o Phagocytic cells act as filters for particulate matter and micro-organisms
o Antigen is present to the immune system

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120
Q

What are the structures of lymph nodes?

A
Fibrous capsule
o	Lymphatic Sinuses
o	Blood vessels
o	Parenchyma 
(Cortex, paracortex, medulla)
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121
Q

How do B cells enter lymph nodes?

A

In the cortex of the lymph nodes, B cells enter lymph nodes via post capillary venules that have High endothelial venules, and pass to follicles.

Unstimulated B cells pass out rapidly to return to circulation with lymph.

If activated by antigenic stimulation, B cells proliferate and stay in lymph nodes

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122
Q

What are activated B cells within lymphoid follicles known as?

A

Follicle centre cells

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123
Q

What is a germinal centre?

A

Pale staining central area of secondary follicle

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124
Q

What happens to stimulated B cells in lymph nodes?

A

Stimulated B cells proliferate and undergo somatic hypermutation and are selected for high affinity antibodies to the antigen displaced by follicular dendritic cells. They then take up the antigen, process and present it to T cells.
T cells then further promote the development of B cells by releasing of cytokines (IL-4). B cells then become centrocytes and then centroblasts.

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125
Q

What do follicle centre cells contain?

A

Follicle centre cells either have cleaved nuclei (Centrocytes) or more open/several nuclei (centroblasts).

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126
Q

What happens to the centroblasts?

A

The centroblasts leave the follicle and pass to the paracortex and medullary sinuses, where they become immunoblasts.

Immunoblasts give rise to plasma cells or memory B cells.

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127
Q

What is the content of the paracortex in the lymph nodes?

A

The paracortex contains lymphocytes, accessory cells and supporting cells.
The Paracortex is the predominant site for T-Lymphocytes in the lymph node.

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128
Q

What is the content of the medulla in the lymph nodes?

A

The medulla is rich in macrophages and comprises:
o Large blood vessels
o Medullary cords
• Rich in plasma cells
• Produced Ab’s pass out of the node via the efferent lymphatic
o Medullary sinuses

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129
Q

What are the bones in the head?

A
Ethmoid 
Frontal
Inferior conchae
Lacrimal
Mandible
Maxilla
Nasal
Parietal
Sphenoid
Temporal
Vomer
Zygomatic
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130
Q

What are the bones of the face?

A
Inferior nasal concha (2)
Lacrimal bones (2)
Mandible
Maxilla (2)
Nasal bones (2)
Palatine bones (2)
Vomer
Zygomatic bones (2)
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131
Q

Which bones form the pterion?

A

Parietal
Temporal
Sphenoid
Frontal

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132
Q

What are bones forming the cranium?

A

Cranial Bones:

Calvaria
•	Frontal
•	Parietal (2)
•	Occipital
•	Ethmoid

Cranial Base
• Sphenoid
• Temporal (2)

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133
Q

What is the structure of the calvaria?

A

The bones of the calvaria consist of 2 layers of compact bone separated by a layer of bone marrow, the Diploe.

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134
Q

What do the bones of the cranial base articulate with?

A

1st cervical vertebra
Facial skeleton
Mandible

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135
Q

What are the 3 types of sutures joining the bones?

A

Coronal
Sagittal
Lamboidal

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136
Q

At which sites are skull fractures more prone?

A

o Squamous Temporal Bone and Parietal Bone over the temples and sphenoid air sinus
o Foramen Magnum and the inner parts of the Sphenoid Wing at the skull base
o Anterior Cranial Fossa
• Cribriform plate of the Ethmoid Bone, roof of the orbits
o Middle Cranial Fossa
• The weakest, with thin bones and multiple foramina
o Posterior Cranial Fossa
• Areas between the mastoid and dural sinuses

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137
Q

What are the symptoms of skull fractures?

A

Bleeding from the wound, ear, nose or around eyes, bruising, draining of CSF from ears or nose, swelling, confusion, convulsions, difficulties with balance, drowsiness, headache, loss of consciousness, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbance, stuff neck and slurred speech.

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138
Q

What are the types of fractures that can occur in the skull?

A

Depressed Fracture
A severe, localised blow may result in a local indentation, in which a fragment of bone may compress or injure the underlying brain.

Linear Calvarial Fractures
Trauma to the Calvaria often results in radiating linear fractures, the fracture lines radiating away from the point of impact in two or more directions.

Comminuted Fractures
The bone is broken into several pieces.

Contrecoup (Counterblow) fracture
No fracture occurs at the point of impact, but one occurs on the opposite side of the cranium.

Simple Fracture
A break in the bone without damage to the skin

Compound Fracture
Involves a break in, or loss of, skin and splintering of the bone accompanied by brain injury and bleeding.

Basal Skull Fracture
Presents with Battle’s Sign

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139
Q

What can occur if there is a fracture at the pterion?

A

Bone fragments from fractures may rupture the Middle Meningeal Artery, leading to an Extradural Haemorrhage

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140
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Bone inflammation due to infection

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141
Q

How can you get spread of infection to the skull?

A

The Emissary Veins (see above) connect the superficial veins of the scalp with the Diploic Veins of the skull bones and with the Intracranial Venous Sinuses, providing a route for infection. Infection of the scalp may spread to the skull bones via these veins,

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142
Q

Name the foramen of the calvaria

A
Foramen Magnum
Foramen ovale
Foramen spinosum
Foramen Lacerum
Carotid Canal
Jugular Foramen
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143
Q

What are the main features of the facial skeleton?

A
Frontal
Zygomatic
Orbits
Nasal Region
Maxillae
Mandible
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144
Q

What does the frontal bone articulate with?

A
  • Nasal bones
  • Zygomatic bones
  • Lacrimal bones
  • Ethmoid bone
  • Spehnoid bone
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145
Q

What does the Zygomatic bone articulate with?

A
  • Frontal bone
  • Sphenoid bone
  • Temporal bones
  • Maxillae
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146
Q

What is the name of the joint where the mandible articulates with the cranial base?

A

Temporomandibular joint

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147
Q

How do Maxillofacial fractures occur?

A

massive facial trauma. A hard blow to the lower jaw often results in a fracture of the neck of the mandible and may be associated with TMJ dislocation.

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148
Q

How is a black eye caused?

A

Skin bruising around the orbit causes tissue fluid and blood to accumulate in the surrounding connective tissue.

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149
Q

How is bleeding caused as a result of facial fracture?

A

A trauma or blow to the Supraciliary Arches may cause laceration of the skin and cause profuse bleeding.

150
Q

What are malar flush?

A

Redness of the skin covering the Zygomatic bones is associated with Mitral Stenosis.

151
Q

Which is the strongest cervical vertebra bone?

A

Axis - Cervical vertebra 2

152
Q

How can the cervical spine dislocate?

A

dislocated in neck injuries with relatively less force than is required to fracture them.

Slight dislocations may not damage the spinal cord because of the large vertebral canal, but severe dislocation can cause serious injuries.

153
Q

Explain how fractures of the dens can occur

A

o May occur due to a fall on the head
o Displacement of fractured dens may injure the spinal cord
• Quadriplegia - paralysis leading to total loss of limb and torso movement
o Displacement of fracture dens may injure the medulla of the brainstem
• Death

154
Q

Explain how hyperflexion of cervical region can occur

A

o Head on collisions (car)
o Rupture of lower intervertebral discs (C5/C6 and C6/C7) resulting in compression of spinal roots C6 and C7
o Pain is felt in the neck, shoulder, arm and hand

155
Q

Explain how hyperextension of cervical region can occur

A

o Whiplash injury (rear-end car collision)
o Tearing of anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments, fracture of cervical spinous processes, disc rupture, neck muscle injury, blood vessel injury

156
Q

Explain how osteoarthritis of cervical spine can occur

A

o Joints of the vertebral arches (zygopophyseal joints) are close to intervertebral foramina through which spinal nerves emerge
o When these joints are affected by Osteoarthritis (osteophyte formation), related spinal nerves are compressed, causing pain along dermatomes and muscle spasms along myotomes

157
Q

Explain a broken neck

A

o Compression of the cervical spine against the shoulder
o May involve spinal cord damage
• Partial or complete paralysis
• Death
o Most common at C2, C6 and C7
o The most fatal injuries occur in the upper part of the spine (C1 or C2)

158
Q

Explain a burst fracture

A

o Head first fall from height

o Diving head first into a pool

159
Q

Explain a hangman’s fracture

A

o Hyperextension of the head on the neck

160
Q

What is the infratemporal fossa?

A

irregularly shaped space on the lateral aspect of the skull.

161
Q

What is the content of the infratemporal fossa?

A

o Inferior part of the Temporalis muscle
o Inferior parts of the Medial and Lateral Pterygoid muscles

o Maxillary Artery
• Larger terminal branch of External Carotid Artery
o Middle Meningeal Artery
• Branch of the Maxillary Artery
o Superficial Temporal Artery
• Smaller terminal branch of External Carotid Artery

o Maxillary Vein
o Middle Meningeal Vein(s)
o Pterygoid Venous Plexus

o	Mandibular Nerve 
•	3rd Branch of the Trigeminal (CN V3)
o	Branches of the Mandibular Nerve
•	Auriculotemporal Nerve
•	Inferior Alveolar Nerve
•	Lingual Nerve
•	Buccal Nerve
•	Chorda Tympani (Branch of Facial Nerve)
o	Otic Ganglion
162
Q

What are the openings of the infratemporal fossa?

A
o	Foramen Ovale
•	Mandibular division of Trigeminal Nerve (CN V3)
o	Foramen Spinosum
•	Middle Meningeal Artery
o	Alveolar Canal
o	Inferior Orbital Fissure
o	Pterygomaxillary Fissure
163
Q

Explain mandibular nerve block

A
o	Anaesthetic is injected near the Mandibular Nerve, where it enters the Infratemporal fossa
•	Near to Foramen Ovale
o	Nerves affected:
•	Inferior Alveolar
•	Lingual
•	Buccal
•	Auriculotemporal
164
Q

What is an inferior alveolar nerve block?

A

o Dental procedures
o Anaesthetic is injected around the Mandibular Foramen
• Passage for the inferior alveolar nerve and vessels
• Medial side of the mandible
o All mandibular teeth are anesthetised on the medial side
o Skin and mucous membranes of the lower lip, the labial alveolar mucosa, gingivae and skin of the skin are also anesthetised
• Mental Branch of the Inferior Alveolar Nerve

165
Q

What type of joint is the TMJ?

A

modified hinge type synovial joint between the Mandible and the Cranium.

166
Q

What is the articulation of the TMJ?

A
Superiorly
o	Mandibular Fossa
•	Posterior and concave
o	Articular Tubercle
•	Anterior and convex

Inferiorly
o Head of the mandible

167
Q

How does the TMJ allow movement?

A

It is always the mandible that displaces in order for movements to occur. Movements occur by displacements in either the Superior Joint Cavity (gliding) or Inferior Joint Cavity (hinge).

168
Q

What type of movements occur at the TMJ?

A

Flexion (Elevation)
o Closing the mouth
o Occurs in the inferior compartment
o Temporalis, Masseter, Medial Pterygoid

Extension (Depression)
o	Opening the mouth
o	Occurs in the inferior compartment
o	Prime mover is gravity
•	Lateral Pterygoid, Suprahyoid, Infrahyoid
•	Active against resistance
Gliding (Translation)
o	Protrusion and Retrusion of the jaw
•	Protrusion – Lateral Pterygoid, Medial Pterygoid, Masseter
•	Retrusion – Temporalis, Masseter 
o	Occurs in the superior compartment

Rotation (Pivoting)
o Occurs in the inferior compartment

169
Q

What happens during opening movements of the TMJ?

A
Condyles are pulled forwards
o	Protrusion / Gliding
•	Superior compartment
o	Lateral Pterygoid
Chin moves down and back 
o	Hinge movement
•	Inferior compartment
o	Usually by gravity
o	Suprahyoid and Infrahoid can depress the mandible against resistance
170
Q

What happens during closing movement of the TMJ?

A
Retraction of the mandible
o	Retrusion / Gliding
•	Superior compartment
o	Posterior fibres of temporalis muscle
Elevation of the mandible
o	Hinge movement
•	Inferior compartment
o	Remainder of temporalis 
o	Masseter 
o	Medial Pterygoid
171
Q

How is the TMJ strengthened?

A

by extra-capsular ligaments.

172
Q

What are the attachments of the TMJ capsule?

A

Superiorly
o Circumference of the mandibular fossa and articular tubercle
Inferiorly
o Neck of the condyle of the mandible

173
Q

What are the ligaments of the TMJ?

A
Lateral
o	1, strong ligament
o	Temporomandibular ligament
•	Strongest ligament of the TMJ
•	Deep fibres blend with joint capcule
Medial
o	2, accessory ligaments
o	Sphenomandibular ligament
o	Stylomandibular ligament
174
Q

When is the TMJ most stable?

A

The TMJ is most stable when the jaw is closed.
o Mandibular condyle is in contact with the mandibular fossa
o Teeth are in occlussal contact
• Perfect occlusion further stabilises the TMJ

175
Q

When is the TMJ least stable?

A

The TMJ is least stable when the jaw is open.

176
Q

How can the TMJ dislocate?

A

Yawning or taking a large bite, excessive contraction of the Lateral Pterygoids may cause the heads of the mandible to dislocate anteriorly (pass anterior to the articular tubercles).
In this position the mouth remains depressed and the person is unable to close their mouth.

Dislocation of the TMJ most commonly results from a side-ways blow to the chin when the mouth is open

177
Q

Define bruxism

A

o Grinding teeth when asleep

178
Q

What do Temporomandibular pain dysfunction disorder lead to?

A

o Muscular pain

179
Q

What do Mal-occlusion syndromes lead to

A

o Muscular pain

180
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12 pairs

181
Q

What is the course of the cranial nerves?

A

emerge through foramina or fissures in the cranium and are covered by tubular sheaths derived from the cranial meninges

182
Q

What are the cranial nerves?

A
No.	Nerve
I	Olfactory
II	Optic
III	Oculomotor
IV	Trochlear
V	Trigeminal
VI	Abducent (Abducens)
VII	Facial
VIII	Vestibulocochlear
IX	Glossopharyngeal
X	Vagus
XI	Spinal Accessory
XII	Hypoglossal
183
Q

What is the pnemonic for the CN function?

A

Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Boobs Matter Most

184
Q

What is the function of the cranial nerve 1?

A

o Special Sensory fibres
• Distributed to the uppermost part of the nasal cavity
• Smell

185
Q

What is a results of damage to cranial nerve 1?

A

o Reaches the nose via the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
• Fractures of the cribiform plate involving the dura mater may be associated with leakage of CSF from the nose (rhinorrhea).
• Fractures of the cribiform plate may result in Anosmia

186
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve 2?

A

o Sensory

Innervates the eye

187
Q

What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 2?

A

o Direct trauma to eye or orbit, fracture of optic canal or pressure on optic pathway may result in nerve lesions
• Loss of pupillary constriction and visual field defects

188
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve 3?

A

o Motor
• Innervates the Extraocular Muscles
• Innervates the Ciliary Muscles
• Innervates the Sphincter Pupillae

189
Q

What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 3?

A

o Fractures involving the cavernous sinus or aneurysms may cause lesions
o Dilated pupil, ptosis, eye turns down and out, pupillary reflex on side of lesion is lost

190
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve 4?

A

o Motor

• Innervates the Superior Oblique of the Eye

191
Q

What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 4?

A

o Stretching of the nerve during its course around the brainstem or orbit fractures may lead to nerve lesions
• Inability to look down when eye is adducted

192
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve 5?

A

o Both
o Three divisions

o Opthalmic
• Sensory (Skin, cornea)
• Corneal reflex

o Maxillary
• Sensory
• Skin, mucous membrane of nose, palate and upper dental arcade

o	Mandibular
•	Sensory
o	Skin, lower teeth, cheek and anterior 2/3rd of tongue (general sensation)
•	Motor
o	Innervates the muscles of mastication
193
Q

What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 5?

A

o Nerve lesions lead to paralysis of muscles and sharp, intense facial pain

194
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve 6?

A

o Motor

• Innervates the Lateral Rectus

195
Q

What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 6?

A

o Fractures involving the cavernous sinus or orbit may lead to nerve lesions
• Eye fails to move laterally, diplopia on lateral gaze

196
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve 7?

A

o Both
o Sensory
• Special sensory (taste) anterior 2/3rds of tongue
• General sensory fibres supply part of the external acoustic meatus and auricle
o Motor
• Muscles of facial expression
• Parasympathetic secretomotor to submandibular and sublingual salivary glands via the chorda tympani
• Parasymathetic secretomotor to glands of nasal mucosa, paranasal sinuses, palate and the lacrimal gland

197
Q

What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 7?

A

o Lacteration or contusion in Parotid Region
• Paralysis of facial muscles, eye remains open, angle of mouth droops, forehead does not wrinkle
• Bell’s Palsy
o Fracture of Temporal Bone
• Bell’s Palsy
• Involvement of cochlear nerve and chorda tympani; dry cornea; loss of taste in anterior 2/3rds tongue
o Intracranial Haematoma
• Forehead wrinkles because of bilateral innervation of frontalis muscle
• Paralysis of contralateral facial muscles

198
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve 8?

A

o Sensory
o Special Sensory – Balance and hearing
• Vestibular Branch – Controls balance
• Cochlear Branch – Hearing

199
Q

What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 8?

A

o Skull fractures, ear infections, tumour of the nerve (acoustic neuroma) may all cause nerve lesions
• Progressive, unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ear), vertigo (sensation that environment is moving or spinning)
• Acoustic neuroma frequently impairs Facial Nerve (CN VII) too

200
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve 9?

A

o Both
o Sensory
• General and Special sensory (taste) to posterior 1/3rd of tongue
• General sensory widely distributed to the pharynx, oropharyngeal isthmus, dorsum of palate, the auditory tube and related structures, the mastoid antrum and mastoid air cells
• Sensory to Carotid Body and Sinus
o Motor
• Innervates the Stylopharyngeus
• Parasympathetic secretomotor fibres to Parotid salivary gland

201
Q

What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 9?

A

o Deep lacerations of the neck may cause nerve lesions

• Loss of taste to posterior 1/3rd of tongue

202
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve 10?

A

o Both
o Sensory
• eGeneral Sensory lower pharynx and larynx, external auditory meatus and back of auricle
• Special Sensory (taste) to epiglottis
o Motor
• Innervates all muscles of the pharynx, except Stylopharyngeus
• Innervates muscles of airways, larynx, heart and GI tract
• Innervates all of the palate muscles, except tensor veli palatine

203
Q

What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 10?

A

o Nerve lesions in the neck affecting Recurrent Laryngeal branch of Vagus
• Hoarseness of voice due to paralysis of vocal fold
o Left recurrent laryngeal nerve is lower than the right
o Bronchial or oesophageal carcinoma
o Enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes
o Stretched over an aneurysm of the aortic arch
o Mitral stenosis → Enlarged LA → Pushed up left pulmonary artery, compressing the left recurrent laryngeal nerve against the aortic arch
o Thyroidectomy causing damage to Superior Laryngeal Nerve
• External branch lies close to superior thyroid artery and may be damaged when ligating the blood vessel

204
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve 11?

A

o Motor
o Cranial Component
• Innervates the Pharynx, Larynx and soft palate
o Spinal Component (contains fibres from C2, C3, C4)
• Innervates the Trapezius and Sternocleidomastoid muscle

205
Q

What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 11?

A

o Surgery or lacerations to the neck can cause lesions to the nerve
• Paralysis of sternocleidomastoid and superior fibers of trapezius
• Shoulder droop

206
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve 12?

A

o Motor

• Innervation of all Extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue, with the exception of Palatoglossus

207
Q

What is a result of damage to cranial nerve 12?

A

o Neck laceration and basal skull fractures may cause nerve lesions
• Protruded tongue deviates towards the affected side due to the arrangement of the muscles

208
Q

Where is the location of the sympathetic trunk?

A

o Anterolateral to the vertebral column
o Lying on the prevertebral fascia and muscles
o Deep to the carotid sheath.

209
Q

What is the course of the sympathetic trunk?

A

Preganglionic fibres arise mainly in the first thoracic neural segment and synapse in one of the three Cervical Sympathetic Ganglia, the Superior, Middle or Inferior.

After synapsing, the postganglionic fibres travel as the Internal and External Carotid Nerves

210
Q

How does the superior cervical ganglion run and what does it branch into?

A

pass with the Internal and External Carotid Arteries and its branches to:
o The Pharyngeal Plexus
o The Upper 4 Cervical Nerves
o Cardiac Branch to the Cardiac Plexus

211
Q

How does the middle cervical ganglion run and what does it branch into?

A

pass with the Inferior Thyroid Artery to:
o The 5th and 6th Cervical Nerves
o Cardiac Branch to the Cardiac Plexus

212
Q

How does the inferior cervical ganglion run and what does it branch into?

A

pass with the Vertebral Artery to:
o The 7th and 8th Cervical Nerves
o Cardiac Branch to the Cardiac Plexus

213
Q

What is the stellate gangloin?

A

The inferior ganglion is a small ganglion, which in 80% of people combines with the 1st Thoracic Ganglion to form the Stellate Ganglion.

214
Q

What are the 4 pairs of parasympathetic ganglia in the head?

A

ciliary ganglion
Pterygopalatine ganglion
Submandibular ganglion
Otic ganglion

215
Q

What are the 4 cranial nerves that have brainstem nuclei?

A
  • Oculomotor (CN III)
  • Facial (CN VII)
  • Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
  • Vagus (CN X)
216
Q

Which 3 cranial nerves have branches that reach the parasympathetic ganglia?

A
  • Oculomotor → Ciliary Ganglion
  • Facial → Pterygopalatine / Submandibular Ganglion
  • Glossopharyngeal → Otic Ganglion
  • Vagus nerve does not have a discrete ganglion associated with it
217
Q

Explain the ciliary ganglion

A

o Lies in the Orbital Cavity, lateral to the optic nerve
o Parasympathetic fibres derived from Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
• Sphincter Papillae
• Ciliary Muscles
o Sympathetic Fibres come from the Superior Cervical Ganglion
• Via the plexus on the Opthalmic Artery (First branch of the Internal Carotid Artery)
• Distributed to the eyeball
o Sensory fibres from the eyeball pass to the nasociliary nerve

218
Q

Explain the pterygopalatine ganglion

A

o Lies in the Pterygopalatine Fossa
o Connected to the Maxillary Nerve (CN V2) by small branches
o Parasympathetic fibres derived from Facial Nerve (CN VII) via the Greater Pterosal Nerve
• Lacrimal glands
• Glands of the nose, palate and nasopharynx
o Sympathetic fibres come from the Superior Cervical Ganglion
• Via the plexus on the Internal Carotid Artery
• Distributed to the nose, palate and nasopharynx
o Sensory fibres from the nose, palate and nasopharynx pass in the branches of the ganglion to the Maxillary Nerve (CN V2)

219
Q

Explain the submandibular ganglion

A

o Suspended from the Lingual Nerve by small branches
o Parasympathetic fibres derived from the Facial Nerve (CN VII) via the Chorda Tympani, then the Lingual Nerve
• Submandibular Gland
• Sublingual Gland
• Other glands on the floor of the oral cavity
o Sympathetic fibres come from the Superior Cervical Ganglion
• Along the Facial Artery
• Pass to the glands in the floor of the oral cavity
o Taste fibres may pass through the ganglion

220
Q

Explain the otic ganglion

A

o Parasympathetic fibres derived from the Glossopharyngeal Nerve via the Auriculotemporal Nerve
• Parotid Gland
o Sympathetic fibres come from the Superior Cervical Ganglion
• Along the Middle Meningeal Artery
• Pass into the Parotid Gland
o Motor branches from the Mandibular Nerve (CN V3) pass through the ganglion without synapsing

221
Q

Explain what horner’s syndrome is

A

Interruption of a cervical sympathetic trunk results in Horner’s Syndrome. It is manifested by the Absence of Sympathetically Stimulated functions on the Ipsilateral side of the head.

o Miosis
• Constriction of the pupil
• Parasympathetically stimulated Sphincter Papillae of the pupil is unopposed

o Ptosis
• Drooping of superior eyelid
• Paralysis of smooth muscle fibres interdigitated with the aponeurosis of the Levator Palpebrae Superioris that collectively constitute the Superior Tarsal muscle (innervated by Sympathetic fibres)

o Vasodilation
• Redness and increased temperature of the skin
• Loss of sympathetic tone

o Anhydrosis
• Absence of sweating

222
Q

What are the borders of the orbit?

A
o	Roof
•	Frontal and Sphenoid
o	Floor
•	Maxilla, Zygomatic (and palatine)
o	Medial
•	Ethmoid, Maxilla, Lacrimal
o	Lateral
•	Zyogmatic, Sphenoid
223
Q

What are the fractures that can occur at the orbit?

A

o Usually at bony sutures

o Medial and Inferior walls are thin
• Medial wall Fractures – Can involve Ethmoidal and Sphenoidal Sinus
• Inferior wall Fractures – Can involve Maxillary Sinus

o	‘Blow Out’ Fracture
•	A fracture that displaces the orbital walls and contents
•	Muscle entrapment
•	Diplopia (double vision)
•	Infection

o Enopthalmos
• Depression of eye
• Opposite of exophthalmos (bulging of the eye)
• Infraorbital bleeding may push the eyeball back out (Pulsatile)

224
Q

What is the content of the optic canal?

A

• Optic Nerve

225
Q

What is the content of the orbital fissure?

A
  • Lateral → Medial
  • Lacrimal Nerve
  • Frontal Nerve
  • Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)
  • Superior branch of Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
  • Nasociliary Nerve
  • Inferior Branch of the Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
  • Abducens Nerve (CN VI)
  • Opthalmic Veins
  • Sympathetic Nerves

• Large French Teenagers Sit Numb In Anticipation Of Sweets

226
Q

What is the course of the optic nerve?

A

o Exits the orbit via the Optic Canal

227
Q

What are the extraocular muscles of the orbit?

A
4 Recti
o	Superior
•	Look up
•	Muscle loops through the Trochlear
o	Inferior
•	Look down
o	Medial
•	Look medial (Adduct Pupil)
o	Lateral
•	Look lateral (Abduct Pupil)
2 Obliques
o	Superior
•	Look down
o	Inferior
•	Look up

Levator Palpebrae Superioris
• Lifts upper Eyelid

228
Q

What is the innervation of the Extraocular muscles?

A
LR6SO4R3
o	Lateral Rectus
•	Cranial Nerve 6 
•	Abducens
o	Superior Oblique
•	Cranial Nerve 4
•	Trochlear
o	All the Rest
•	Cranial Nerve 3
•	Oculomotor
229
Q

What happens during abducent nerve palsy?

A

o Loss of innervation to the Lateral Rectus
• Unable to move eye laterally (abduct pupil)
• Pupil is fully adducted due to unopposed pull of medial rectus
o Caused by fractures involving orbit or cavernous sinus

230
Q

What happens during trochlear nerve palsy?

A

o Loss of innervation to the Superior Oblique
• Unable to look eye down when eye is adducted
o Caused by orbital fractures or stretching of the nerve during its course around the brainstem

231
Q

What happens during oculomotor nerve palsy?

A

o Loss of innervation to ‘All the Rest’
• Superior eyelid droops
o Ptosis (drooping of eyelid)
o Loss of innervation to Levator Palpebrae Superioris
o Unopposed activity of Orbicularis Oculi (Facial nerve)
• Pupil is fully dilated and non reactive
o Loss of innervation to Sphincter Pupillae
o Unopposed action of Dilator Pupillae
• Eye has moved ‘Down and Out’
• Unopposed action of Lateral Rectus and Superior Oblique
o Caused by fractures involving the cavernous sinus or aneurysms

232
Q

What is the blood supply of the eye?

A

Opthalmic Artery
o Branch of the Internal Carotid Artery

Central Artery of the Retina
o Branch of the Opthalmic Artery
o End arteries
o Obstruction (e.g. by embolus) results in instant and total blindness

233
Q

What is the blood drainage of the eye?

A

Superior and Inferior Opthalmic Veins
o Exit via the Superior Orbital Fissure and drain into the Cavernous Sinus

Central Vein of the Retina
o Drains into the Cavernous Sinus, either directly or via Opthalmic Veins
o Occlusion results in slow, painless loss of vision
o Infections may also spread by this route from the eye to the brain

234
Q

What are the functions of the eyelids?

A

The eyelids protect the cornea and the eyeball from injury and keep the cornea moist by covering it with lacrimal fluid. Conjuctiva line the inner surface of the eyelids. The eye blinks when the cornea becomes dry and the eyelids carry a film of fluid over the cornea. Dust and other foreign material is also swept across to the medial angle of the eye and removed.

The eyelids are strengthened by Tarsal Plates, dense bands of connective tissue that contain Tarsal Glands, which produce secretions that lubricate the edges of the eyelids and prevents them from sticking together when they close.

235
Q

What is the function of the lacrimal gland?

A

o Secretes Lacrimal Fluid (Tears)
• Watery physiological saline
• Contains the bacteriocidal lysozyme enzyme
• Moistens and lubricates the surfaces of the conjuctiva and cornea
• Provides some nutrients and dissolved oxygen to the cornea
o Lies in a fossa on the superolateral part of the orbit

236
Q

What is the function of the lacrimal duct?

A

Conducts lacrimal fluid from the gland to the conjuctival sac

237
Q

What is the course of the lacrimal canaliculi?

A

o Commence at the medial angle of the eye where lacrimal fluid is drained from the lacrimal lake → lacrimal sac

238
Q

What does the nasolacrimal duct do?

A

o Conveys lacrimal fluid to the inferior nasal meatus

• Inferior to the inferior nasal concha

239
Q

Which muscles open the eyelids? What is their innervation?

A

o Levator Palpebrae Superioris
• Innervated by Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
o Assisted by Superior Tarsal Muscles
• Sympathetic innervation

240
Q

Which muscles close the eyelids? What is their innervation?

A

o Orbicularis oculi

• Innervated by Facial Nerve (CN VII)

241
Q

What happens if you cannot blink?

A

If the eyelids are prevented from closing properly the protective effect of blinking is lost. The cornea becomes dry and is left unprotected from dust and other particulate material. Irritation of the eyeball results in excessive tear formation

242
Q

What are the layers of the eyeball?

A
1.	Outer Protective layer
o	Sclera
•	Fibrous and provides attachment for the Extraocular muscles
•	White, relatively avascular
o	Cornea
•	Transparent, avascular
•	Nourishment from lacrimal glands and vascular beds
•	Sensitive – CN V1
2.	Middle Vascular layer
o	Choroid
•	Red of eye, continues anteriorly as the Ciliary Body
o	Ciliary Body
•	Anterior muscle thickening
•	Attaches and focuses the lens
•	Ciliary process secretes aqueous humor into the Anterior Chamber
o	Iris
•	Thin diaphragm, aperture is pupil
•	PSNS contracts the Sphincter Pupillae
•	SNS contracts the Dilator Pupillae
o	Rich network of blood vessels
3.	Inner Retina layer
o	Optic part
•	Photosensitive
•	Neural and Pigmented layer
o	Non-visual part
•	Anterior
243
Q

What is the structure of the retina?

A
o	Fundus
•	Posterior of eye
•	Seen with a fundoscope / opthalmoscope
o	Macula (a.k.a. macula lutea)
•	Fovea centralis
o	Optic Disc
•	Blind spot
•	Convergence of sensory fibres
244
Q

What are the structures that light passes through?

A

Cornea
Aqueous Humor
Lens
Vitreous Humor

245
Q

What is the structure of the cornea?

A
o	The cornea is the primary refractive medium
o	Myopia
•	Short or near-sight
•	Image focussed in front of retina
o	Hyeropia or Hypermetropia
•	Long or far-sight
•	Imaged focussed behind the retina 
o	Presbyopia
•	Far sight due to age-related changes of lens
246
Q

What is the structure of the Aqueous Humor?

A

o Produced by the Ciliary process
o Drains into scleral venous sinus via trabecular meshwork
o Responsible for intraocular pressure
• Glaucoma is caused by raised intraocular pressure (outflow of aqueous humor is blocked)

247
Q

What is the structure of the lens?

A

o Near vision
• Accomodation
• Parasympathetic activity in CN III → Sphincter like contraction of Ciliary muscle → Lens more globe like/fatter
o Far vision
• No parasympathetic activity to Ciliary muscles → Lens stretched → Flatter
• Becomes thicker with age
• Cataracts – Clouding of the lens

248
Q

What is the structure of the vitreous humor?

A

o Holds retina in place
o Retina
• Rods – Low light, black and white
• Cones – Bright light, colour vision

249
Q

What is the corneal reflex?

A

o Afferent fibres
• Opthalmic Branch of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V1)
o Efferent Fibres
• Temporal and Zygomatic Branches of the Facial Nerve (CN VII)
• Contraction of the Orbicularis Oculi, causing the eye to blink
o Dirt and other extraneous particles cause corneal abrasions that result in sudden pain and excessive tears
o Injury to the nerve removes this reflex, rendering the cornea vulnerable to foreign particles as they will not be felt
o Loss of reflex may lead to Corneal Ulceration

250
Q

What is a corneal transplant?

A

People with scarred or opaque corneas may receive corneal transplants from donors (usually deceased). Corneal implants of non-reactive plastic material are also used.

251
Q

What is mydriasis?

A

Mydriasis is dilation of the pupil, sometimes referred to as a ‘Blown pupil’.
o Under-activity of PSNS → Lack of innervation to Sphincter Pupillae
o Over-activity of SNS → Increased innervation to Dilator Pupillae
Raised intracranial pressure is a possible cause of mydriasis.

252
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

Outflow of aqueous humor through the scleral venous sinus into the blood circulation must occur at the same rate at which it is produced. If the outflow is decreased significantly because the pathway is blocked, pressure builds up in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye. This is known as Glaucoma.

Blindness can result from compression of the inner layer of the eyeball (retina) and the Central Artery of the Retina.

253
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

As people age, their lenses become harder and more flattened. These changes gradually reduce the focusing power of the lenses,

254
Q

What are cataracts?

A

Some people also experience a loss of transparency (cloudiness) of the lens from areas of opaqueness (Cataracts). Cataract extraction combined with an intra-ocular lens implant has become a common operation.

255
Q

What is retinal detachment?

A

The Intraretinal Space separates the layers of the retina in the developing embryo. During the early foetal period, the layers fuse, obliterating this space. However, although the Pigment Cell Layer becomes firmly fixed to the choroid, its attachment to the Neural Layer is not firm.

Consequently, a blow to the eye may cause detachment of the retina, perhaps days or even weeks after trauma to the eye.

Persons with retinal detachment may complain of flashes of light or specks floating in front of the eye.

256
Q

What is coloboma?

A

Coloboma is the absence of a section of the iris. It may result from a birth defect, penetrating or non-penetrating injuries to the eyeball or a surgical iridectomy.

257
Q

What is hyphema?

A

Haemorrhage within the anterior chamber of the eyeball (Hyphema or Hyphemia) usually results from blunt force trauma to the eyeball.

Initially, the anterior chamber is tinged red, but blood soon accumulates. The initial haemorrhage usually stops in a few days and recovery is good.

258
Q

What is exopthalmos?

A
Protrusion of the eye, causing the eyelids to part more than normal so that the whites of the sclera are visible all around the cornea and iris.
o	Bilateral
•	Grave’s Disease (Hyperthyroidism) 
o	Unilateral
•	Aneurysm
•	Haematoma
259
Q

What is the consequence of raised ICP?

A

o Optic nerve is surrounded by meninges with CSF in the subarcachnoid space
o Increase in CSF pressure may compress the optic nerve → compress blood vessels supplying retina → blindness
o Vein is occluded before the artery, leading to oedema of the retina (Papillodema)

260
Q

What happens in a red eye?

A

The eye may appear bloodshot. This may result from trauma, infection, allergy or increased pressure in the eye. Severe coughing spells or recurrent vomiting may cause a patient to have a conjuctival haemorrhage.

261
Q

What is a meibomian cyst?

A

Blocked Tarsal Gland, which lies behind the eyelash within the eyelid.

262
Q

What is a stye?

A

Infection of the Sebaceous Gland at the base of the eyelash.

263
Q

What are the components of the ear?

A

External, Middle and Internal Ear

264
Q

What seperates the external from the middle ear?

A

tympanic membrane

265
Q

What does the eustachian tube join together?

A

Middle ear to nasopharynx

266
Q

What is the anatomy of the external ear?

A

The Auricle (Pinna)
o Irregularly shaped plate of Elastic Cartilage covered by thick skin
o Several depression and elevations, including the Helix (outer rim) and Tragus (small flap guarding the external acoustic meatus)
o Non-cartilaginous Lobule (lobe) consists of fibrous tissue, fat and blood vessels.

The External Acoustic Meatus (Canal)
o Cartilaginous tube lateral 1/3rd, bony canal medial 2/3rds
o Lies in the Temporal Bone
o Lined by skin secreting Cerumen (modified sebum), which offers protection. The discarded cells of the skin together with cerumen form Wax

267
Q

What is the blood supply to the auricle?

A

o Blood supply is from the Posterior Auricular and Superficial Temporal Arteries, which are both branches of the External Carotid Artery

268
Q

What is the innervation to the auricle?

A

o Sensory innervation Anterior to the External Acoustic Meatus is the Auriculotemporal Nerve, a branch of the Mandibular Nerve (CN V3)
o Sensory innervation for the rest of the auricle is from the Great Auricular Nerve

269
Q

How do you examine the ear?

A

o Sigmoid shaped, therefore Auricle is pulled upwards and backwards during ear examination to achieve a good internal view
o In children, the canal should be straightened by pulling the canal downwards and back

270
Q

Explain the structure of the tympanic membrane

A

o Shallow cone with its apex pointing medially
o ~1cm diameter
o Thin, oval, semi-transparent, pearly grey membrane
• Allows for visualisation of some structures within the middle ear, most notably the malleus
o Blood vessels visible around the periphery
o Partition between external and middle ear

271
Q

What is the innervation to the tympanic membrane?

A

o External surface supplied by:
• Auriculotemporal Nerve Branch of CN V3
• Auricular Branch of the Vagus Nerve (CN X)
o Internal surface supplied by the Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)

272
Q

What is Arnold’s cough reflex?

A

o Stimulation of the Auricular Branch of the Vagus Nerve (CN X)
• E.g. insertion of cotton bud
o Cough reflex (some event vomit)

273
Q

What can happen to the tympanic membrane in disease?

A
o	Dull and become red or yellow
o	Blood vessels may be dilated
•	Injection of the drum
o	Dense, white plaques 
•	Tympanosclerosis
o	Bulging of the membrane
•	Pus or fluid in middle ear
o	Retracted membrane
•	Infratympanic cavity pressures reduced
•	Obstruction of Eustachian tube
o	Perforation of the membrane
•	Trauma
•	Infection
274
Q

What is the middle ear?

A

The Cavity of the Middle Ear, or Tympanic Cavity is the narrow air-filled chamber in the Petrous part of the Temporal Bone.

275
Q

What are the 2 parts of the middle ear?

A

o Tympanic Cavity Proper
• The space directly internal to the tympanic membrane
• Connected Anteromedially with the Nasopharynx by the Pharyngotympanic (Eustachian) Tube
• Connected Posterolaterally with the Mastoid Air Cells through the Mastoid Antrum
o Epitympanic Recess
• Space superior to the membrane

276
Q

What is the content of the middle ear?

A
o	Auditory Ossicles
•	Malleus
•	Incus
•	Stapes
o	Stapedius and Tensor Tympani muscles
o	Chorda Tympani Nerve (Branch of the Facial Nerve (CN VII))
o	Tympanic Plexus of Nerves
277
Q

What is the function of the ossicles?

A

The ossicles serve to relay the vibrations encountered by the tympanic membrane to the internal ear, amplifying and concentrating sound energy to the oval window.

278
Q

What are the ossicles made up of?

A

o Malleus
• Handle is attached to the tympanic membrane
• Body articulates with the body of the Incus
o Incus
• Articulates with the Stapes
o Stapes
• Articulates with the Bony Labyrinth of the inner ear at the Oval Window

279
Q

What are the muscles associated with the auditory ossicles?

A

Tensor Tympani
o Inserts into the handle of the malleus
• Pulls handle medially
• Tenses the tympanic membrane, reducing the amplitude of its oscillations
o Prevents damage to the inner ear when exposed to loud sounds

Stapedius
o Pulls the stages posteriorly and tilts its base in the oval window
• Tightens the anular ligament and reduces the oscillatory range
o Prevents excessive movement of the stapes
o Nerve to Stapedius arises from the Facial Nerve (CN VII)

280
Q

What is the importance of the facial nerve in relation to the middle ear?

A

The nerve lies in the Facial Canal, separated from the tympanic cavity by a very thin bony partition.

Because of this proximity, a middle ear infection may cause a lesion of the facial nerve.

281
Q

What is the content of the inner ear?

A

o Vestibule
• Small bony chamber, containing the Utricle and Saccule, which are sensitive to rotational acceleration and the static pull of gravity
o Semi-circular Ducts and canals
• Communicate with the vestibule
• Contain receptors that respond to Rotational Acceleration in three different planes
o Cochlea
• Shell shaped portion of the bony labyrinth containing the Cochlear Duct
o Cochlear Duct
• Accommodates the spiral Organ of Corti
o Organ of Corti
• Contains the receptors of the auditory apparatus

282
Q

What is auricular haemotoma?

A

A localised collection of blood forms between the Perichondrium and the Auricular Cartilage, causing distortion of the contours of the auricle.

If the blood is not aspirated, fibrosis develops in the overlying skin, forming a deformed auricle (Cauliflower or Boxer’s ear).

283
Q

Name some congenital pinna deformities

A

o Antihelix deformity
o Pinna malformation
o Pre-auricular pit
o Pre-auricular skin tag

284
Q

What is acute otitis externa?

A

o Infection / Inflammation of the external acoustic meatus
o Often develops in swimmers who do not dry their meatus after swimming
o Itching and pain in the external ear
• Pulling the auricle or applying pressure on the tragus increases pain

285
Q

What is otitis media?

A

o Infection of the middle ear
o Often secondary to upper respiratory infections
• Via the Pharyngotympanic (Eustachian Tube)
• More common in children as their Eustachian tube is shorter and more horizontal, making it easier for organisms to travel up it and harder for fluid to drain away from the middle ear
o Earache and bulging red tympanic membrane
• Pus or fluid in the middle ear
o Inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the tympanic cavity may cause partial or complete blockage of the Pharyngotympanic (Eustachian) tube.

286
Q

What is the cause for perforation of the tympanic membrane?

A

o May result from otitis media, the insertion of foreign bodies, trauma, excessive pressure (e.g. from scuba diving)
o One of several causes of middle ear deafness
o Minor ruptures of the membrane often heal spontaneously
o Large ruptures require surgical repair

287
Q

What is mastoiditis?

A

o Infections of the mastoid antrum and mastoid air cells
o Results from Otitis Media
o Causes inflammation of the mastoid process
• Swelling behind the ear
o Infection may spread superiorly into the middle cranial fossa through the petrosquamous fissure in children
• Osteomyelitis

288
Q

How can the eustachian tube become blocked?

A

o Easily blocked by swelling of mucus membrane
• Even from mild infections, e.g. a cold as walls of its cartilaginous part are normally already in apposition
o When tube is occluded, residual air in the tympanic cavity is absorbed into mucosal blood vessels
• Lower pressure in the tympanic cavity
• Retraction of the Tympanic Membrane
o Interference with the free movement of the tympanic membrane (its retraction) affects hearing
o Adenoidal hypertrophy can block the opening to the tube in the Nasopharynx
• Children 3-8
• Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)

289
Q

How does the stapedius become paralysed?

A

o E.g. from lesion of the facial nerve
o Loss of protective action against loud noises
o Hyperacusis or Hyperacusia

290
Q

What leads to motion sickness?

A

o Discordance between vestibular and visual stimulation

291
Q

What are the symptoms caused by injury to peripheral auditory system?

A
Injuries of the peripheral auditory system cause three major symptoms:
1.	Hearing loss
•	Usually conductive
2.	Vertigo
•	(Dizziness)
•	When the injury involves the semicircular ducts
3.	Tinnitus
•	Buzzing or ringing
292
Q

What leads to conductive hearing loss?

A

o Results from anything in the external or middle ear that interferes with the conduction of sound or movement of the oval or round windows.
o People with this type of hearing loss often speak with a soft voice
• To them, their own voices sound louder than background sounds
o May be improved surgically or by use of a hearing device

293
Q

What leads to sensorineural hearing loss?

A

o Results from defects in the pathway from cochlea to brain
• Defects of cochlea
• Defects of cochlea nerve
• Defects of brainstem
o Cochlear implants can restore hearing
• External microphone transmitting to an implanted receiver that sends electrical impulses to the cochlea, stimulating the cochlear nerve

294
Q

What is Ménière Syndrome?

A

o Blockage of the cochlear aqueduct
o Recurrent attacks of tinnitus, hearing loss and vertigo
o Accompanied by a sense of pressure in the ear, distortion of sounds and sensitivity to noise

295
Q

What is Colesteatoma?

A

o Blockage of the Eustachian tube leads to negative middle ear pressure
o Negative pressure leads to retraction pockets
o Dead skin cells accumulate in the pockets
o Necrotic mass of dead skin
• Colesteatoma
o Erosion of middle ear structures and bone via lytic enzymes

296
Q

What is otalgia?

A

o Ear pain
o Infection / inflammation around the ear
o Pain from teeth, pharynx or cervical spine commonly referred to the ear

297
Q

What is Pruritus?

A

o Itching

o May result from primary disorder of the external ear, or middle ear discharge

298
Q

What is Otorrhea?

A

o Discharge from the ear
o Indicates acute or chronic infection
o Blood / CSF discharge associated with skull fracture

299
Q

What is the external nose?

A

The external nose is the visible portion that projects from the face. It has both bony and (predominantly) cartilaginous components and provides the opening into the nasal cavity. The nostrils are bounded laterally by alae and the skin covering the nose extends upwards into the vestibule.

300
Q

What is the skeleton of the external nose?

A
The supporting skeleton of the nose is composed of bone and hyaline cartilage. 
o	Bony part of the nose
•	Nasal Bones
•	Maxillae frontal processes
•	Frontal Bone (nasal part and nasal spine)
o	Cartilaginous part of the nose
•	2 Lateral cartilages
•	2 Alar cartilages
•	1 Septal cartilage
301
Q

What is the anatomy of the nasal septum?

A
o	Anterior Portion
•	Cartilaginous
o	Middle Portion
•	Perpendicular plate of the Ethmoid Bone
o	Posterior Portion
•	Vomer

Inferiorly, the hard palate, made up of the palatine and maxillary bones, separates the nasal and oral cavities.

302
Q

What sort of fractures can be caused at the nose?

A

Nasal fractures are the most common facial fracture, as the nose is an exposed organ.
o History of force to the face
o Deformity
o Complications include septal haematoma

303
Q

What is found in the nasal cavity?

A
o	Nostrils
o	Chonchae (terbinates)
•	Lateral wall
•	Create 5 passages within the cavity
o	Mucosal lining
•	Except for vestibule (skin)
•	Continuous with areas draining into the cavity
304
Q

What are concha?

A

The superior, middle and inferior Nasal Conchae (or terbinates) curve inferiormedially, hanging like short curtains from the lateral wall of the nasal cavity.
The conchae are scroll-like structures that offer a vast surface area for heat exchange.

The inferior concha is the longest and broadest and is formed by an independent bone (the Inferior Concha).
The middle and superior conchae are the medial processes of the Ethmoid Bone.

A recess or nasal meatus underlies each of the terbinates, diving the nasal cavity into five passages.
The Sphenoethmoidal Recess, lying superoposterior to the superior conca, receives the opening of the sphenoidal sinus.

305
Q

What allows olfaction?

A

o Spehnoethmoidal Recess
o Lining epithlium of mucus membrane is modified for the purpose of olfaction
o Axonal processes of the olfactory cell pass through the cribriform plate and penetrate the meninges before entering the olfactory bulb

306
Q

What are the openings to the nose?

A

o Cribiform plate
• Olfactory Nerve (CN I) runs here
• Fractures may result in CSF leakage and anosmia
o Sphenopalatine foramen
o Incisive foramen
o Foramen cecum
• Nasal veins to superior saggital sinus in some individuals

307
Q

What is the blood supply to the nasal cavity?

A

o Branches of the Opthalmic Artery
• Branch of the Internal Carotid Artery
o Branches of the Maxillary and Facial Arteries
• Branches of the External Carotid Artery

The blood supply to the medial and lateral wall of the nasal cavity is very rich. The anterior part of the nasal septum has an area (Kiesselbach or Little’s area) that is rich in capillaries where all the arteries supplying the septum anastomose. It is this area where profuse bleeding occurs in ‘nose bleeds’.

308
Q

What is epistaxis?

A

Epistaxis is bleeding from the nose. It is very common and can have a local or systemic cause. Anterior bleeds account for 90% of epistaxis. The Sphenopalatine Artery causes posterior bleeds

309
Q

What is the venous drainage of the nose?

A

A rich submucosal venous plexus, deep to the nasal mucosa, drains into the:
o Cavernous Sinus
o Facial Vein
o Pterygoid Plexus

310
Q

What is the innervation of the nose?

A

o Special Sensory (Smell)
• Olfactory Nerve (CN I)

o General Sensory – Posteroinferior Nasal Mucosa
• Maxillary Division of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V2)
• Nasopalatine Nerve
o General Sensory – Anterosuperior Nasal Mucosa
• Opthalmic Division of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V1)
• Anterior and Posterior Ethmoidal Nerves

o General Sensory – External Nose
• External Nasal Nose (CN V1)
• Infraorbital Nerve (CN V2)

311
Q

What is the epithelium of the nasal cavity?

A
o	Respiratory Region
•	Pseudostratified columnar ciliated
•	With goblet cells
o	Olfactory Region
•	Olfactory cells with olfactory receptors
312
Q

What are paranasal sinuses?

A

The paranasal sinuses are air-filled extensions of the respiratory part of the nasal cavity into cranial bones (Frontal, Ethmoid, Sphenoid and Maxilla).
The sinuses are named according to the bones in which they are located.

313
Q

Explain the frontal sinus?

A

The Right and Left Frontal Sinuses are between the outer and inner tables of the frontal bone, posterior to the superciliary arches and the root of the nose. They are usually detectable in children by 7 years of age (not present at birth).

They each drain through a Frontonasal Duct into the ethmoidal infundibulum, which opens into the semilunar hiatus of the Middle Nasal Recess.

314
Q

Explain the ethmoid sinus

A

The Ethmoidal cells (Sinuses) are small invaginations of the mucous membrane of the middle and superior nasal recesses into the Ethmoid bone.
The Ethmoidal cells usually are not visible in plain radiographs before 2 years of age.

The Anterior Ethmoidal Cells drain directly or indirectly into the middle nasal recess through the ethmoidal infundibulum.
The Middle Ethmoidal Cells open directly into the middle nasal recess.
The Posterior Ethmoidal Cells open directly into the superior nasal recess.

315
Q

Explain the maxillary sinus

A

The Maxillary Sinuses are the largest of the paranasal sinuses. They occupy the bodies of the Maxillae.
They drain by one or more openings, the Maxillary Ostium (ostia), into the middle nasal recess by way of the semilunar hiatus.

316
Q

Explain the sphenoid sinus

A

The Sphenoidal Sinuses are located in the body of the sphenoid and may extend into the wings of the bone.
The body of the sphenoid is fragile, and only thin plates of bone separate the sinuses from several important structures (Optic nerves and chiasm, the pituitary gland, internal carotid arteries). They are small at birth, enlarging after puberty.

They drain directly into the Sphenoethmoidal Recess.

317
Q

How can infection of the nasal cavity spread?

A

o The Anterior Cranial Fossa
• Via the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
o The Paranasal Sinuses
• Via their openings into the nasal cavity
o The Lacrimal Apparatus and Conjuctiva
• Via the opening of the Nasolacrimal duct
o The Middle Ear
• Via the Pharyngotympanic (Eustachian) tube

318
Q

What is Rhinitis?

A
Inflammation of the nasal mucosa, leading to swelling and increased volume of secretion. Causes include:
o	Infective (Viral)
•	Adenovirus
•	Rhinovirus
•	Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) 
o	Allergic 
o	Nasal Polyps
319
Q

What are nasal polyps?

A
o	Grow close to the ostiomeatal complex of the Nasopharynx
o	Linked to chronic rhinosinusitis
o	Prevalence of ~2-4%
o	Nasal obstruction
•	Snoring / Obstructive sleep apnoea
320
Q

What are sinusitis?

A
o	Inflammation of the mucosal lining of the sinuses
o	Acute – 7 to 30 days
o	Sub-acute – 4 to 12 weeks
o	Chronic – >90 days
o	Infection
•	Viral with secondary bacterial infection
•	Streptococcus Pneumoniae
•	Haemophillus Influenzae
321
Q

What are the problems with Ethmoidal Sinus Air Cell Infection?

A

o May break through the medial wall of the orbit
• Proximity to the optic canal, transmitting the Optic Nerve (CN II) and Opthalmic Artery
• Visual disorders

322
Q

What are maxillary sinus infections?

A

o Most commonly infected
• Ostia are small and located high on the supero-medial walls
o When the mucus membrane of the sinus is congested, the maxillary ostia are often obstructed
o Impossible for sinuses to drain when the head is erect until they are full
o When lying on your side, the upper sinus drains

323
Q

How can maxillary teeth lead to infection?

A

o The three maxillary molar teeth are close to the floor of the maxillary sinus
o During removal a fracture of the root may occur
• Piece of root may be driven superiorly into the maxillary sinus
o Communication made between oral cavity and maxillary sinus
o Infection may occur

Because the superior alveolar nerves (Branches of the Maxillary Nerve (CN V2)) supply both the maxillary teeth and the mucous membrane of the maxillary sinuses, inflammation of the mucosa of the sinus is frequently accompanied by a sensation of toothache in the molar teeth.

324
Q

How can deviation of the nasal septum occur?

A

The nasal septum is usually deviated to one side or the other. This could be the result of a birth injury, but more often the deviation occurs during adolescence and adulthood from trauma (e.g. fist fight).

Sometimes the deviation is so severe that the nasal septum is in contact with the lateral wall of the nasal cavity and often obstructs breathing or exacerbates snoring.

This deviation can be corrected surgically.

325
Q

Describe the Trigeminal nerve

A
o	Fifth Cranial Nerve
o	Largest Cranial Nerve
o	Mixed nerve
•	Sensation – Principal General Sensory nerve for the head
•	Motor
o	Transit for some Autonomic Nerves
o	Three main branches
•	Opthalmic (CN V1)
•	Maxillary (CN V2)
•	Mandibular (CN V3)
326
Q

Describe the course of trigeminal nerve

A

The Trigeminal Nerve arises from the Lateral Aspect of the Pons by a large sensory root and small motor root. The crescent shaped Trigeminal Ganglion sits within a Dural recess, the Trigeminal Cave, which sits laterally to the cavernous sinus.

327
Q

Describe the opthalmic nerve

A
o	Exits skull through the Superior Orbital Fissure
o	Sensory Only
•	Cornea
•	Upper conjuctiva
•	Nasal Cavity (Anterosuperior)
•	Frontal Sinus
•	Ethmoid Sinus
•	External Nose
•	Upper Eyelids
•	Forehead and scalp
o	Tested via the Corneal Reflex
o	Three branches
•	Frontal 
•	Nasocillary
•	Lacrimal
•	Lacrimal Gland
•	Conjuctiva
•	Post Ganglionic Parasympathetic Fibres to Lacrimal Gland
328
Q

Describe the maxillary nerve

A
o	Exits the skull through the Foramen Rotundum
o	Sensory Only
•	Conjunctiva
•	Nasal Cavity (Posteroinferior)
•	Lateral External Nose
•	Maxillary Sinus
•	Superior palate
•	Inferior eye lid
•	Upper lip
o	14 Terminal Branches
o	Associated with a parasympathetic ganglion
•	Pterygopalatine
•	Innervation of lacrimal, nasal and palate glands
329
Q

Describe the mandibular nerve

A
o	Exits the skull through the Foramen Ovale
o	Sensory
o	Mucous membranes
o	Lower Lip
o	Chin
o	External Ear (Front of auricle)
o	Anterior two thirds of tongue (General Sensation, not taste!)
o	Motor
•	Masseter
•	Temporalis
•	Medial and Lateral Pterygoids
•	Mylohyoid
•	Digastric
•	Tensor Tympani
•	Tensor Vele Palatini
o	Associated with two parasympathetic ganglia
•	Submandibular Ganglion
•	Submandibular Salivary Gland
•	Sublingual Salivary Gland
•	Otic Ganglion
•	Parotid Salivary Gland
330
Q

Describe the facial nerve

A
o	Exits the skull through the Stylomastoid Foramen
o	Mixed Nerve
o	Motor
•	Muscles of facial expression
•	Digastric (posterior belly)
•	Stylohyoid
•	Stapedius
o	Sensory
•	General Sensory
•	Small area of skin close to external acoustic meatus
•	Special Sensory (Taste)
•	Corda Tympani from the Lingual Nerve 
•	Taste Anterior 2/3rds of the tongue
o	Parasympathetic
•	Pterygopalatine Parasympathetic Ganglion
•	Lacrimal Gland
•	Submandibular Gland
•	Sublingual Gland
331
Q

Course of facial nerve

A
  1. Motor Cortex
  2. Pons
    • Facial Motor Nucleus
  3. Internal Acoustic Meatus
    • Within Petrous Temporal Bone
  4. Facial Canal
    • Within Temporal Bone
    • Gives rise to:
    • Greater Petrosal Nerve
    • Nerve to the Stapedius
    • Chorda Tympani Nerve
  5. Stylomastoid Foramen
    • Exits Temporal Bone
    • Gives rise to Posterior Auricular Branch
  6. Branches to face and neck
    • 5 Branches
    • Through Parotid Gland
332
Q

What are the branches of the facial nerve?

A
o	Temporal
•	Occipitofrontalis
•	Orbicularis Oculi (Superior)
o	Zygomatic
•	Orbicularis Oculi (Inferior)
o	Buccal
•	Orbicularis Oris
•	Buccinator
•	Zygomaticus
o	Marginal Mandicular
•	Mentalis
o	Cervical
•	Platysma
333
Q

Describe facial nerve palsy

A
Non-Traumatic Causes
o	Inflammation
o	Infection
•	Viral (Herpes)
•	Parotitis (S. Aureus)
o	Compression
•	Parotid Tumour
Traumatic Causes
o	Fractures
•	Temporal Bone
o	Stabbing
o	Gunshots
o	Childbirth
Iatrogenic
o	Surgery (Parotidectomy)
334
Q

What happens during Bell’s palsy?

A

All muscles of facial expression paralysed

335
Q

What happens during stroke?

A
  • Frontal Sparing
  • Occipitofrontalis and Orbicularis Oculi not paralysed
  • Due to their Bilateral Innervation
336
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

The Pharynx is the superior, expanded part of the Alimentary System, posterior to the nasal and oral cavities and extending inferiorly past the larynx.

The Pharynx extends from the Cranial Base to the Inferior Border of the Cricoid Cartilage Anteriorly and the Inferior Border of C6 Vertebra Posteriorly.
It is widest (Approximately 5cm) opposite the hyoid and narrowest (approximately 1.5cm) at its inferior end, where it is continuous with the oesophagus.

337
Q

What are the 3 parts of pharynx

A

The Pharynx is divided into Three Parts:
o Nasopharynx
• Posterior to the nose and superior to the soft palate
• Respiratory Function as it is the posterior extension of the nasal cavities
• Pseudostratified Ciliated Epithelium with Goblet Cells
• Lymphoid tissue forms a Tonsillar ring around the superior part of the pharynx, which aggregates to form the Adenoids. The adenoids may become swollen during infection in children, blocking the Eustachian tube and leading to otitis media.
o Oropharynx
• Posterior to the mouth
• Extends from the soft plate to the superior border of the epiglottis
• Digestive Function
• Stratified Squamous Epithelium non-Keratinised
o Laryngopharynx
• Posterior to the Larynx
• Ends from the superior border of the epiglottis to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage, where it becomes continuous with the oesophagus.
• Stratified Squamous Epithelium non-keratinised

338
Q

What are the pharyngeal muscles?

A

The wall of the Pharynx consists of an incomplete outer circular muscle layer and an inner longitudinal muscle layer. The muscle layer is covered internally by the Pharyngobasilar Fascia, which is in turn covered by the Mucous Membrane.

339
Q

What are the outer circular pharyngeal muscles?

A

o Superior Constrictor
o Middle Constrictor
o Inferior Constrictor
• Lower horizontal fibres known as Cricopharyngeus

The outer muscle layer attaches posteriorly at the midline raphe. The muscles overlap each other and are incomplete anteriorly. During swallowing the muscle constrict to propel the bolus of food downwards (involuntarily during the swallowing reflex).

340
Q

What are the inner longitudinal pharyngeal muscles?

A

o Stylopharyngeus
o Palatopharyngeus
o Salpingopharyngeus
During swallowing these muscles act to shorten and widen the pharynx.

341
Q

What is the innervation of the pharynx?

A

Innervation of the Pharynx is by the Pharyngeal Plexus of nerves. This is formed by branches of the Vagus (CN X) and Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) nerves along with sympathetic fibres from the Superior Cervical Ganglion.

Sensory Innervation
o Glossopharyngeal Nerve
o Nasopharynx is via the Opthalmic and Maxillary divisions of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V1+2)
Motor Innervation
o Vagus Nerve (CN X)
o Exception to this is the Stylopharyngeus Muscle
• Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)

342
Q

What are the 3 phases of swallowing?

A
  1. Voluntary Phase
    o Tongue moves the bolus back onto the pharynx
  2. Pharyngeal Phase
    o Afferent information from pressure receptors in the palate and anterior pharynx reaches the swallowing centre in the brain stem.
    o A set of movements is triggered
    • Inhibition of breathing
    • Raising of the larynx – Suprahyoid and Longitudinal Muscles
    • Closure of the glottis
    • Opening of the upper oesophageal ‘sphincter’
  3. Oesophageal Phase
    o The muscle in the upper third of the oesophagus is voluntary striated muscle under somatic control
    o The muscle of the lower two thirds is smooth muscle under control of the parasympathetic nervous system.
    o A wave of peristalsis sweeps down the oesophagus, propelling the bolus to the stomach in ~9 seconds.
    o Coordinated by extrinsic nerves from the swallowing centre of the brain
    o Lower oesophageal ‘sphincter’ opens
343
Q

What is the blood supply of the pharynx?

A
The blood supply of the Pharynx is via branches of the External Carotid Artery
o	Ascending Pharyngeal Artery
o	Lingual Artery
o	Facial Artery
o	Maxillary Artery
344
Q

What is the venous drainage of the pharynx?

A

Venous drainage of the Pharynx is via the Pharyngeal Venous Plexus → Internal Jugular Vein.

345
Q

What is the gag reflex?

A
The gag reflex tests pharyngeal innervation and musculature. It is conducted by touching the back of the oropharynx, which result in a reflex contraction of the pharyngeal muscles (makes the person gag). 
o	Afferent Pathway
•	Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)
o	Efferent Pathway
•	Vagus Nerve (CN X)
346
Q

What are adenoids?

A

o Sub-epithelial collection of lymphoid tissue
o Junction of roof and poster wall of Nasopharynx
o Maximal size between 3 – 8 years then regress
o Enlarge with viral / bacterial infections
o Recurrent infections may lead to chronically enlarge adenoids

347
Q

What are clinical features of adenoids?

A

o Nasal obstruction
o Mouth breathing, nasal speech
o Feeding difficulty (especially infants)
o Snoring / Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
o Block the opening of the Eustachian Tube

348
Q

Describe palatine tonsils

A

o Lie in the Tonsillar fossa between two arches
• Anterior – Palatoglossal Arch
• Boundary between mouth and oropharynx
• Posterior – Palatopharyngeal Arch
• Contains the Palatopharyngeus Muscle that blends with walls of the pharynx
o Lymphoid tissue covered by squamous epithelium
o Enlarge with bacterial or viral infection
o Lymphatic drainage is the Jugulo-Digastric (Tonsillar) node
• Angle of the mandible

349
Q

What is tonsillectomy?

A
  • Potential for bleeding as the palatine tonsils are very vascular
  • Bleeding often from the large External Palatine Vein
  • Internal Carotid Artery and Glossopharyngeal Nerve lie just lateral to Tonsillar fossa
350
Q

What is Quinsy?

A
  • Peritonsillar Abscess
  • Infection spread to peritonsillar tissue and abscess formation
  • Uvula pushed to the other side
  • Requires abscess drainage
351
Q

What are common sites for food to get stuck?

A
Oropharynx
o	Vallecula
•	Mucosal Pouch between the base of the tongue and epiglottis
o	Base of tongue
o	Region of palatine tonsil
Laryngopharynx
o	Piriform Fossa
•	Mucosal Recess between the central part of the larynx and lateral lamina of the thyroid cartilage 
o	Cricopharyngeus
352
Q

What is the larynx?

A

The Larynx connects the inferior Oropharynx to the Trachea. It also contains the voice box. The Larynx extends from the Laryngeal Inlet, through which it communicates with the Laryngopharynx to the level of the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage. Here the laryngeal cavity is continuous with the Trachea

353
Q

What is the function of the larynx?

A

The Larynx’s most vital function is to guard the air passages, especially during swallowing when it serves as the sphincter/valve of the lower respiratory tract, thus maintaining the airway.

354
Q

What is the laryngeal skeleton made up of?

A
Made up of the Hyoid Bone and 9 Cartilages:
o	3 Unpaired Cartilages
•	Epiglottis
•	Thyroid Cartilage
•	Cricoid Cartilage
o	1 important set of Paired Cartilages
•	Arytenoid Cartilage(s)
o	2 other sets of Paired Cartilages
•	Corniculate Cartilage(s)
•	Cuneiform Cartilage(s)
355
Q

What is the epiglottis?

A

o Leaf shaped fibro cartilage

o Attached by ligaments to the back of the hyoid bone and thyroid cartilage

356
Q

What is the thyroid cartilage?

A
o	Laryngeal Prominence (‘Adam’s Apple’)
o	Upper surface used to Mark C4 Level
•	Bifurcation of common carotid artery
•	Level of carotid body
o	2 lamina
o	2 horns
•	Superior Thyroid Horns → Ligament → Hyoid Bone
•	Inferior Thyroid Horn → Synovial Joint with Cricoid
357
Q

What is the cricoid cartilage?

A
o	Signet Ring Shaped
o	2 Articular facets on each side
•	Inferior horn of thyroid cartilage
•	Arytenoid Cartilage
o	Surface marking for C6 Level
358
Q

What is the arytenoid cartilage?

A
o	Pyramid shaped
o	Crucial in vocal cord movement
o	Concave base articulating with cricoid
o	Anterior – Vocal process
o	Lateral – Muscular process
359
Q

What are cricovocal ligaments?

A

o A.k.a. Conus Elasticus / Lateral Cricothyroid ligament
o Consists mainly of elastic fibres
o Lower border attached to cricoid cartilage
o Upper, Free Border = Vocal Ligament
• Attached to the deep surface of the angle of the thyroid cartilage
• Vocal process of arytenoid cartilage

360
Q

What are the divisions of the internal larynx?

A
internal cavity of the larynx is divided into three spaces:
o	Supraglottic space
•	Laryngeal Inlet → 
Vestibular folds (false vocal cords)
o	Glottis
•	Vocal Cords and Rima Glottis (space between vocal cords)
o	Subglottic Space
•	Below vocal cords → 
Lower border of Cricoid Cartilage
361
Q

What are the laryngeal muscles?

A
Extrinsic Muscles, which move the entire larynx
o	Infrahyoid muscles
•	Depress larynx
o	Suprahyoid muscles
•	Elevate larynx
Intrinsic Muscles, which act on the:
o	Vocal folds
•	Open and close glottis
o	Aryepiglottic folds
•	Help to close the laryngeal inlet
362
Q

What innervates the laryngeal muscles?

A

The Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve supplies the intrinsic muscles. The exception is the Cricothyroid Muscle, which is supplied by the External Laryngeal Nerve.

363
Q

What are the layers of the vocal cords?

A

o Stratified Squamous Epithelium
o Vocal Ligament
o Vocalis Muscle

The mucosa is firmly adherent to the vocal ligament, with no submucosa. This lack of a submucosa means that:
o Vocal cords look pearly white on laryngoscopy
o No oedema during infections
o Delayed spread of carcinoma of vocal cords

364
Q

What are the movements of the vocal cords?

A

Intrinsic Muscles of the Larynx move the vocal cords
o Abduction – Posterior Cricoarytenoid
• ONLY muscle which opens the true vocal cords
o Adduction – Lateral Cricoarytenoid
o Cricothyroid
• Only intrinsic muscle on the outside
• Increases vocal cord tension
• Only intrinsic muscle not supplied by Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve
• Supplied by External Laryngeal Nerve

365
Q

What is the innervation of the larynx?

A

The Larynx is innervated by Branches of the Vagus Nerve (CN X).

Superior Laryngeal Nerve
o Internal Laryngeal Nerve – Sensory to Larynx above true vocal cord
o External Laryngeal Nerve – Motor to Cricothyroid Muscle

Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve
o Sensory below the true vocal cord
o Motor to all intrinsic laryngeal muscles (except Cricothyroid)

366
Q

What is the course of the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A
The recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the Vagus Nerve (CN X).
o	Right Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve
•	Descends to T2
•	Curves around the Subclavian Artery
o	Left Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve
•	Descends to T4
•	Curves around the Arch of the Aorta

The nerves then course back up the neck to the larynx, lying between the trachea and oesophagus.

367
Q

What are the causes of hoarseness of the voice?

A

Pathology in the neck and chest can cause Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve palsy, leading to intrinsic laryngeal muscle weakness. This presents as hoarseness of voice. Hoarseness for longer than three weeks is a red flag symptom and needs evaluation to exclude malignancy.

Some causes of Hoarseness of Voice:
o Infection
• Laryngitis – Viral, Streptococcal
o Overuse of the voice
o GORD – Gastro Oesophageal Reflux
o Benign nodules on vocal cords (Singers)
o Apical Lung Tumour
• Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Palsy (Both sides)
o Bronchial Carcinoma
• Left Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Palsy (right doesn’t go low enough)

368
Q

What is the blood supply to the larynx?

A

The Larynx is supplied by the Superior and Inferior Laryngeal Arteries, which are branches of the Superior and Inferior Thyroid Arteries respectively.

External Carotid Artery → Superior Thyroid Artery → Superior Laryngeal Artery

Subclavian Artery → Inferior Thyroid Artery → Inferior Laryngeal Artery

369
Q

What is the venous drainage to the larynx?

A

The larynx is drained by the Superior and Inferior Laryngeal Veins, which accompany the corresponding arteries.

The Superior Laryngeal Vein joins the Superior Thyroid Vein before draining into the Internal Jugular Vein.

The Inferior Laryngeal Vein joins the Inferior Thyroid Vein, which empties into the Left Brachiocephalic Vein.

370
Q

What are the causes of laryngeal obstruction?

A

Upper airway / laryngeal obstruction may be caused by:
o Laryngeal Oedema
• Infection – Acute epiglottitis, croup, anaphylaxis
o Inhalation of foreign body
o Tumours
In an emergency situation an aiway is opening through the Cricothyroid Membrane (Cricothyroidotomy). If less urgent, a Tracheostomy is performed (opening into the trachea).