Head and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the bones of the skull and state the functions of the skull. (2)

A

Cranial Bones - provide protection for the brain and inner ear.
Facial bones - supportive role for the teeth, upper respiratory tract and upper GI tract and make up part of the orbit.

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2
Q

How does the structure of the skull differ in young animals? (4)

A

Adjacent bones are separated by strips of fibrous tissue called sutures. Between sutures are fontanelles - membrane covered soft spots that allow compression of the skull as it moves through the birth canal. These ossify early in life to form suture lines.

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3
Q

Describe the two parts of the Temporal bone. (7)

A

Petrous:
Caudal base of the cranium.
Tympanic bulla encloses the middle ear.
External acoustic meatus closed medially by tympanic membrane.

Squamous:
Caudo-lateral wall of cranium. Zygomatic process forms part of the zygomatic arch.
Contributes to the TMJ, prevents dislocation of the jaw.
Mastoid process - hyoid apparatus articulates here.

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4
Q

Compare the mandible and TMJ of carnivores and herbivores. (7)

A

The mandible is the largest bone in the face, the condylar process articulates with the temporal bone to form the TMJ.
Carnivores require a large gape and a more powerful bite than herbivores. As a result, the distance between the condylar process and the coronoid process have a larger distance between them to allow for a greater moment arm of the temporalis muscle. For the same reason, the TMJ is almost cylindrical to allow the wider gape and a greater degree of hinge movement, to the detriment of the lateral movement of the TMJ.
Ruminants and horses have a largely herbage diet that requires more chewing and grinding than a meat diet. For this reason, there is a greater moment arm of the masseter muscle, and the TMJ is constructed to allow a greater degree of lateral movement, with a very large and flat mandibular head. The poorer fit of articular surfaces of the TMJ means a better developed fibrocartilage meniscus is needed.

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5
Q

Outline the structures of the hyoid apparatus and their functions. (4)

A

Tympanohyoid Cartilage: Articulates with the skull caudal to the tympanic bulla.
Stylohyoid: Articulates with the tympanohyoid cartilage.
Basihyoid: Unpaired. Has a rostally projecting lingual process in large animals which is embedded in the root of the tongue.
Thyrohyoid: Articulates with thyroid cartilage of the larynx.

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6
Q

What are the functions of the hyoid apparatus? (3)

A

Suspensory mechanism for the larynx.
Anchors the tongue to the mastoid process.
Insertion point for muscles of the tongue, pharynx and neck.

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7
Q

Describe the main species variation in skull Anatomy between horses and ruminants. (5)

A

Both have an enlarged zygomatic process of the frontal bone and frontal process of the zygomatic bone to form a complete bony orbital rim.
In horses the gap between the nasal and incisive bones forms a palpable notch; the incisive notch.
In ruminants a palpable facial tuber is present on the lateral surface of the maxillary bone. The round and oval foramen are fused to form the foramen orbitorotundum. There are no alveoli present in the incisive bone for upper incisors or in the maxillary bone for upper canines. These teeth are replaced by a dental pad.

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8
Q

Describe the mimetic muscles and their functions. (2)

A

The superficial mimetic muscles are important for facial expression. Facial expression is important for social reasons, to express fear or aggression.
These include the platysma and superficial sphincter collli.
Innervated by the facial nerve.

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9
Q

What are the four groups of the deep sphincter colli? (1)

A

Oral, aural, occular, and zygomatic.

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10
Q

Describe the occular part of the deep sphincter colli. (3)

A

Obicularis oculi - controls size of aperture of the eyelids.
Retractors of eyes (medial and lateral).
Frontalis - fixes fascia over the frontal bone.
Levator nasolabialis - raises upper lip and nose (flares nostril).

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11
Q

Describe the aural part of the deep sphincter colli. (4)

A

Rostroauricular - pulls ear forwards.
Caudoauricular - Raises ear.
Interscutularis - fixes ear, moves ear medially.
Ventroauricular - depresses ear.
All supplied by auriculopalpebral branch of facial nerve except some caudoauricular muscles.

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12
Q

Describe the oral part of the deep sphincter colli. (5)

A

All innervated by buccal branches of the facial nerve.
Maxillonasolabialis - levator of upper lip.
Orbicularis oris - purses lips.
Buccinator - opposes tongue and maintains food on the masticatory tables of the teeth.
Mentalis - depressor of lower lip.

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13
Q

Describe the zygomatic part of the deep sphincter colli. (1)

A

Zygomaticus muscle and intermediate strands. Tenses the skin over the face and anchors the corner of the mouth.

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14
Q

Describe the course of the facial nerve (VII). What are the fibre types? (4)

A

Motor cell bodies located in the rostroventral medulla oblongata. Sensory cell bodies are located in the geniculate ganglion.
Fibre types: Sensory, Motor, Parasympathetic.
Facial nerve runs with vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII), entering the facial canal via the IAM. Exits the skull at the stylomastoid foramen.

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15
Q

What are the main branches of the facial nerve? What are their functions? (9)

A

Chorda tympani - sensory (taste from rostral 2/3 of the tongue) and involuntary motor (parasympathetic innervation to sublingual and submandibular salivary glands).
Stapedial nerve - motor to stapedius muscle.
Greater petrosal nerve - parasympathetic fibres.
Caudal auricular nerve - motor
Digastric nerve - motor digastricus.
Auriculopalpebral nerve - motor to rostal auricular muscles.
Dorsal and ventral buccal nerves - motor to muscles of facial expression.
Colli - motor to neck.
Stylohyoid - motor to stylohyoideus.
Internal auricular - sensory to external ear.

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16
Q

What are the consequences of damage to the facial nerve? (3)

A

Branches through middle ear are exposed to ear infections.
Superficial sites are exposed to trauma.
Bell’s Palsy may result in paralysis of the muscles of facial expression, loss of lacrimal and salivary excretion.

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17
Q

What are the differences between the facial muscles of a horse and that of a dog? (4)

A

Many large animals may have a muscle to pull down the lower lip (depressor labii inferioris) - prehensile lips.
Palpebralis is well developed and called the malaris.
Horses have a dilator of the external nares on the nasal bone.
Levator nasolabialis is split to allow passage of lateral dilator nares muscle.

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18
Q

What are the four muscles of mastication and their innervation? (5)

A

Temporalis - closes jaw.
Pterygoids - closes jaw.
Masseter - closes jaw. Two directional fibres.
Digastricus - opens the jaw. The weight of the jaw opens it naturally (gravity), more muscles are needed to close it.
Innervated by mandibular trigeminal nerve.

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19
Q

What are the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve (V)? (3)

A

Ophthalmic (V1) : 100% Sensory.
Maxillary (V2) : 100% Sensory.
Mandibular (V3) : General somatic afferents and special somatic efferents.

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20
Q

Describe the Ophthalmic division (V1). (3)

A

Sensory to skin of the forehead and dorsal orbit, upper eyelid, cornea and conjunctiva, mm of nasal cavity and sinuses, lacrimal gland and horn base in ruminants.
lacrimal nerve, frontal nerve, nasociliary nerve. Exits cranium via the orbital fissure.

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21
Q

Describe the Maxillary division (V2). (5)

A

100% Sensory. Skin of lateral surface of head, upper jaw, nose and maxillary sinus, both palates and teeth. Exits cranium via the round foramen.
Infraorbital nerve, zygomatic (zygomaticofacial and zygomaticotemporal) nerve, pterygopalatine nerve.

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22
Q

Describe the Mandibular division (V3). (3)

A

Sensory and motor components. Motor to muscles of mastication and to the tensor muscles and mylohyoid muscles.
Sensory to lower jaw and teeth, intermandibular skin. Sensory branches are BALI. (Buccal, Auriculotemporal, Lingual and Inferior Alveolar nerve).

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23
Q

Describe the muscles of the hyoid apparatus and their innervation. (4)

A

Geniohyoid - genio (chin) to basihyoid. Fixes larynx and hyoid and pulls rostrally, innervated by hypoglossal nerve.
Sternohyoid - sternum to basihyoid. Fixes larynx and hyoid, innervated by cervical and accessory nerves.
Thyrohyoid - thyroid cartilage of larynx to thyrohyoid bone. Fixes larynx and hyoid. innervated by cervial and accessory.
Mylohyoid - forms the floor of the mouth. Innervated by V3.

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24
Q

Describe the hypoglossal nerve XII (2)

A

Motor - GSE.
Motor to muscles of the tongue and geniohyoid.
Exits cranium via hypoglossal canal/foramen.

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25
Q

List and describe the main ligaments associated with the neck. (4)

A
Dorsal longitudinal ligament - support to intervertebral discs. 
Interspinous ligaments - connect adjacent vertebral spines. 
Interarcuate ligaments (ligamenta flava) - elastic fibres. Join adjacent vertebral arches. 
Nuchal ligament - supraspinous ligament with runs along thoracic spinous processes.
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26
Q

Describe the species variation in the Nuchal ligament. (6)

A

Distinct nuchal ligament only present in ungulates and canidae.
Functional in supporting the head and neck. Comprised of yellow elastic fibres. Originates on the first spinous process of thoracic vertebrae.
Dog - inserts on spinous process of axis.
Horse and ox - well developed to support head whilst grazing. Two parts. Funicular part is cord like, attaches to external occipital protuberance of the skull.
Laminar part is sheet like, extends from funicular part to dorsal spinous process of the cervical vertebrae.

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27
Q

Describe the structure and function of intervertebral discs. (3)

A

Lie between adjacent vertebral bodies.
Function related to flexibility and mobility and for shock absorption.
Comprised of an annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus.

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28
Q

Describe the ageing changes that occur in intervertebral discs, particularly in chondrodystrophoid breeds. (3)

A

As animals age the gelatinous structure of the nucleus becomes replaced by fibrocartilage.
These changes result in decreased flexibility of the discs, and may lead to disc rupture.
In chondrodystrophoid breeds senile changes occur earlier in life, making these animals more prine to disc lesions.

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29
Q

Describe the two portions of the Brachycephalicus. (2)

A

Cleidocervicalis -superficial.

Cleidomastoideus - deep and lies below sternomastoideus (shares a tendon at the mastoid bone).

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30
Q

What are the two components of the sternocephalicus? (2)

A

Sterno-occipitalis and sternomastoideus.

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31
Q

Where does the splenius lie in the dog (1)

A

Spines T3-T5 to the nuchal crest transverse processes C2-C5.

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32
Q

What are the principle vessels of the blood supply to the head and neck? (4)

A

Common carotid arteries.
Vertebral arteries.
Ventral spinal artery.
External jugular vein.

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33
Q

Which two arteries anastomose to form the Basilar artery? (1)

A

Vertebral artery and the occipital artery.

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34
Q

What runs in the carotid sheath? (4)

A

Fascial sheath, contains common carotid artery, vagosympathetic trunk, internal jugular vein, and RLN.

35
Q

What is the risk of bleeding inside the sheath? (1)

A

The blood collects at the base of the neck, manifesting in a bulge or swelling, possibly infection.

36
Q

List the four main branches of the CCA in the neck. Which structures do they supply? (4)

A

Caudal thyroid artery.
Cranial thyroid artery - thyroid and parathyroid glands, cranial oesophagus and trachea.
Pharyngeal artery - larynx and pharynx.
Muscular branches to neck muscles.

37
Q

How might leaky valves in the head present a clinical issue? (1)

A

Superficial infection may track back into the brain due to bi-directional flow, causing meningitis.

38
Q

What are the main groups of lymph nodes? Where do they drain from? (5)

A

Parotid lymph node - superficial face above the palate.
Lateral retropharyngeal lymph node.
Medial retropharyngeal lymph node - deep structures of the head and pharynx and larynx.
Mandibular lymph nodes - superficial face below the palate.
Superficial cervical lymph nodes.

39
Q

Describe the species differences in the mandibular lymph centre. (3)

A

Dog: 2-3 Mandibular lymph nodes on each side of the head. Closely associated with the linguofacial vein.
Horse: 2 chains of 70-150 small lymph nodes. Located in the intermandibular space. Left and right chains meet rostrally to form a palpable V shaped structure.
Ruminant: 3-4 mandibular lymph nodes on each side of the head, ventral to linguofacial vein and medial to tendon of sternomandibularis.

40
Q

Describe the lymphatic drainage of the neck. (2)

A

Deep cervical lymph nodes drain directly into thoracic duct.
Superficial cervical lymph nodes - drain into either tracheal or thoracic duct.

41
Q

What is strangles? (1)

A

Infection of retropharyngeal lymph nodes.

42
Q

Describe the drainage of sinuses. (3)

A

Sinuses are air filled spaces in bone that communicate with the nasal cavity. They develop when the nasal mucosa invades the bones of the skull and each sinus is named after the bone it has invaded.

43
Q

What are the possible functions of the sinuses? (4)

A

Resonance chambers for vocalisation, thermal insulation, protection of the brain, allow increase the size of the skull without weight.

44
Q

Describe the anatomy of the frontal sinus. (3)

A

Multiple invaginations of the nasal mucosa.
Divided into 3 compartments - lateral, medial and rostral.
Do not communicate with each other.
In all species except the horse the frontal sinus drains directly into the nasal cavity. Connects to nasal cavity between ethmoconchae.

45
Q

Describe the anatomy of the maxillary sinus. (1)

A

Single, poorly developed chamber, therefore unlikely to get blocked. Known as the maxillary recess due to its free communication with the nasal cavity.

46
Q

Describe the equine frontal sinus. (4)

A

Extensive, located in the dorsal skull. Incompletely divided by bony lamellae. Communicates with the caudal aspect of the dorsal concha to form the concho-frontal sinus. Poor drainage.
Drainage is indirect into the nasal cavity via the caudal maxillary sinus.
Sinus problems are common in horses as infection disrupts drainage.

47
Q

Describe the clinical importance of the equine maxillary sinus. (3)

A

Highly susceptible to infection - pus collects in the ventral part of the sinus due to narrow masomaxillary opening.
Trephination - holes made from outside the cheek to drain infection.
Close association with cheek teeth - root abscesses may break into the maxillary sinus.

48
Q

Describe the anatomy relevant to euthanasia by shooting. (2)

A

Use external landmarks for maximal accuracy - intention is to kill the animal destroying the CV and respiratory centres of the brain (medulla oblongata).

49
Q

Explain the growth and development from the ruminant horn.

A

Develops from specialised dermis, produced by epithelium covering the cornual processes of the frontal bone.
Tubules interlock with dermal papillae, similar to hoof.

50
Q

What are the functions of the auditory tube? (2)

A

Connects the nasopharynx with the middle ear (dorsally, inside the tympanic bulla).
Permits equalisation of pressure across the ear drum.

51
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the DAT? (2)

A

Mycotic infections are common, and may invade the DAT from the nasopharynx and may then infect the middle ear. Drainage is possible via Viborg’s Triangle.

52
Q

What is in direct caudo-dorsal contact with the DAT? What would be the clinical affects of erosion of the wall of the DAT? (3)

A
4 Nerves (IX, X, XI), ICA and the sympathetic trunk. 
Erosion of the wall may lead to fatal epistaxis, pharyngeal paralysis, inability to swallow, paralysis of the larynx, roaring, and nasal congestion.
53
Q

What is in lateral contact with the DAT? What is the result of erosion of the wall of the DAT? (2)

A

Nerve VII, maxillary vessels (pre-alar canal). Clinical erosion may lead to fatal epistaxis and paralysis.

54
Q

What is in ventral contact with the DAT? What is the clinical relevance of this? (2)

A

Pharyngeal lymph nodes. Strangles (abscesses in the lymph nodes) may rupture into the DAT.

55
Q

What is the function of the ciliated epithelium lining the auditory tube? (1)

A

Self-cleaning.

56
Q

Describe the anatomy of the auditory tube in the horse. What is the clinical relevance of this? (3)

A

Highly developed, mucosa forms a bag at the DAT - a gutteral pouch.
The gutteral pouch surrounds the stylohyoid bone.
This pouch is the perfect environment for mycotic infections (fungal) which may erode the mucosa in the AT, leading to haemorrhage of the ICA.

57
Q

What makes up the anatomy of viborg’s triangle? (3)

A

Back angle of the jaw.
Linguofacial vein.
Sternomandibularis tendon.

58
Q

What makes up the anatomy of viborg’s triangle? (3)

A

Back angle of the jaw.

Linguofacial vein. Sternomandibularis tendon.

59
Q

What are the functions of the larynx? (3)

A

Connects the pharynx to the trachea.
Protects the lower respiratory tract from inundation.
Increases intra-thoracic and abdominal pressure.

60
Q

What is the innervation of the larynx? (1)

A

Vagus.

61
Q

What is the function of the cricoarytenoid dorsal muscle in the larynx? (1)

A

Opens the glottis, abducts the folds. Works alone.

62
Q

What is the function of the cricoarytenoid lateral muscle in the larynx? (1)

A

Attaches to lateral arytenoids.

63
Q

What is the function of the cricothyroid muscle? (1)

A

Increases tension in the vocal folds, increases pitch.

64
Q

What is the function of the aryepiglottic fold? (1)

A

Fills the gaps surrounding the epiglottis, blocks off the larynx.

65
Q

What is the function of the thyroarytenoid muscle? (1)

A

Contracts to lower the pitch of sound made.

66
Q

Which muscles act to raise the pharynx? (2)

A

Pterygopharyngeus and palatopharyngeus.

67
Q

Which muscles act to constrict the pharynx? (3)

A

Hyopharyngeus, thyropharyngeus, cricopharyngeus.

68
Q

Which muscle acts to dilate the pharynx? (1)

A

Stylopharyngeus.

69
Q

Which muscle raises and shortens the soft palate in the act of swallowing? (1)

A

Longitudinal palatini muscle.

70
Q

Which muscle tenses the soft palate during exercise? (1)

A

Tensor veli palatini - important during exercise.

71
Q

What is the result of damage to nerves of the palatine plexus (IX and X) (1)

A

Difficulty swallowing.

72
Q

How is exercise output maximised in horses? (3)

A

Head lowered.
Nostrils flared.
Mucosa shrinks.

73
Q

What are the two types of muscles in the tongue? What do they do? (2)

A

Extrinsic - move tongue around.

Intrinsic - change the shape of the tongue.

74
Q

What is the function of the genioglossus? (1)

A

Protracts the tongue.

75
Q

What is the function of the hypoglossus? (1)

A

Retracts the tongue.

76
Q

What is the function of the styloglossus? (1)

A

Lateral deviation.

77
Q

Describe the innervation of the tongue. (4)

A

Tongue muscles - Hypoglossal nerve (XII).
Taste from caudal 1/3 - glossopharyngeal nerve (IX).
Taste from rostral 2/3 - Chorda tympani (branch of VII facial nerve)
General sensory - lingual branch of trigeminal nerve (V3)

78
Q

Describe the layout of the autonomic system. (8)

A

Entirely motor.
Multipolar, 2 cells. Pre and post ganglionic. Cell 1 always located in the CNS.
No lateral horn in the cervical spine.
Sympathetic cell bodies located in the lateral horns of T1 to L3 - Thoracolumbar outflow.
Parasympathetic autonomic cell bodies located in the cranium or the sacral spinal cord - Craniosacral outflow.
Sympathetic ganglia located along paravertebral and prevertebral chains.
Parasympathetic ganglia lie in the walls of target organs.

79
Q

Describe the layout of sympathetics in the head and neck (4)

A

All run to the head in the vagosympathetic trunk.
Preganglionic from T1-T7.
Synapse in the crainial cervical sympathetic ganglion.
Postganglionics run as parietal plexi on the ECA, ICA and CCA, buried in the vessel walls.

80
Q

What are the functions of the sympathetics in the head and neck? (5)

A

5 x S

Stimulate SWEAT glands, Reduce SALIVA, Dilate the pupil SIGHT, contracts SMOOTH MUSCLE of vascular walls. SYMPATHETICS.

81
Q

Describe the parasympathetics of the head and neck. (2)

A

Craniosacral outflow.

CN III, VII, IX, X.

82
Q

What are the two phases of deglutition? (2)

A

Voluntary - moving food to the soft palate mucosa using tongue glossi muscles.
Involuntary - close the nasopharynx, raises the palate. Uses the levator Veli Palatini and Longitudinal Palatini.

83
Q

Describe the entire process of deglutition. (6)

A
  1. Tongue moves food to the soft palate mucosa using glossi muscles.
  2. Soft palate is raised, nasopharynx is closed.
  3. Larynx is brought up to the epiglottis.
  4. Hyoid protracts using the mylohyoideus.
  5. Pharynx closes.
  6. Gravity moves food down the oesophagus, then peristalsis takes over.
84
Q

What are the symptoms of a middle ear infection? (6)

A

Loud noises not muffled, irritable, flinching.
Off food (damage to chorda tympani).
Decreased glandular secretion.
Pus build up, squashes nerve IX.