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ESA 4 > Head and Neck > Flashcards

Head and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

Where does sternocleidomastoid attach?

A

From lateral mastoid process to anterior manubrium of sternum and to superior aspect of medial clavicle

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2
Q

What nerve innervates sternocleidomastoid and trapezius?

A

Spinal accessory nerve CN XI

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3
Q

What are the borders of the posterior triangle?

A 
Anterior - Posterior border of sternocleidomastoid
Posterior - Anterior border of trapezius
Inferior - medial third of the clavicle
Floor - paravertebral fascia
Roof - investing fascia
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4
Q

What are the main contents of the posterior triangle?

A

Accessory nerve
External jugular vein
Subclavian artery and vein
Transverse cervical artery and vein

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5
Q

What are the subdivisions of the posterior triangle?

A

Inferior head of omohyoid muscle splits it into Occipital triangle superiorly and subclavian triangle inferiorly

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6
Q

What are the borders of the anterior triangle?

A

Superior - inferior border of madible
Lateral - Medial border of SCM
Medial - midline of neck

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7
Q

What are the different subdivisions of the anterior triangle?

A

Carotid, submandibular, submental, muscular

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8
Q

What are the borders of the carotid triangle?

A

Superior - Posterior belly of digastric muscle
Inferior- Superior belly of omohyoid muscle
Lateral - Medial border of SCM

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9
Q

What are the borders of the submental triangle?

A

Floor - Mylohyoid bone
Lateral - Anterior belly of digastric muscle
Medial - midline of neck
Inferior - hyoid bone

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10
Q

What are the borders of the submandibular triangle?

A

Anterior - anterior belly of digastric muscle
Posteriorly - Posterior belly of digastric muscle
Superior - body of mandible

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11
Q

What are the borders of the muscular triangle?

A

Superolateral - Superior belly of omohyoid muslce
Inferolateral - Medial SCM
Superior - Hyoid bone
Medial - midline of neck

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12
Q

What are the different divisions of the deep fascia of the neck?

A

Prevertebral, pretracheal and investing

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13
Q

What is contained in the carotid sheath?

A 
Internal jugular vein
Common carotid then internal carotid artery
Vagus nerve
Deep cervical lymph nodes
Carotid sinus nerve
Sympathetic nerve fibres
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14
Q

If there’s infection in the retropharyngeal space, where can it spread to?

A

Down into thorax and mediastinum

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15
Q

At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate?

A

C4

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16
Q

What are the names of the 4 suprahyoid muscles and what are their actions?

A

Digastric - (facial) elevates and steadies the hyoid
Stylohyoid (facial) elevates and retracts hyoid
Geniohyoid (hypoglossal) Widens pharynx. pulls hyoid anterosuperiorly
Mylohyoid (nerve to) Elevates hyoid, tongue and floor of mouth

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17
Q

What are the 4 infrahyoid muscles and what are their actions?

A

Omohyoid (C1-C3) Depresses, retracts and steadies hyoid
Sternohyoid (C1-C3) Depresses hyoid after elevation
Thyrohyoid (hypoglossal) depresses hyoid and raises larynx
Sternothyroid (C2, C3) Depresses hyoid and larynx

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18
Q

What are the four main layers of the neck?

A

Skin
Superficial fascia
Platysma muscle (anteriorly)
Deep cervical fascia

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19
Q

What is contained in the superficial fascia?

A 
Fatty connective tissue
Cutaneous nerves
Vasculature
Lymphatic vessels
Platysma
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20
Q

What are the three layers of the deep cervical fascia?

A

Investing
Pre tracheal
Pre vertebral

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21
Q

What does the investing layer of fascia in the neck contain?

A

Encloses sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

Contains parotid and submandibular salivary glands

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22
Q

What are the attachments of the investing layer of fascia in the neck?

A 
Ligamentum nuchae
Mastoid process
Zygomatic arches
Inferior mandible
Hyoid bone 
Spinous process of C7 vertebrae
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23
Q

Where is the investing layer of fascia, in relation to the platysma muscle?

A

Posterior

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24
Q

Where does the pretracheal layer of fascia in the neck run from and to?

A

From inferior hyoid bone to the superior thorax where it fuses with the pericardium

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25
Q

What does the pretracheal layer of fascia in the neck contain?

A

Visceral part contains the trachea, thyroid gland and oesophagus.
Muscular part encloses the infrahyoid muscles

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26
Q

What’s the purpose of the thickenings of the pretracheal fascial layer in the neck?

A

Thickens to form a trochlea through which the intermediate tendon of the digastric muscle can pass and suspend the hyoid bone.
Tethers the omohyoid muscle

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27
Q

Where does the prevertebral fascial layer in the neck run from and to?

A

From the cranial base and then down to where it fuses with the endothoracic fascia peripherally and with the anterior longitudinal ligament at the level of T3, centrally

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28
Q

What does the prevertebral fascial layer extend laterally to form?

A

Axillary sheath, containing axillary vessels and the brachial plexus.

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29
Q

Where does the carotid sheath fuse with other fascial layers?

A

Anteriorly with the investing and pretracheal fascial layers and posteriorly with the prevertebral layer

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30
Q

What structures does the carotid sheath communicate with, inferiorly and superiorly?

A

Along with the pretracheal fascia, communicates superiorly with the cranial cavity and inferiorly with the mediastinum. This is important in the spread of infections and blood.

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31
Q

What is the retropharyngeal space?

A

Potential space between the prevertebral and visceral pretracheal fascial layers in the neck.

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32
Q

What is the alar fascia?

A

A subdivision of the retropharyngeal space. Runs from the cranium to C7 and extends laterally to the carotid sheath.

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33
Q

What is the purpose of the retropharyngeal fascia?

A

To allow movement of viscera, relative to the vertebral column on swallowing.

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34
Q

Where does the retropharyngeal space open?

A

Into the superior mediastinum

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35
Q

From where do most infections in the retropharyngeal space originate?

A

Nasopharyngeal lymph nodes, especially in children

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36
Q

Where is the parapharyngeal space?

A

Lateral to the pharynx, anterior to the carotid sheath and medial to the parotid gland

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37
Q

From where do infections in the parapharyngeal space most often originate?

A

The teeth or parotid gland. Spread to the mediastinum

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38
Q

From where does the right common carotid artery originate?

A

From the right brachiocephalic trunk

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39
Q

Where do the common carotids bifurcate?

A

At superior border of the thyroid cartilage, roughly level with C4

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40
Q

Where does the internal carotid artery enter the cranium?

A

At the carotid canal, anterior to the jugular foramen

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41
Q

Where is the thyrocervical trunk?

A

Arises from the subclavian artery, distal to the vertebral artery. Arises near the anterior border of the anterior scalene muscle

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42
Q

What are the four branches of the thyrocervical trunk?

A

Inferior thyroid
Ascending cervical
Transverse cervical
Suprascapular

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43
Q

What does the inferior thyroid artery innervate?

A

Larynx, trachea, oesophagus, thyroid, parathyroids, and their accompanying muscles.

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44
Q

What does the suprascapular artery supply?

A

Minor supply to sternocleidomastoid

Subclavius muscle

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45
Q

What’s an anatomical variant of place of origin of the suprascapular artery?

A

From thyrocervical trunk or direct from the subclavian artery

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46
Q

What does the transverse cervical artery supply?

A

Sternocleidomastoid
Trapezius
Vasovasorum of brachial plexus nerves after branching into superficial cervical artery and dorsal scapular artery

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47
Q

What does the ascending cervical artery supply?

A

Upper lateral muscles of the neck

SOme branches to intervertebral foramina

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48
Q

Where do the vertebral arteries originate?

A

From subclavian artery, medial to anterior scalene muscle.

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49
Q

Where do the vertebral arteries travel from their origin?

A

Up the back of the neck, through the transverse foramina of C6-C1 and then enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum. They then merge to form the basilar artery

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50
Q

What are the main branches of the external carotid artery?

A 
Superior thyroid
Occipital
Maxillary
Facial
Lingual
Ascending pharyngeal
SUperficial temporal 
Posterior auricular
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51
Q

What happens if there’s a rupture of the middle meningeal artery due to a pterion fracture?

A

Can cause an extradural haemorrhage

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52
Q

What’s the embryological origin of muscles of facial expression?

A

Second pharyngeal arch

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53
Q

What cranial nerve supplies the muscles of facial expression?

A

Facial - CN VII and its branches: temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular and cervical

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54
Q

What’s the only muscle in the epicranial group of muscles of facial expression?

A

Occipitofrontalis. Flat digastric muscle with two bellies joined by epicranial aponeurosis

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55
Q

What’s the action of occipitofrontalis?

A

Raises eyebrows and wrinkles forehead

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56
Q

What are the muscles in the orbital group of muscles of facial expression?

A

Orbicularis oculi

Corrugator supercilii

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57
Q

What are the divisions of orbicularis oculi?

A

Orbital group more peripheral and thicker. Closes eyelids firmly and is under voluntary control
Palpebral portion is more central and thinner. Closes eyelids gently and isn’t under voluntary control
Lacrimal portion compresses lacrimal sac to aid the passing of tears

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58
Q

What’s the function of corrugator supercilii?

A

Draws eyebrows infermedially

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59
Q

What are the main nasal muscles of facial expression?

A

Nasalis
Procerus
Levator labii superioris alaeque nasi

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60
Q

What’s the main function of the nasal muscles of facial expression?

A

Flare nostrils.

Procerus also lowers eyebrows

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61
Q

What muscles are in the oral group of muscles of facial expression?

A 
Buccinator
Obicularis oris
Mentalis
Zygomaticus major and minor
Risorius
Depressor anguli oris
Platysma
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62
Q

What’s the action of the buccinator muscle?

A

Presses cheeks against molar teeth and resists distension when blowing.

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63
Q

What’s the action of obicularis oris?

A

Oral sphincter. Purses lips and provides attachment for various muscles.

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64
Q

What’s the action of zygomaticus major and minor?

A

Dilators of the mouth that elevate the lip. If bilateral, helps produce a smile. If unilateral, produces a sneer

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65
Q

What’s the purpose of risorius?

A

Retracts the angle of the mouth to help with smiling.

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66
Q

Where does the risorius muscle arise?

A

From fascia covering the parotid gland

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67
Q

What’s the action of depressor anguli oris?

A

Dilator of the mouth that pulls the corners of the lips down

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68
Q

What’s the action of the mentalis muscle?

A

Protrudes the lower lip. Also wrinkles chin skin.

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69
Q

What’s the action of platysma?

A

Depresses and tenses the skin of the lower face and mouth. Aids in depression of the mandible.

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70
Q

Which muscles lie under the prevertebral fascia to form the floor of the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

Anterior, middle and inferior scalene muscles
Splenius capitis
Levator scapulae

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71
Q

Which vessels form the external jugular vein?

A

Retromandibular and posterior auricular veins

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72
Q

Where in the posterior triangle do the suprascapular and transverse cervical arteries run?

A

Along the base of the triangle

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73
Q

What happens if the external jugular vein is ligated?

A

Its lumen is kept patent by the thick, tough layer of investing fascia. Air is drawn into the vein so this can form a froth and therefore cause central cyanosis. To prevent this, pressure must be applied to the vein.

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74
Q

Where does the accessory nerve lie in the posterior triangle?

A

After innervating sternocleidomastoid, it crosses the traingle in an oblique, inferoposterior direction, within the investing layer of fascia. Therefore it is relatively superficial and prone to injury.

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75
Q

Where in the neck does the phrenic nerve pass?

A

Part of the cervical plexus which forms within the muscles of the floor of the posterior triangle. Arises from C3-C5 and then travels down the neck, within the prevertebral fascia, to innervate the diaphragm.

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76
Q

How is a cervical plexus nerve block performed?

A

Performed to numb the neck. Anaesthesia is injected along the posterior border of sternocleidomastoid, at the junction between it’s superior and middle thirds, as this is where the cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus emerge. (nerve point)

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77
Q

In what group of people should a cervical plexus nerve block not be performed?

A

In patients with cardiac or pulmonary problems as the block damages the phrenic nerve

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78
Q

What are the contents of the anterior triangle?

A 
Infrahyoid muscles
Supra hyoid muscles
Common carotid artery and bifurcation into external and internal carotids
Internal jugular vein
Facial nerve (VII)
Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
Vagus nerve (X)
Accessory nerve (XI)
Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
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79
Q

What are the main contents of the carotid triangle?

A 
Common carotid artery and bifurcation into internal and external carotids
Internal jugular vein
Vagus nerve (X)
Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
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80
Q

What forms the base of the submental triangle?

A

Mylohyoid muscle. Runs from hyoid bone to body of mandible

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81
Q

What are the contents of the submandibular triangle?

A

Submandibular salivary gland
Submandibular lymph nodes
Facial artery
Facial vein

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82
Q

What are the contents of the muscular triangle?

A

Infrahyoid muscles
Pharynx
Thyroid gland
Parathyroid glands

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83
Q

What kind of connective tissue are deep and superficial fascia?

A

Superficial is loose connective tissue

Deep fascia is dense irregular connective tissue

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84
Q

What are the purposes of fascial planes?

A

Division into compartments
Ease of movement against other structures eg in swallowing
Forms natural planes
Determines spread of infection

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85
Q

Where do the heads of the platysma muscle originate?

A

Pectoralis major and deltoid muscle. Meet in midline and fuse with facial muscles

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86
Q

What are the attachments of the investing layer of fascia?

A

Superior - External occipital protuberance, superior nuchal line
Inferior - Spine of scapular, acromion, manubrium, clavicle
Lateral - Mastoid process, zygomatic arch

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87
Q

What other fascial layer helps to contribute to the posterior portion of the muscular pretracheal fascia layer?

A

Buccopharyngeal fascia

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88
Q

What are the attachments of the prevertebral layer of fascia?

A

Anteriorly attaches to vertebral bodies and transverse processes of cervical vertebrae
Posteriorly, attaches along the ligamentum nuchae

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89
Q

What stops a superficial skin abscess of the neck spreading further into the neck?

A

The investing layer of fascia

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90
Q

What are the two main locations, deep to investing fascia where an infection could be particularly problematic?

A

Posterior to the prevertebral fascia.This can errode through the prevertebral fascia, into the retropharyngeal space. This extends into the thorax so the drainage of pus can lead to infection of mediastinal contents.
Between investing fascia and visceral pretracheal. Infections can spread into the chest, causing infection anterior to the pericardium

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91
Q

What are the four suprahyoid muscles?

A

Mylohyoid
Geniohyoid
Digastric
Stylohyoid

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92
Q

What are the attachments of stylohyoid?

A

From styloid process of temporal bone to lateral side of hyoid bone

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93
Q

What innervates stylohyoid?

A

Facial nerve (CN VII)

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94
Q

What are the actions of stylohyoid?

A

Initiates swallowing by pulling the hyoid posteriorly and superiorly

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95
Q

What are the attachements of digastric?

A

Anterior belly originates from the digastric fossa of the mandible
Posterior belly originates from mastoid process. Both are joined by a tendon that’s attached to the hyoid bone

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96
Q

What innervates diagastric?

A

Anterior belly innervated by trigeminal nerve (CN V)

Posterior belly innervated by facial nerve

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97
Q

What are the actions of digastric?

A

Depresses mandible and elevates hyoid

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98
Q

What are attachments of mylohyoid?

A

Mylohyoid line of mandible to hyoid bone

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99
Q

What is mylohyoid innervated by?

A

Trigeminal nerve

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100
Q

What are the actions of mylohyoid?

A

Elevates the floor of the mouth and the hyoid bone

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101
Q

What are the attachments of geniohyoid?

A

Inferior mental spine of mandible to the hyoid.

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102
Q

What is geniohyoid innervated by?

A

C1 roots that run with the hypoglossal nerve

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103
Q

What are the actions of geniohyoid?

A

Depresses mandible and elevates hyoid

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104
Q

What are the four infrahyoid muscles?

A

Omohyoid
Sternohyoid
Sternothyroid
Thyrohyoid

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105
Q

Which two infrahyoid muscles are deeper?

A

Thyrohyoid and sternothyroid

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106
Q

What are the attachments of sternohyoid?

A

Sternum and sternoclavicular joint to hyoid bone

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107
Q

What are the actions of the infrahyoid muscles?

A

All act to depress the hyoid. If the hyoid is fixed, then thyrohyoid can also elevate the larynx

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108
Q

What supplies the infrahyoid muscles?

A

All supplied by the anterior rami of C1-C3, carried by a branch of ansa cervicalis
EXCEPT for thyrohyoid. This is supplied by anterior ramus of C1, carried within the hypoglossal nerve

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109
Q

What are the attachments of omohyoid?

A

Inferior belly arises at scapula. Superior belly attaches to hyoid. Joint in the middle by a tendon which is attached to clavicle by the deep cervical fascia, deep to sternocleidomastoid

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110
Q

What are the attachments of thyrohyoid?

A

Thyroid cartilage to hyoid bone

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111
Q

What are the attachments of sternothyroid?

A

Manubrium of sternum to thyroid cartilage

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112
Q

What is the function of the skull?

A

To enclose and protect the brain and special sense organs

Site of attachment for muscles and meninges

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113
Q

What kind of joints are the sutures of the skull?

A

Fibrous

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114
Q

What is the structure of cranial bones?

A

Two layers of compact bone surrounding a spongy diploe

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115
Q

How can the cranium be subdivided?

A

Calvaria which covers the cranial cavity that contains the brain
Cranial base
Facial skeleton

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116
Q

What are the main components of the calvaria?

A 
Parietal
Frontal
Temporal
Occipital
Ethmoid
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117
Q

What are the main components of the cranial base?

A

Spenoid
Temporal
Occipital

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118
Q

What are the main facial bones?

A 
Maxilla
Nasal
Lacrimal
Palatine
Zygomatic
Inferior nasal conchae
Vomer
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119
Q

What is the glabella?

A

Depression between the two superciliary arches of the frontal bone

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120
Q

Where is the supraorbital foramen?

A

The medial part of the superior orbital rim, formed by the frontal bone

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121
Q

What separates the paired nasal bones?

A

The naison

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122
Q

What is the piriform aperture?

A

Large opening in the nasal region

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123
Q

What structures can be visualised through the piriform aperture?

A

Nasal crests which end anteriorly as the anterior nasal spine

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124
Q

What’s the name of the inferior part of the maxilla, where teeth start?

A

Alveolar process

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125
Q

Where is the infraorbital foramina? m

A

Just below the inferior rim of the orbit, in the maxillary bone

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126
Q

What is the mental protuberance?

A

A midline swelling of the base of the mandible

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127
Q

Where are the mental tubercles?

A

Just lateral to the mental protuberance of the mandible

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128
Q

Where does the mandible articulate with the rest of the skull? ?

A

At the temporomandibular joint.

Coronoid process of mandible comes into contact with zygomatic bone

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129
Q

Which parts of the mandible unite at the angle of the mandible?

A

Anterior body and posterior ramus

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130
Q

What is the oblique line of the mandible?

A

A ridge that runs from the front of the ramus to the body for muscle attachment

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131
Q

What are some notable features of the ethmoid bone?

A

Horizontal cribriform plate with crista galli perpendicular to this. Also has oblique plate containing ethoid sinuses/ air cells and a perpendicular plate

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132
Q

What are some notable features of the sphenoid?

A

Has lesser wings superiorly and greater wings inferiorly. Point where these meet is a supraorbital fissure.
Also has downward projecting pterygoid process

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133
Q

What features are found on the internal surface of the parietal bone?

A

Groove for middle meningeal artery
Sagittal sulcus
Granular pits for CSF valves
Grooves for sigmoid sinus

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134
Q

What are some notable features of the temporal bone?

A

Flat squamous part superiorly, articulates with parietal bone
Zygomatic process that projects out laterally and articulates with temporal process of zygomatic bone
Styloid process projecting inferiorly
Mastoid part articulates with parietal and occipital bones. Mastoid process projects inferiorly from mastoid part
Tympanic part is immediately below origin of zygomatic process and has external acoustic opening

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135
Q

What are some notable features of the occipital bone?

A

Flat squamous part.
Superior and inferior nuchal lines either side of the external occipital crest.
Occipital condyles surrounding the foramen magnum with hypoglossal canal lateral to these condyles

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136
Q

What is the purpose of the cranial floor foramina?

A

TO reduce skull weight
To allow passage of vessels
Weaken cranial floor

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137
Q

What structures enter through the cranial floor foramina?

A

Arteries
Sensory nerves
Sympathetic fibres
(infections)

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138
Q

What structures leave through the cranial floor foramina

A 
Cranial motor nerves
Parasympathetic outflow
Veins
Lymphatics
(Infections)
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139
Q

Where is the transverse suture?

A

Between the hard palate of the maxilla and the hard palate of the palatine bone

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140
Q

Where is the sagittal suture?

A

Between two parietal bones

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141
Q

Where is the coronal suture?

A

Between the frontal and parietal bones

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142
Q

Where is the pterion?

A

Point where greater wing of sphenoid, parietal, temporal and frontal bones meet

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143
Q

Where is the lamboid suture?

A

Between the parietal and occipital bones

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144
Q

Where is the parietotemporal suture?

A

Also squamous suture. Between parietal bone and squamous part of temporal bone

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145
Q

What is the bregma?

A

Point where the coronal and sagittal sutures meet

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146
Q

What is the lamba?

A

Point where sagittal and lamboid sutures meet

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147
Q

What are the remnants of the anterior and posterior fontanelles?

A

Anterior becomes bregma

Posterior becomes lambda

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148
Q

What is the purpose of fontanelles in newborns?

A

Points where sutures haven’t fully close. Adjacent bones are held together by a thick, membranous connective tissue matrix. They allow for the cranial bones to be pushed together and interlock via their serrated edges in labour, to protect the brain. Can be too wide to interlock in preterm births, however.

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149
Q

What are some of the typical features of a cervical vertebra?

A

Bifid spinous process
Transverse foramina for passage of vertebral arteries
Pedicle joining transverse process to body

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150
Q

Which cervical vertebrae are atypical?

A

C1 - has no spinous process of body
C2 - has large odontoid peg for articulation with C1
C7 - prominent, non bifid spinous process
large transverse process.

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151
Q

Where is the lacrimal bone?

A

Anteromedial wall of orbit

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152
Q

What are the two surfaces of the lacrimal bone?

A

orbital surface

Nasal surface

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153
Q

What are some notable features of the lacrimal bone?

A

On orbital surface has a vertical lacrimal crest with a lacrimal sulcus that runs anterior. The sulcus is continuous with the frontal process of the maxilla and this forms the lacrimal fossa where the lacrimal sac is found

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154
Q

Where is the palatine bone?

A

At posterior nasal cavity between the maxilla and the pterygoid process of sphenoid

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155
Q

Where is the skull vulnerable to fracture?

A

Squamous parts of temporal and parietal bones
Foramen magnum and inner sphenoid wing
Middle cranial fossa
Posterior cranial fossa

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156
Q

What is a depressed fracture?

A

A local indentation due to a sever localised blow. Bone fragment may compress or injure underlying brain

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157
Q

What is a linear fracture?

A

Fracture lines radiating away from point of impact in more than two directions. Often due to skull vault trauma

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158
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

Where bone is broken into several pieces

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159
Q

What is a counterblow fracture?

A

Where fracture occurs at the opposite side of the cranium

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160
Q

What is a simple fracture?

A

Where there’s a break in the bone but no break in the skin

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161
Q

What is a compound fracture?

A

Where there’s break in or loss of skin and splintering of the bone. Accompanied by brain injury and bleeding

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162
Q

What is a basillar fracture?

A

Fracture of base of skull which can cause extravasation of blood along the path of the posterior auricular artery so presentation may be with battle’s sign/ mastoid ecchymosis

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163
Q

What are some symptoms of skull fracture?

A 
Bleeding from wound, nose, ears of eyes
COnfusion
Dizziness
Drowsiness
Convulsions
Bruising
Draining of CSF from nose or ears
Balance difficulties
Headache
Loss of consciousness
Nausea/vomiting
Visual disturbances
Stiff neck
Slurred speech
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164
Q

How can infections from scalp cause osteomyelitis?

A

Can spread through emissary and diploic veins

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165
Q

What are facial fractures most commonly caused by?

A

Car accidents, fist fights and falls

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166
Q

What is the most common facial fracture?

A

Of nasal bones

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167
Q

What can happen if there’s a hard blow to the lower jaw?

A

Neck of mandible can fracture with dislocation from the temporomandibular joint

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168
Q

What causes a black eye?

A

Skin bruising around orbit and accumulation of blood and tissue fluid in the surrounding connective tissue

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169
Q

What is malar flush?

A

Reddening of the skin over the zygomatic bones

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170
Q

What is a burst fracture?

A

Fracture of arches of C1. Often due to head first fall from a height

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171
Q

What is a hangmans fracture?

A

Fracture of C2 due to hyperextension of the head

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172
Q

What can happen as a result of a dens fracture?

A

If it’s displaced then may injure the spinal cord, causing quadriplegia or, if it damages brain stem, will be fatal

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173
Q

Why are cervical vertebrae prone to dislocation?

A

Due to the way that they are stacked on top of one another, can easily slip out of position.

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174
Q

Why may dislocation of cervical vertebrae not necessarily damage spinal cord?

A

Due to the large cervical canal, there’s room for manoeuvre

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175
Q

What changes to cervical vertebrae occur with age?

A

Intervertebral foramina narrow

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176
Q

What can happen if there’s hyperflexion of the neck?

A

Rupture of the lower cervical intevertebral discs, resulting in nerve root compression so can cause neck, should, arm and hand pain

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177
Q

What can happen if there’s hyperextension of the neck?

A

Can tear the anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments, fracture of spinous processes, disc rupture and injury of muscles and blood vessels.

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178
Q

Where are the zygopophyseal joints?

A

Between articular facets of vertebrae

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179
Q

What can happen if there’s arthritis in zygopophyseal joints?

A

May be osteophyte formation. Osteophytes may affect spinal nerves, causing pain along their dermatomes and muscle spasm of corresponding myotome

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180
Q

What are the most common sites of cervical spine injury?

A

C2, C6, C7

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181
Q

Injuries at which spinal levels may be fatal?

A

C1-2

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182
Q

Which vessels make up the upper systemic vascular loop?

A

Common carotid arteries
Vertebral arteries
Internal, external and anterior jugular veins

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183
Q

What’s the arrangement of the main structures within the carotid sheath?

A

Internal jugular vein lies lateral to the common carotid artery
Vagus nerve lies posterior to both

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184
Q

What structure lies posteromedial to the carotid sheath?

A

The sympathetic trunk

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185
Q

Behind which anatomical structure does the right common carotid artery originate?

A

From brachiocephalic trunk, behind the right sternoclavicular joint

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186
Q

Between which anatomical structures do the common carotids bifurcate?

A

Midway between the angle of the mandible and the mastoid process of the temporal bone. Good landmark is the upper border of the thyroid cartilage (C4)

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187
Q

What bifurcation occurs within the parotid gland?

A

That of the external carotid artery into the maxillary artery and the superficial temporal artery

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188
Q

What structures run through the parotid gland?

A

External carotid into superficial temporal and maxillary
Retromandibular vein
Facial nerve

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189
Q

What are the different layers of the scalp?

A 
Skin
Loose connective tissue
Aponeurosis
Loose connective tissue
Periosteum
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190
Q

Why can a laceration to the epicranial aponeurosis cause profuse bleeding?

A

Joins two bellies of occipitofrontalis which will then pull in opposing directions and form a gaping wound

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191
Q

What is the arterial supply to the dura mater and the skull?

A

Both supplied by middle meningeal artery via the maxillary artery

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192
Q

What is the distribution of the facial artery?

A

Supplies muscles of facial expression and the face

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193
Q

What is the distribution of the superior labial artery?

A

Supplies upper lip and the ala and septum of the nose

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194
Q

What is the distribution of the inferior labial artery?

A

Lower lip

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195
Q

What is the distribution of the maxillary artery?

A

Deep structures of the face

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196
Q

What is the distribution of the lateral nasal artery?

A

Skin of the ala and bridge of nose

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197
Q

What is the distribution of the angular artery?

A

Superior cheek and inferior eyelid

198
Q

What is the distribution of the transverse facial artery?

A

Facial muscles and skin of temporal and frontal regions

199
Q

What is the distribution of the supratrochlear and supraorbital arteries?

A

Muscles and skin of forehead
Scalp
Superior conjunctivae

200
Q

What are the 8 main branches of the external carotid artery?

A 
Ascending laryngeal
Superior thyroid
Occipital
Maxillary
Superficial temporal
Facial 
Lingual
Posterior auricular
201
Q

What veins unite to form the external jugular vein?

A

Occipital
Retromandibular
Superficial temporal
Posterior auricular

202
Q

Where does the formation of the external jugular vein occur?

A

Just posterior to the angle of the mandible and inferior to external ear

203
Q

How can infections of scalp cause meningitis?

A

Veins in scalp connect to diploic veins via valveless emissary veins. Diploic veins drain into dural venous sinuses so infection can easily spread

204
Q

What are dural venous sinuses?

A

Endothelium lined spaces between the periosteal and meningeal layers of the dura. Form at dural septae and receive blood from large veins draining the brain

205
Q

What are the main dural venous sinuses?

A

Sigmoid
Inferior and superior sagittal sinuses
Cavernous sinus
Transverse sinus

206
Q

What is the cavernous sinus?

A

A plexus of extremely thin walled veins on the supper surface of the sphenoid bone.

207
Q

What is also located in the space where the cavernous sinus is located?

A

Internal carotid artery

Cranial nerves 3,4,6 and 5a and b

208
Q

Where is the pterygoid plexus?

A

Between temporalis and lateral pterygoid and partly between the two pterygoid muscles

209
Q

What is the function of secondary lymphoid organs?

A

To maintain lymphocytes

Involved in adaptive immune response

210
Q

What are the main secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Tonsils
Spleen
Lymph nodes
MALT

211
Q

Where do lymphatic vessels join the systemic circulation?

A

At right or left subclavian vein

212
Q

Where in the body are the highest densities of lymphatic structures?

A

Groin
Head and neck
Axilla

213
Q

What are the two main ducts that lymph nodes drain into?

A

Right lymphatic duct drains right side of head, neck, arm and trunk.
Thoracic duct drains rest of the body

214
Q

Where does the thoracic duct arise?

A

From cisterna chyli on the right of L2. Then crosses the midline at T5

215
Q

What does intestinal lymph do?

A

AKA chyle. Carries fat absorbed from the digestive tract to the cisterna chyli

216
Q

What can cause swelling of lymph nodes?

A

Physiological response to infection

Lodging and proliferation of cancerous cells

217
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

Cancer of lymphocytes or immune cells

218
Q

What are the 13 main regional groups of lymph nodes in the head and neck?

A 
occipital
Post auricular
Pre auricular
Anterior cervical
Posterior cervical
Submental
Submandibular
Parotid
Buccal
Laryngeal
Tracheal 
Sublingual
Retropharyngeal
219
Q

What is the terminal group that lymph nodes of the head and neck drain into?

A

Deep cervical. Closely related to carotid sheath

220
Q

What would be the consequence of removing spinal accessory lymph nodes?

A

Closely related to spinal accessory nerve so can be damaged in surgery, causing weakness of trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

221
Q

Which lymph node is commonly enlarged in oral cancer?

A

Jugulo-omohyoid

222
Q

Where is virchow’s node and what is its relevance?

A

Left supraclavicular node - often swollen in gastric cancer

223
Q

If there’s cancer in cervical lymph nodes, what structures are removed in surgery?

A

Lymph nodes
Internal jugular vein
Submandibular salivary gland

224
Q

What are the boundaries of the temporal fossa?

A

Posterior and superior - temporal lines of skull
Anterior - Frontal and zygomatic bones
Inferior - Infratemporal crest
Lateral - zygomatic arch

225
Q

What bones form the floor of the temporal fossa?

A

Greater wing of sphenoid
Frontal
Temporal
Parietal

226
Q

What is contained within the temporal fossa?

A

Superior part of temporalis muscle

227
Q

What are the boundaries of the infratemporal fossa?

A

Superior - Infratemporal surface of greater wing of sphenoid
Inferior - Attachment of medial pterygoid to the mandible, near it’s angle
Lateral - Ramus of mandible
Medial - Lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid
Anterior - Posterior aspect of maxilla
Posterior - Tympanic plate, mastoid and styloid processes of temporal bone

228
Q

What is contained within the infratemporal fossa?

A

Inferior part of temporalis
Maxillary artery
Inferior medial and inferior lateral pterygoids
Pterygoid venous plexus
Otic ganglion
Mandibular, inferior alveolar, lingual, buccal and chorda tympani nerves

229
Q

What arteries can be found in the infratemporal region?

A

Maxillary
Superficial temporal
Middle meningeal

230
Q

What veins can be found in the infratemporal region?

A

Maxillary

Middle meningeal

231
Q

What are some openings of the infratemporal fossa?

A 
Foramen ovale for mandibular nerve
Foramen spinosum for middle meningeal artery
Alveolar canal
Inferior orbital fissure
Pterygomaxillary fissure
232
Q

What is involved in a mandibular nerve block?

A

Anaesthesia is injected near to foramen ovale of infratemporal fossa, near where mandibular nerve enters. Affects inferior alveolar, lingual, buccal and auriculotemporal nerves

233
Q

What is involved in an inferior alveolar nerve block?

A 
Anaesthesia is injected near to the mandibular foramen. Anaesthetises all mandibular teeth of that side
Skin and mucous membranes of lower lip
Labial alveolar mucosa
Gingivae
Skin
234
Q

What kind of joint is the temporomandibular joint?

A

Modified hinge synovial joint

235
Q

What is unique about the structure of the TMJ, compared to other synovial joints?

A

Has an articular disk which splits synovial cavity into two. This means that the articulating bones never come into contact with each other. Bones are also covered in fibrocartilage, rather than hyaline.

236
Q

What are the articulating surfaces of the TMJ?

A 
Head of mandible
Mandibular fossa (posterior)
Articular tubercle (anterior)
237
Q

What is involved in elevation of the TMJ (closing the mouth)?

A

There’s retraction of the mandible (uses superior compartment) by action of posterior part of temporalis)
Elevation of the mandible which uses the rest of temporalis, masseter and medial pterygoid muscles

238
Q

What is involved in depression of the TMJ (opening the mouth)

A

Condyles are pushed forward using lateral pterygoid muscle/
Chin is moved down and back which mostly uses gravity, however, if there’s resistance, uses digastric, geniohyoid and mylohyoid.

239
Q

What’s involved in gliding movements of the TMJ?

A

Uses superior compartment
Protrusion uses lateral pterygoid, medial pterygoid and masseter
Retrusion uses temporal and masseter muscles

240
Q

What’s involved in rotation movements of the TMJ?

A

Occurs in inferior compartment
Uses ipsilateral temporalis
Contralateral pterygoids
Masseter muscle

241
Q

What are the attachments of the TMJ capsule?

A

Attaches superiorly to mandibular fossa and articular tubercle
Infeirorly to neck of condyle of mandible

242
Q

What are the main 3 extracapsular ligaments of the TMJ?

A

Lateral temporomandibular ligament which blends with the joint capsule
Stylomandibular ligament is thickening of parotid fascia. Runs from styloid process to angle of mandible
Sphenomandibular ligament from spine of sphenoid to lingula of mandible.

243
Q

What stops the TMJ from dislocating posteriorly?

A

The laterla extracapsular ligament

244
Q

What supports the weight of the the TMJ?

A

Facial muscle and stylomandibular ligament.

245
Q

How can yawning cause dislocation of TMJ?

A

Wide opening can cause excessive contraction of the pterygoids so that the head of the mandible is dislocated anteriorly to in front of articular tubercles

246
Q

What nerves are vulnerable to injury in a neck of mandible fracture?

A

Facial and auriculotemporal nerves

247
Q

What are the different classifications of cranial nerves?

A 
General somatic efferent
General somatic afferent
General visceral efferent
General visceral afferent
Special visceral efferent
Special visceral afferent
Special somatic afferent
248
Q

What do special visceral efferent nerves do?

A

Supply muscles derived from branchial arches. Supplied by Cn V, VII, IX, X

249
Q

What do special visceral afferent nerves do?

A

Taste

250
Q

What do special somatic afferents do?

A

Equilibration, hearing and sight

251
Q

Where does parasympathetic outflow come from?

A

Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X

S2-S4

252
Q

At which ganglion does the oculomotor nerve terminate at?

A

Ciliary ganglion

253
Q

Where is the ciliary ganglion?

A

Located in orbital cavity, just lateral to the optic nerve

254
Q

Where does the ciliary ganglion get its sympathetic fibres from?

A

Superior cervical ganglion via a plexus on opthalmic artery

255
Q

What do sympathetic fibres of ciliary ganglion go on to innervate?

A

Eye. Sensory fibres from eyeball then go to nasociliary nerve

256
Q

Which ganglia does the facial nerve terminate at?

A

Pterygoplatine ganglion via greater pertrosal nerve

Submandibular ganglion via branch of chorda tympani

257
Q

Where is the pterygopalatine ganglion?

A

Within pterygopalatine fossa

258
Q

Where does the pterygopalatine ganglion get its sympathetic fibres from?

A

Superior cervical ganglion via plexus on internal carotid artery

259
Q

What do sympathetic fibres from pterygopalatine ganglion go on to innervate?

A

Nose
Palate
Nasopharynx
Sensory fibres from these go via CNVii

260
Q

Where is the submandibular ganglion?

A

Suspended from the lingual nerve

261
Q

Where does the submandibular ganglion get its sympathetic fibres from?

A

Superior cervical ganglion via branches along the facial artery

262
Q

What do sympathetic fibres from submandibular ganglion go on to innervate?

A

Glands in the floor of the oral cavity

263
Q

Where are neurons of the vagus nerve found?

A

Preganglionic neurones start at the dorsal vagal motor nucleus. Then synapse in the walls of their target organs at laryngopharynx, larynx, oesophagus, trachea

264
Q

Where do sympathetic nerves originate?

A

T1-L2

265
Q

Where do preganglionic sympathetic neurones synapse?

A

Mostly in paravertebral chain but may be at prevertebral chain

266
Q

Where is the prevertebral chain?

A

Anterior to the vertebral bodies, either near to abdominal aorta at point on mesenteric arteries, or carotids

267
Q

What is the distribution of sympathetic ganglia?

A

2/3 cervical
11 thoracic
4 lumbar
4 sacral

268
Q

Along which kind of nerves do sympathetic nerves to somatic targets follow?

A

Along segmental nerves

269
Q

Along what, do sympathetic nerves to visceral targets follow?

A

Along ganglionated trunks

270
Q

Where does the head and neck get its sympathetic supply from?

A

Sympathetic trunk which runs anterolateral to the vertebral column, within the prevertebral fascia and deep to carotid sheath. This then synapses as 3 cervical ganglions

271
Q

Where does the superior cervical ganglion run?

A

Along internal and external carotid arteries and their brances to C1-C4, pharyngeal plexus and along a cardiac branch to a cardiac plexus

272
Q

What does the superior cervical ganglion go on to supply?

A

Somatic supply of sweat glands

Visceral supply to dilator pupillae, smooth muscle part of levator palpebrae superioris, nasal glands, salivatory glands

273
Q

Where does the middle cervical ganglion run?

A

Anterior to inferior thyroid artery to C5-C6, a cardiac branch to cardiac plexus

274
Q

What does the middle cervical ganglion go on to supply?

A

Lower larynx
Trachea
Hypopharynx
Upper oesophagus

275
Q

Where does the inferior cervical ganglion run?

A

Passes with vertebral artery to C7-C8 and a cardiac branch to cardiac plexus. Also, in 80% of people, it combines with the thoracic ganglion to form the stellate ganglion

276
Q

What forms the internal carotid plexus?

A

Internal carotid nerve that ascends along the internal carotid artery, alongside the superior cervical ganglion

277
Q

What is supplied by sympathetic outflow from the internal carotid plexus?

A 
Pterygopalantine ganglion
CNVI
CNIX
CNIII
CN IV
Opthalmic nerve
Vessels from internal carotid artery
278
Q

What causes horner’s syndrome?

A

Injury to the sympathetic trunk so sympathetic outflow is interrupted

279
Q

What are the symptoms of horner’s syndrome?

A

Miosis due to unopposed parasympathetic innervation of sphincter pupillae
Ptosis due to paralysis of the superior tarsal muscle, which is made up of smooth muscle fibres from levator palpebrae superioris
Vasodilatation causing reddening and increased temperature of the face due to loss of sympathetic tone
Anhydrosis due to lack of innervation of sweat glands

280
Q

What drives the formation of the neural tube?

A

Notochord drives thickening of the ectoderm overlying it

281
Q

What are pharyngeal arches?

A

System of mesenchymal proliferation that forms in the neck region of the embryo

282
Q

What are the derivatives of the first pharyngeal arch?

A 
Muscles of mastication
Mylohyoid
Anterior belly of digastric
Tensor tympani
Tensor veli paltine
283
Q

What cranial nerve is associated with the first pharyngeal arch?

A

CNV - trigeminal.

284
Q

What cartilage system derives from the first pharyngeal arch?

A

Meckel’s cartilage. Gives rise to malleus and incus bones and the sphenomandibular ligament.
Also provides the template for the mandible which later forms through membranous ossification

285
Q

What is the blood supply to the first pharyngeal arch?

A

Common, external and internal carotids and their branches

286
Q

What are the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch?

A

Muscles of facial expression
Posterior belly of digastric
Stapedius
Stylohyoid

287
Q

What cartilage system is derived from the second pharyngeal arch?

A

Reichert’s cartilage. Gives rise to lesser cornu and upper body of hyoid, stapes, styloid process, stylohyoid ligament

288
Q

What cranial nerve is associated with the second pharyngeal arch?

A

CNVII - facial nerve

289
Q

What are the derivatives of the third pharyngeal arch?

A

Stylopharyngeus

Greater cornu and lower body of hyoid

290
Q

What cranial nerve is associated with the third pharyngeal arch?

A

CNIX - glossopharyngeal

291
Q

What is the blood supply to the second pharyngeal arch?

A

Common, external and internal carotid arteries and their branches

292
Q

What is the blood supply to the third pharyngeal arch?

A

Common, external and internal carotid arteries and their branches

293
Q

What are the derivatives of the 4th pharyngeal arch?

A

Cricothyroid
Constrictor muscles of pharynx
Levator palatini

294
Q

What cranial nerve is associated with the fourth pharyngeal arch?

A

CNX - vagus nerve. superior laryngeal branch.

295
Q

What cranial nerve is associated with the sixth pharyngeal arch?

A

CNX - vagus nerve. recurrent laryngeal branch

296
Q

What are the derivatives of the sixth pharyngeal arch?

A

Intrinsic muscles of larynx

297
Q

What is the blood supply to the fourth pharyngeal arch?

A

Aortic arch and part of right subclavian artery

298
Q

What is the blood supply to the sixth pharyngeal arch?

A

Pulmonary arteries

299
Q

What are the cartilage derivatives of the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches?

A 
Combine to give rise to:
Cricoid
Arytenoid
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
300
Q

What are the nerves of the pharyngeal arches?

A

Cranial nerves with mixed sensory and motor functions that supply all derivatives of the pharyngeal arches
CNV, VII, IX, X
(CN XI and XII have some association)

301
Q

What’s derived from the first pharyngeal pouch?

A

Eustachian tube
Middle ear cavity, especially tympanic cavity
Auditory tube

302
Q

What’s derived from the second pharyngeal pouch?

A

Palatine tonsils?

303
Q

What’s derived from the third pharyngeal pouch?

A

Dorsal component gives rise to inferior parathyroid glands

Ventral component gives rise to thymus gland

304
Q

What’s derived from the fourth pharyngeal pouch

A

Dorsal component gives rise to superior parathyroids

Ventral component gives rise to ultimobranchial body which gives rise to C cells of the thyroid gland

305
Q

What’s derived from the pharyngeal clefts?

A

2nd pharyngeal pouch overgrows all of the clefts, except for the first one. This gives rise to the external auditory meatus

306
Q

What happens if the cervical sinus isn’t obliterated?

A

Cysts or fistulae can occur at any point along the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid

307
Q

What is the development of the face driven by?

A

Need to separate the respiratory and GI tracts
Expansion of the cranial neural tube
Development of sense organs
Appearance of a complex tissue system that’s associated with the cranial gut tube and the outflow of the developing heart

308
Q

What are neural crest cells?

A

Special population of cells that originate at the lateral border of neuroectoderm and then become displaced, enter the mesoderm and migrate to contribute to the formation of a wide range of head and neck structures

309
Q

What are the derivatives of the frontonasal prominence?

A

Nose
Bridge of nose
Forehead
Philtrum

310
Q

What are the derivatives of the maxillary prominence?

A

Lateral upper lip
Lateral upper jaw
Cheeks

311
Q

What pharyngeal arch forms the facial skeleton?

A

First arch

312
Q

What are the derivatives of the mandibular prominence?

A

Lower lip and jaw

313
Q

What are nasal placodes?

A

Bilateral ectodermal thickenings that form on the frontonasal prominence

314
Q

How are nasal pits formed?

A

Central invagination of nasal placodes

315
Q

How is the nose formed?

A

Maxillary prominences grow medially which pushes the nasal prominences towards the midline. Medial nasal prominences fuse with each other in the midline and they also fuse with the maxillary prominences to form the intermaxillary segment

316
Q

What does the intermaxillary segment give rise to?

A 
Philtrum
Primary palate (ie medial anterior part)
4 incisors (mid upper jaw)
317
Q

How is the secondary palate form?

A

Mandible continues to grow and the tongue drops down, this allows for palatal shelves, derived from maxillary prominences, to grow and fuse together in the midline. The nasal septum also fuses with the maxillary prominences

318
Q

What causes a cleft lip?

A

Failure of medial nasal prominences to fuse with the maxillary prominences

319
Q

What causes a cleft lip and jaw?

A

Failure of medial nasal prominences to fuse with maxillary prominences,as well as failure of palatal shelve midline fusion

320
Q

How are the eyes formed?

A

Outgrowths form either side of the diencephalon and theyse outgrowths are called optic vesicles. These release signalling molecules that stimulate thickening of the overlying ectoderm and this thickening forms lens placodes. These then invaginate to form closed vesicles that sink beneath the ectoderm layer.
Eyes are brought to midline by growth of maxillary prominences

321
Q

What are the embryological origins of the lens?

A

Lens placode

322
Q

What are the embryological origins of retina?

A

Diencephalon

323
Q

What are the embryological origins of the cornea?

A

Ectoderm overlying sunken lens vesicles

324
Q

What are the embryological origins of the optic muscles?

A

Somites

325
Q

What are the embryological origins of the choroid and sclera?

A

Mesenchyme cells that arrange around the developing cells

326
Q

What is anopthalmia?

A

The absence of one or both eyes

327
Q

What is micropthalmia?

A

Abnormally small eyes

328
Q

What forms the external ear?

A

External auditory meatus comes from first pharyngeal cleft

Auricles come from proliferation of first and second pharyngeal arches around the meatus

329
Q

What leads to final position of ears?

A

Growth of mandible bring them up in line with they eyes

330
Q

What are the main signs of foetal alcohol syndrome?

A 
Indistinct philtrum 
Growth deficiency
Small eyes and head
Small facial features
Thin upper lip
Short nose
Low nasal bridge
331
Q

What are some distinctive markings on the dorsum of the tongue?

A

Convex sulcus terminalis with foramen cecum at its apex

332
Q

What attaches the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity?

A

Lingual frenulum

333
Q

What are the main lingual swellings that form, and what are their pharyngeal arch origins?

A

Lateral lingual swellings (Ph.A1)
Tuberculum Impar (Ph.A1)
Cupola (Ph.A.2,3, (4))
Epiglottal swelling (Ph.A.4)

334
Q

How is the tongue formed from its lingual swellings?

A

Lateral lingual swellings over grow the tuberculum impar
PhA.3 overgrows PhA.2 contribution to cupola.
Extensive degeneration frees tongue from the floor of the oral cavity, except for by the lingual frenulum

335
Q

Which pharyngeal arches form the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

First and 3rd arches

336
Q

What is the sensory innervation of the tongue?

A

General sensory to anterior 2/3 is CNV and CNIX
Special sensory to this area is CNVII via chorda tympani nerve
Special sensory to Posterior 2/3 is from CNX

337
Q

Where does chorda tympani have to pass to innervate first pharyngeal structures after originating in second pharyngeal arch?

A

Through middle ear cavity ie first pharyngeal pouch

338
Q

Where do the muscles of the tongue originate from and what is their innervation?

A

Occipital somite myogenic precusors. Innervated by CN XII

339
Q

Where does thyroid originate and where does it descend?

A

Originates between tuberculum impar and copola at site of future foramen cecum. Then bifurcates and descends down the midline, attached to the tongue by the hypoglossal duct

340
Q

What happens if the hypoglossal duct doesnt degenerate?

A

Can get hypoglossal fistulae or cysts at any point in midline down path of thyroid descension.

341
Q

Where do parafollicular cells originate?

A

Ultimobranchial body from 4th pharyngeal pouch

342
Q

What is first arch syndrome?

A

Spectrum of defects in the development of ears, eyes, madible and palate. Due to failure of colonisation of first pharyngeal arch with neural crest cells

343
Q

What is treacher collins syndrome?

A

Type of first arch syndrome. There’s hypoplasia of mandible and facial bones and low set ears

344
Q

What abnormalities are found in DiGeorge syndrome?

A 
Cardiac abnormalities
Abnormal facies
Thymic aplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism
22 chromosome mutation
345
Q

What defects are found in Charge syndrome?

A 
Colobome of iris
Heart defects
Choanal atresia
Growth and development retardation
Genital hypoplasia
Ear defects
346
Q

What is mutated in CHARGE syndrome and why is this important?

A

CHD7 - needed for expression of neural crest cells

347
Q

What are the names of the 12 cranial nerves?

A 
Olfactory
Optic
Oculomotor
Trochlear
Trigeminal
Abducens
Facial
Vestibulocochlear
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus
Spinal accessory
Hypoglossal
348
Q

From where do the cranial nerves originate?

A 
CNI, CNII come from forebrain
CNIII, CNIV come from midbrain
CNV, VI, VII come from pons
CN VIII, IX, X, XII come from medulla
CNXI comes from spinal cord (C1-C5)
349
Q

What is the function of CNI?

A

Special sense nerve providing sense of smell by acting at nasal mucosa at roof of nasal cavity, superior concha and sides of nasal septum

350
Q

Where does CNI enter the cranial cavity?

A

Cribriform plate of ethmoid bone

351
Q

What can the consequence be of a fracture to the cribriform plate?

A

Can damage olfactory nerve giving anosmia. Also directly below meninges so can give CSF rhinorrhoea

352
Q

What is the function of CNII?

A

Special sense nerve giving sense of vision from stimuli from the retina

353
Q

Where does CNII enter the cranial cavity?

A

Through optic canal of the spehnoid bone

354
Q

What can the consequence be of raised intracranial pressure in terms of the eye and its innervation?

A

Can compress optic nerve. Central artery and vein of the retina also run through this nerve so the vein, especially, can easily be compressed in raised pressure, leading to reduced venous return and papilloedema

355
Q

What is the function of CNIII?

A

Mixed nerve giving somatic motor innervation to inferior oblique, superior rectus, inferior rectus and medial rectus as well as to levator palpebrae superioris
Parasympathetic innervation to sphincter pupillae muscle to constrict pupil and ciliary muscles for accommodation

356
Q

Where does parasympathetic outflow to the head and neck come from?

A

CN III, VII, IX

357
Q

Where does the parasympathetic portion of CNIII synapse?

A

Originates at Edinger-Westphal nucleus and then synapses at the ciliary ganglion which is in orbital cavity, lateral to optic nerve.

358
Q

Where does the oculomotor nerve exit the cranial cavity?

A

Through superior orbital fissure, between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone

359
Q

What can the consequence of damage to the oculomotor be?

A

Ptosis (LPS denervation)
Dilated pupil (unopposed sympathetic action)
Eye looks down and out (unopposed lateral rectus and superior oblique action)
Diplopia

360
Q

What is the function of CNIV?

A

Somatic motor to superior oblique muscle which depresses and abducts the eye

361
Q

Where does the trochlear nerve exit the cranial cavity?

A

Through superior orbital fissure

362
Q

What is the consequence of damage to the trochlear nerve?

A

Patient may tilt head to unaffected side as resting gaze of unaffected eye is superomedially. Struggle with convergent gaze eg walking downstairs so there will be diplopia

363
Q

What are the branches of the trigeminal nerve and what types of nerves are they?

A

Vi - Opthalmic branch is sensory only
Vii - Maxillary branch is sensory only
Viii - Mandibular branch in sensory and motor

364
Q

What is the function of CNVi?

A

Sensory innervation from derivatives of the frontal nasal prominence - forehead, scalp, upper eyelid, dorsum of nose. Also sensation from cornea giving rise to blink reflex, conjunctiva, lacrimal gland and muscosa of nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses

365
Q

Where does CNVi exit the cranial cavity?

A

Through the superior orbital fissure

366
Q

What is the function of CNVii?

A

Sensory innervation from derivatives of the maxillary prominence of the first pharyngeal arch - skin over the maxilla, upper teeth, upper lip, maxillary sinuses and palate

367
Q

Where does CNVii leave the cranial cavity?

A

Through the foramen rotundum of the sphenoid bone

368
Q

What is the function of CNViii?

A

Sensory innervation to derivatives of the mandibular prominence of the first pharyngeal arch - skin over temples, cheeks, chin, mucosa of mouth and the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
Motor innervation to muscle derivatives of the first pharyngeal arch - muscles of mastication, anterior belly of digastric, mylohyoid, tensor tympani and tensor veli palatini

369
Q

Where does CNiii leave the cranial cavity?

A

Through the foramen ovale of the sphenoid bone

370
Q

What are some important branches of CNViii?

A

Auriculotemporal
Buccal
Inferior alveolar
Lingual

371
Q

What is the function of CNVI?

A

Motor nerve to lateral rectus muscle

372
Q

Where does CNVI leave the cranial cavity?

A

Through the superior orbital fissure

373
Q

What are the functions of CNVII?

A

Special sensory giving sense of taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and modulatesamplitude of sound
Somatic motor to muscles of facial expression, stapedius, posterior belly of digastric, stylohyoid
Parasympathetic innervation to submandibular and sublingual salivary glands, lacrimal gland and glands of nose and palate

374
Q

What is the path of the facial nerve through the bones of the skull?

A

Exits cavity through the internal acoustic meatus and enters facial canal. Then gives rise to the geniculate ganglion which gives off the greater petrosal nerve (to glands), the nerve to stapedius (to middle ear) and chorda tympani (to middles ear and then tongue). Leaves skull through the stylomastoid foramen of the temporal bone

375
Q

What can the consequences be of a facial nerve palsy?

A

Drooping of mouth angle
Facial muscle paralysis
No wrinkling of forhead ability

376
Q

Which nerve is vulnerable to damage in a forceps delivery?

A

Facial nerve - CNVII

377
Q

What is the function of CNVIII?

A

Special sensory nerve. Vestibular nerves give sense of balance. Cochlear nerves give sense of hearing

378
Q

Where does CNVIII enter the cranial cavity?

A

Through the internal acoustic meatus

379
Q

What is the function of CNIX?

A

Mixed nerve.
Somatic motor innervation to stylopharyngeus to aid with swallowing
Parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland
Special sensory innervation to posterior 1/3 of tongue giving sense of taste
Autonomic sensory innervation to parotid gland, carotid body and sinus, pharynx and middle ear
Somatic sensory innervation to external ear

380
Q

Where does the glossopharyngeal nerve exit the cranial cavity?

A

Through the jugular foramen of the temporal bone

381
Q

Where does the parasympathetic portion of the glossopharyngeal nerve synapse?

A

Arises at Inferior salivatory nucleus and gives off lesser petrosal branch. This synapses at the otic ganglion, before giving of the auriculotemporal nerve which innervates the parotid gland and oropharynx

382
Q

Where do the parasympathetic portions of the facial nerve synapse?

A

Arise at superior salivatory nucleus. Greater petrosal branch synapses at pterygopalatine ganglion and innervates lacrimal gland and glands of nose and palate
Chorda tympani branch synapses at submandibular branch which innervates submandibular and sublingual salivary glands and mucous glands of the palate

383
Q

What are the functions of CNX?

A

Mixed nerve
Somatic motor to muscles of pharynx (not stylopharyngeus), intrinsic muscles of larynx, muscles of palate and superior 2/3 of oesophagus
Somatic sensory from auricle and external acoustic meatus (ear cough reflex)
Parasympathetic motor to smooth muscle and glands of trachea, bronchi, digestive tract, coronary arteries and conductive nodes of heart
Autonomic sensory to base of tongue, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, heart, oesophagus and stomach
Special sensory to epiglottis and palate

384
Q

Where does the vagus nerve exit the cranial cavity?

A

Through jugular foramen of temporal bone

385
Q

What is the function of CNXI?

A

Motor nerve to sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

386
Q

What is the path of CNXI?

A

Arises from spinal cord. Enters cranial cavity through foramen magnum and leaves through the jugular foramen

387
Q

What is the function of the hypoglossal nerve?

A

Somatic motor to intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue

388
Q

Where does CNXII leave the cranial cavity?

A

Through hypoglossal canal of occipital bone

389
Q

What is the consequence of damage to the hypoglossal nerve?

A

Wasting and deviation of the tongue towards the affected side. Will be dysarthria (speech problems)

390
Q

What structures pass through the superior orbital fissure?

A

CN III, Vi, VI, IV. Opthalmic veins

391
Q

What structures pass through the foramen magnum?

A 
CN IX
Medulla
Vertebral arteries
Meninges
Dural veins
Anterior and posterior spinal veins
392
Q

What are the borders of the orbit?

A

Roof - frontal bone, lesser wing of sphenoid
Floor - Zygomatic, maxilla, palatine
Medial - lacrimal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid
Lateral - Zygomatic, greater wing of sphenoid
Apex - Optic foramen
Base - Orbital rim

393
Q

What are the contents of the orbit?

A 
Eyeball
Extraocular muscles
Eyelids
CN II, III, IV, Vi, VI
Opthalmic artery
Inferior and superior opthalmic veins
394
Q

What triggers the blinking reflex?

A

Drying of cornea
Touching of cornea
Irritation to cornea
Sight of oncoming irritant

395
Q

What nerve stimulates the blinking reflex?

A

CNV - facial nerve

396
Q

What are the main openings of the orbit and what passes through them?

A

Optic canal - optic nerve (CNII) and opthalmic artery
Superior orbital fissure - CNIII, IV, Vi, VII, lacrimal nerve, frontal nerve, nasociliary nerve and superior opthalmic vein
Inferior orbital fissure - Infraorbital nerve and inferior opthalmic vein

397
Q

What is the parasympathetic innervation of the lacrimal gland?

A

Facial nerve - greater petrosal nerve - pterygopalatine ganglion - lacrimal nerve

398
Q

Describe the drainage of lacrimal fluid?

A

Fluid is moved from superiolateral (site of lacrimal gland) to medial aspect by blinking. Fluid accumulates medially at lacrimal lake (visible part is puncta) this then drains via canaliculi to lacrimal sac. Lacrimal sac is dilated by orbicularis oculi in drinking and drains into nasolacrimal duct where it enters nasal cavity and inferior nasal meatus and is then swallowed

399
Q

What are the contents of lacrimal fluid?

A

Water
Bactericidal enzymes and antibodies
Oil
Mucins

400
Q

Where are different components of lacrimal fluid produced?

A

Lacrimal gland secretes water and the bactericidal enzymes and antibodies
Mebomian glands secrete oil
Mucins are produced by conjunctival goblet cells

401
Q

What are the components of the eyelid fold?

A 
Skin
Alveolar tissue
Orbicularis oculi fibres
Tarsal plate
Orbital septum
Tarsal glands
Conjunctiva
402
Q

Where do the extraocular muscles originate?

A

Recti muscles originate from common tendinous ring. Superior oblique originates from body of sphenoid and inferior oblique originates from the anterior orbital floor

403
Q

What are the layers of the eye?

A

Outer fibrous layer
Middle vascular layer
Inner Retinal layer

404
Q

What makes up the outer fibrous layer of the eyeball?

A

Cornea - Transparent and allows light to enter the lens

Sclera - covers 5/6 of posterior aspect

405
Q

What makes up the middle vascular layer of the eyeball?

A

Choroid - vascular layer that lies between the sclera and the retina
Ciliary body - Runs between choroid and lens. Produces lens accommodation and secretes aqueous humour
Iris - controls amount of light passing through. Dilater pupillae under sympathetic control. Constrictor pupillae under parasympathetic control

406
Q

Describe the inner retina layer

A

Two cellular layers.
Neural layer is made up of photoreceptors and is posterolateral in the eye
Pigmented layer is beneath the neural layer and attached to the choroid. Pigmented layer continues anteriorly but neural layer doesn’t. This layer is the ‘non-visual part’ and posterolateral aspect with both layers present is the visual part.

407
Q

What’s the difference between open and closed angle glaucome?

A

In open angle glaucoma, the trabecular meshwork that normally drains aqueous humour is obstructed
In closed angle, the meshwork is functioning but fluid can’t get to it, either due to covering of the meshwork by the iris root or due to adhesions between the iris and the cornea

408
Q

What are the features of the retina on fundoscopy?

A

Optic disk is where optic nerve enters
Dark spot is the macula lutea which has highester concentration of cone cells and so provides high resolution vision. In the centre of this is the fovea centralis and this provides high acuity vision

409
Q

What happens in retinal detachment?

A

In general, neural layer becomes detached from pigmented layer as it’s not strongly fused as the pigmented is to the choroid. Patient may report of seeing flashing lights/floating specks

410
Q

What happens in horner’s syndrome?

A

There’s damage to the sympathetic trunk in the neck so there’s partial ptosis, miosis and anhydrosis on ipsilateral side to damage

411
Q

What is the difference between myopia, hyperopia and presbyopia?

A

Myopia is short sightedness
Hyperopia is long sightedness
Presbyopia is longsightedness due to age related changes to lens

412
Q

What is mydriasis?

A

A blown/abnormally dilated pupil

413
Q

What is coloboma?

A

Absence of a section of the iris

414
Q

What’s the difference between a Meibomian cyst and a stye?

A

Meibomian cyst is obstruction of a tarsal gland behind eyelashes/
Stye is infection of a sebaceous gland

415
Q

What is the blood supply to the auricle?

A

External auricular artery

416
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the external ear?

A

Anterior aspect drains to parotid nodes.

Posterior aspect drains to mastoid nodes

417
Q

What is the nerve supply to the external ear?

A

Superficial structures innvervated by Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve
Rest innervated by great auricular nerve

418
Q

What types of muscles are found in the auricle?

A

Extrinsic muscles run from scalp/skull and act to position the auricle
Intrinsic muscles run between cartilaginous parts and can alter the shape of the auricle

419
Q

Where does the external auditory meatus run?

A

From deepest part of concha to the lateral surface of the tympanic membrane

420
Q

How is ear wax made?

A

Cerumen secreted by epithelial cells of external auditory meatus. This combines with dead skin cells to make ear wax

421
Q

What are the different layers of the tympanic membrane?

A

Lateral is made of keratinised stratified squamous epithelia
Middle layer is fibrous
Inner layer is respiratory epithelium

422
Q

What is the sensory innervation of the tympanic membrane?

A

Lateral layer is innervated by the vagus nerve CNX

Medial layer is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve - CN IX

423
Q

What are the borders of the middle ear?

A 
Lateral - tympanic cavity
Medial - Oval window
Superior - Tegmen tympani
Floor - jugular floor
Anterior - Carotid wall
Posterior - Mastoid air antrum
424
Q

How can the middle ear be divided?

A

Into tympanic cavity and epitympanic recess. Epitympanic recess lies above the tympanic cavity

425
Q

What are the contents of the middle ear?

A 
Auditory ossicles
Chorda tympani
Stapedius
Tensor tympani
Tympanic nerve plexus
426
Q

What are the actions of stapedius and tensor tympani and what are their innervations?

A

Both act to minimise loud sounds by reducing vibration of stapes and malleus respectively.
Tensor tympani runs from auditory tube to handle of malleus and brings it medially
Stapedius innervated by CNViii
Tensor tympani innervated by CNVII

427
Q

What is the purpose of mastoid air cells?

A

Lie posterior to the epitympanic recess. Release air into the tympanic cavity if pressure falls too low

428
Q

What are the main components of the inner ear?

A

Vestibule contains utricle and saccule which are sensitive to gravity and rotational acceleration
Semicircular ducts and canals communicate with vestibule and contain receptors that respond to rotational acceleration
Cochlea contains cochlear duct. Cochlear duct accommodates the spiral organ of Corti.
Organ of Corti contains the receptors of the auditory apparatus

429
Q

What is tympanosclerosis?

A

Calcification of the tympanic membrane with formation of dense white plaques on the membrane

430
Q

How does cauliflower ear occur?

A

If there’s trauma to the auricle and bleeding of the perichondrium, this impairs blood supply to auricular cartilage so if not treated, there’s fibrosis of the cartilage

431
Q

What happens if stapedius is paralysed?

A

Hyperacusis - loud sounds appear louder than normal

432
Q

What is choleasteatoma?

A

Growth of stratified squamous epithelium within the middle ear. Is destructive and can damage ossicles through increased pressure or release of osteolytic enzymes

433
Q

What is meniere’s syndrome?

A

Triad of tinnitus, hearing loass and vertigo, together with a feeling of pressure in the ear and sound distortion. Due to blockage of the cochlear aqueduct

434
Q

What makes up the ‘skeleton’ of the external nose?

A

2 nasal bones
1 septal cartilage
2 alar cartilages
2 lateral cartilages

435
Q

What makes up the nasal septum?

A

Anteriorly - is cartilage
Middle - perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone
Posteriorly - Vomer bone
Floor - palatine and maxilla bones

436
Q

What are the borders of the nasal cavity?

A

Roof - cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
Floor - palatine process of maxilla and horizontal plate of palatine bone
Medial - nasal septum
Lateral - Nasal conchae

437
Q

How is the nasal cavity divided?

A

Into vestibule at opening
respiratory region lined by respiratory mucosa
Olfactory region - lined by olfactory mucosa

438
Q

What are the nasal conchae?

A

3 curved shelves of bone that create many pathways for air flow to increase surface area and turbidity of air

439
Q

What air pathways do the conchae form?

A

Sphenoethoidal recess superoposterior to the superior concha
Superior meatus between superior and middle conchae
Middle meatus between middle and inferior conchae
Inferior meatus between inferior concha and the nasal cavity floor

440
Q

What are the main openings of the nasal cavity and what drains into them?

A

Semilunar hiatus at middle for drainage of frontal, maxillary and anterior ethmoidal sinuses
Ethmoid bulla for drainage of posterior ethmoidal sinus (this is just posterior to semilunar hiatus)
Opening of sphenoid sinus at level of superior concha
Opening of eustachian tube - at level of inferior meatus
Opening of nasolacrimal duct in inferior meatus but anterior

441
Q

What are the four main points of access to the nasal cavity for passage of vessels?

A

Cribriform plate for passage of olfactory nerve fibres and receptors
Incisive foramen for greater palatine artery and nasopalatine nerve
Foramen cecum for (in some) nasal veins to pass into superior sagittal sinus (infection spread)
Sphenopalatine foramen for passage to pterygopalatine fossa and entry of sphenopalatine artery

442
Q

What’s the blood supply to the lateral wall of the nasal cavity?

A

Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries (branches of ICA)
Anastamose with lateral nasal branches of the facial artery at cavity opening
Spehnopalatine artery enters through sphenopalatine foramen

443
Q

What’s the blood supply to the medial wall of the nasal cavity (septum)

A

Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries from ICA
Branch of sphenopalating artery
Greater palatine and superior labial arteries anastamose from inferior with the anterior ethoidal artery to form little’s area

444
Q

What is the venous drainage of the nasal cavity?

A

Tends to follow arterial supply
Drains to facial vein
pterygoid plexus
or cavernous sinus

445
Q

What’s the innervation of the nasal cavity?

A

Special sensory via CN1
General sensory from trigeminal nerve. Nasociliary nerve (branch of CNVi) supplies anteroposterior mucosa
External nasal from CNVi and infraorbital nerve from CNVii supply external skin
Nasopalatine nerve from CNVii supplies posteroinferior mucosa

446
Q

Where is the maxillary sinus?

A

Inferolateral to maxillary sinus between floor of orbit and alveolar part of maxilla, in front of the pterygopalatine and infratemporal fossae

447
Q

Where does the maxillary sinus drain to?

A

Through maxillary ostia to the semilunar hiatus of the nasal cavity

448
Q

Where is the frontal sinus?

A

Found under the forehead, between the inner and outfer tables of the frontal bone, posterior to the superciliary arches and root of the nose

449
Q

Which sinuses are present at birth?

A

Sphenoidal
Ethmoidal (not visible on x-ray until 8yrs)
Maxillary
All grow later

450
Q

Where does the frontal sinus drain to?

A

Through frontonasal duct to the semilunar hiatus

451
Q

Where do the 3 ethmoidal sinus drain into?

A

Anterior - semilunar hiatus
Middle - ethmoid bulla
Posterior - superior meatus

452
Q

Where is the sphenoid sinus?

A

Lies in the body of the sphenoid but may extend into the wings of the bone. Lies at level of sphenoethmoidal recess

453
Q

Where does sphenoid sinus drain into?

A

Into sphenoethmoidal recess

454
Q

What structures is the spehnoid sinus in very close proximity to?

A

Pituitary gland
Internal carotid arteries
Optic nerves and chiasm

455
Q

What are the ethmoidal sinuses?

A

Small invaginationg of mucous membranes of the superior and middle nasal recesses, into the ethmoid bone

456
Q

Why can maxillary sinus pain be felt as toothache?

A

As maxillary molar teeth and maxillary sinus are both innervated by the superior alveolar branch of the maxillary brach of the trigeminal nerve

457
Q

Where can infections of the nasal cavity spread to?

A

Paranasal sinuses
Middle ear
Lacrimal apparatus and conjunctiva
Anterior cranial fossa

458
Q

How can infection of the ethmoidal recess lead to visual disturbances?

A

Can erode through to medial wall of the orbit which is in close proximity to the optic canal, which carries the optic nerve and opthalmic artery

459
Q

What is rhinitis?

A

Inflammation of the mucosa of the nasal cavity leading to swelling and an increase in volume of secretions

460
Q

What can cause rhinitis?

A

Allergic reaction
Nasal polyps
Viral infection (resp. syncytial virus, rhinovirus, adenovirus)

461
Q

What is sinusitis?

A

Inflammation of the mucosa lining the paranasal sinuses. If more than one sinus is affected, its pansinusitis

462
Q

What causes sinusitis?

A

Infection
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae

463
Q

What can nasal polyps cause?

A

Lie close to ostiomeatal complex of nasopharynx so can cause obstruction leading to snoring and obstructive sleep apnoea

464
Q

Why are the maxillary sinuses the most commonly infected sinuses?

A

Have small openings that are very high and if head is erect, can’t drain unless full so can be stasis of contents, making them prone to infection. Small ostia are also very prone to congestion

465
Q

What are some risk factors for epistaxis?

A 
Trauma
Tumours
Mucosal drying
Infections
NSAIDs
Granulomas
Alcohol
Coagulation defects
466
Q

What are the most common origins of epistaxis?

A

Kiesselbach’s plexus anteriorly

Sphenopaltine artery posteriorly

467
Q

What can cause damage to the oculomotor nerve?

A

Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Compression, ie in aneurysm

468
Q

What are the main branches of the opthalmic nerve?

A 
Supratrochlear
Supraorbital
Infratrochlear
Lacrimal
External nasal
469
Q

What are the main branches of the maxillary nerve?

A

Zygomaticofacial
Zygomaticotemporal
Infraorbital

470
Q

What are the main branches of the mandibular nerve?

A

Auriculotemporal
Buccal
Mental

471
Q

What are the main branches of the facial nerve and where are they given off?

A

Within parotid gland - temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, cervical
Other intracranial - Greater petrosal, chorda tympani, nerve to stapedius
Extracranial - Nerve to posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid
Posterior auricular

472
Q

How is it possible to distinguish between bell’s palsy and a stroke on examination?

A

Strokes tend to be forehead sparing whereas foreheads tend to be affected in Bell’s

473
Q

What are the borders of the nasopharynx?

A

Roof - cranial base
Floor - soft palate
Posterior - nasopharyngeal tonsil and body of C1
Anterior Posterior nares

474
Q

In what portion of the pharynx is the eustachian tube opening?

A

Nasopharynx

475
Q

What are the boundaries of the oropharynx?

A 
Superior - soft palate
Inferior - Superior border of epiglottis
Anterior - oral cavity
Posterior - bodies of C2-C3
Lateral - palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches
476
Q

What makes up the tonsillar fossa?

A

Anterior - palatoglossal arch
Posterior - palatopharyngeal arch
Floor - Superior constrictor muscle

477
Q

What is the palatoglossal arch?

A

RUns from palate to tongue, fusing wit the lateral wall of the tongue. Acts as boundary between buccal cavity and oropharynx and contains the palatoglossus muscle

478
Q

What is the palatopharyngeal arch?

A

Blends with wall of pharynx and contains the palatopharyngeus muscle

479
Q

What are the boundaries of the laryngopharynx?

A

Superior - Superior border of epiglottis
Inferior - Inferior border of cricoid cartilage
Anterior - Larynx
Posterior - vertebral bodies of C4-C6

480
Q

What is the motor innervation to the muscles of the larynx?

A 
Vagus nerve (CNX) except for stylopharyngeus which is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CNIX)
Also supply from facial nerve and hypoglossal nerve
481
Q

What is the sensory innervation to the larynx?

A

Nasopharynx is CNVii
Oropharynx is CNIX
Laryngopharynx is CNX

482
Q

What are the constrictor muscles of the pharynx and what is their function?

A

Superior, middle and inferior constrictor muscles sit on top of each other and constrict the pharynx to aid in swallowing

483
Q

What are the different stages of swallowing?

A

Stage 1 is voluntary. Bolus is pushed against the palate and into the oropharynx
Stage 2 is involuntary. Soft palate elevates to close of the nasopharynx. Pharynx widens and shortens to accept the bolus. Suprahyoid and longitudinal pharyngeal muscles contract to elevate the hyoid and the larynx
Stage 3 is also involuntary. There’s sequential contraction of all 3 pharyngeal constrictor muscles with superior constricting the oropharynx and middle and inferior constricting the laryngopharynx. This passes the bolus into the oesophagus

484
Q

How is the larynx protected in swallowing?

A

By overhanging tongue, the vocal cords and the epiglottis which diverts the bolus away from the opening

485
Q

What are the longitudinal muscles of the pharynx?

A

Stylopharyngeus runs from styloid process to pharynx
Palatopharyngeus runs from palate to pharynx
Salpingopharyngeus runs from eustachian tube opening to pharynx. Also opens this tube in swallowing to equalise middle ear pressure

486
Q

What is the blood supply to the pharynx?

A

Branches of the external carotid artery, particularly the ascending laryngeal, facial, maxillary and lingual arteries.

487
Q

What does waldeyer’s ring consist of?

A

Nasopharyngeal tonsils
Palatine tonsils
Lingual tonsils
Tubal tonsils at opening of eustachian tube

488
Q

What immunoglobulins are produced by nasopharyngeal tonsils?

A

G,A,M

489
Q

What are some consequences of enlarged adenoids?

A

Nasal obstruction leading to hyponasal voice, mouth breathing, snoring, feeding difficulties, obstructive sleep apnoea
Eustachian tube obstruction leading to recurrent acute otitis media or chronic otitis media with effusion

490
Q

How are adenoids treated?

A

Grommets if there’s acute otitis media
Curretage
Suction diathermy

491
Q

When is a tonsillectomy carried out?

A

With recurrent tonsillitis (>5/year for at least 2 years)
Previous peritonsillar abscess/quinsy
Suspected cancer
Obstructive sleep apnoea

492
Q

What is a pharyngeal pouch?

A

Posterior herniation of mucosa through wall of pharynx at point between inferior constrictor muscle and cricopharyngeus muscle
Occurs due to weakness, uncoordinated contraction and pharyngeal spasm

ESA 4 (4 decks)

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