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[HD 201] 3rd Exam > HD 201 E3 Samplex 2012 > Flashcards

HD 201 E3 Samplex 2012 Flashcards

1
Q

Advantage of rhythm method except:

a. no physical side effect
b. economical
c. prevents STD
d. Rapid return of fertility

A

C

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2
Q

True about the use of condoms except

a. put before vaginal insertion
b. should cover the entire erect penis
c. should be used by women with multiple partners
d. can prevent all STDs

A

D

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3
Q

True of IUD

a. effectivity starts after 1mo from implantation
b. protects against STD and pelvic inflammation
c. causes cramps and abnormal bleeding
d. progesterone only pills thins out mucus and thickens endometriums impeding fertilization

A

C

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4
Q

Combined oral oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy by except:

a. changes in endometrium
b. prevent ovulation
c. cervical mucus change
d. NOTA

A

C

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5
Q

known advantages of COCs:

a. decrease risk for ovarian with endometrial cancer
b. decrease risk for benigh breast mass, ectopic pregnancy
c. decrease dysmenorrheal and menstrual bleeding
d. AOTA

A

D

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6
Q

True of progestin-only injectibles EXCEPT

a. rapidly effective
b. longlasting
c. weight gain, bleeding, cramps
d. return of fertility is rapid

A

D

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7
Q

Side effect of oral contraceptive use include all of the following except

a. breakthrough bleeding
b. dsymonerrhea
c. mastalgia
d. chloasma

A

B

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8
Q

The use of OCP decreases the risk for the following except

a. liver adenoma
b. salpingitis
c. ovarian cancer
d. endometrial cancer

A

A

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9
Q

True of hormonal contraception for breast feeding mothers:

a. progestin only OCP should be admistered 6wks post partum
b. DMPA should be administered 6 wks post partum
c. Hormonal implant should be placed 3 wks post parum
d. AOTA

A

B

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10
Q

Missed one proxycitin only pill:

a. take 2 pills immediately
b. take 1 pill immediately and take the next at the same time the pill were taken
c. use back-up contraceptive
d. not to worry just continue taking pills

A

B

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11
Q

The most effective reversible form of contraception?

a. combined estrogen and progestin pill
b. progestin only pills
c. IUD
d. spermicide

A

C

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12
Q

All of these are parts of the innominate bone except

a. ileum
b. ischium
c. sacrum
d. pubis

A

C

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13
Q

Variable landmark in determining the station to which the fetal presenting part has descended

a. sacral promontory
b. ischial spine
c. sacrosciatic notch
d. symphysis pubis

A

B

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14
Q

The shortest distance from the sacral promontory to the symphysis pubis is

a. true conjugate
b. diagonal conjugate
c. obstetric conjugate
d. posterior conjugate

A

A

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15
Q

True of the Caldwell-moloy classification of the pelvic

a. it is based on the meas. Of greatest transverse diameter of the outlet and its division into anterior and posterior segments
b. the posterior segment determines the type of pelvis; the anterior segment determines the tendency
c. majority of the pelves are pure rather than mixed
d. android pelvis is the most common and most suited for vaginal delivery

A

B

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16
Q

Obstetric conjugate is derived from at by:

a. measuring directly by clinical pelvimetry
b. adding 1.5 – 2.0 cm to diagonal conju
c. substracting 1.5 – 2.0 cm from diagonal conj.
d. measuring by imaging pelvimetry

A

C

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17
Q

Dorsal litothomy position:

a. increases diameter of outlet by 1.5-2.0 cm
b. increase diameter of inlet by 1.5-2.0 cm
c. increase diameter of midplane by 1.5-2.0 cm
d. increase diameter of midplane by 3.5-4.0 cm

A

A

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18
Q

What is the least diameter in the pelvis?

a. Obstetrical diameter
b. Interspinous
c. True diameter
d. Tuberiischi

A

B

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19
Q

Characteristic of Litzmann’s Obliquity:

a. More of anterior parietal bone presents on examination
b. More of posterior parietal bone presents on examination
c. Sagittal suture deflects towards symphysis pubis
d. Ear may be palpated on examination
e. AOTA
d. B, C, D
f. A, C, D

A

D

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20
Q

Engagement in primigravids occurs during

a. Last trimester
b. Prior to labor
c. During labor
d. 3rd stage

A

B

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21
Q

Which of the ff. are proposed mechanisms for labor pain?

a. Hypoxia of the contracted myometrium
b. Stretching of the cervix during dilation
c. Nerve ganglia compression in the cervix
d. AOTA

A

D

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22
Q

Phase 3, or the puerpuerium is characterized by:

A. Relaxation of the uterus immediately
B. Complete uterine involution for 4-6 weeks
C. Delivery of the placenta
D. NOTA

A

B

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23
Q

What evidence further supports the oxytocin activation theory?

A. Oxytocin decreases prostaglandin secretion
B. Oxytocin is produced by the decidua itself
C. Oxytocin receptors in the myometrium decreases during the last stage of labor
D. AOTA

A

B

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24
Q

Cause preterm labor except:

A. Maternal fetal stress
B. Uterine stretch
C. Infection
D. NOTA

A

D

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25
Q

Functional division of labor that is affected by sedation and analgesia:

a. preparational phase
b. dilatational phase
c. pelvic phase
d. cervical phase

A

A

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26
Q

Occurs when the descending fetal head meets resistance from the pelvic floor of cervix:

A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Internal rotation
D. External rotation

A

A

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27
Q

Identify fetus presentation. Upon IE, fetal occiput palpated on left of mother near maternal sacrum.

a. LOA
b. ROA
c. LDP
d. RDP

A

C

28
Q 
What is the fetal position if Leopold’s 
I:round, ballotable mass
II: hard right side
III: nodular, smaller masses
IV: not engaged

a. Cephalic
b. Breech
c. Transverse
d. oblique

A

B

29
Q

Cardinal Movements of Labor:

a. engagement, flexion, descent, extension, internal rotation, expulsion
b. engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation, expulsion
c. engagement, descent, extension, external rotation, flexion, internal rotation, expulsion
d. engagement, flexion, extension, descent, internal rotation, external rotation, expulsion

A

B

30
Q

C.E., a 25 yo G2P1 (1001) at 37 4/7 weeks AOG is in labor. Which of the following is appropriate?

a. periodic IE every hour
b. with a full diet
c. walking impairs latent phase
d. catheterization of the bladder done at active phase

A

A

31
Q

The Ferguson’s reflex refers to:

a. mechanical stretching of the cervix results to uterine contraction
b. shortening of the cervical canal from a length of 2 cm to almost paper thin edges.
c. thinning of the lower uterine segment and concomitant upper uterine thickening
d. persistent uterine contraction resulting to cervical dilatation

A

A

32
Q

The Ritgen maneuver is correctly described by which of the following?

a. moderate downward pressure is applied to the fetal chin ?
b. favors extension so that the head is delivered and its smallest part presenting
c. no need for use of towel draped hand
d. careful not to exert pressure superiorly against occiput

A

A

33
Q

Nail changes in pregnancy

A. Transverse grooving, decrease brittleness, decrease growth, distal oncholysis
B. Transverse grooving, increase brittleness, decrease growth, distal oncholysis
C. Transverse grooving, decrease brittleness, decrease growth, proximal oncholysis
D. Transverse grooving, decrease brittleness, increase growth, distal oncholysis

A

B

34
Q

The separation of the placenta in correct sequence are the following

a. uterus becomes globular, rise up the abdomen, gush of blood, cord lengthens
b. cord lengthens, uterus rise up the abdomen, becomes globular, gush of blood
c. uterus rise up the abdomen, becomes globular, gush of blood, cord lengthens
d. uterus becomes globular, gush of blood, uterus rise up the abdomen, cord lengthens

A

D

35
Q

Advantage of median vs mediolateral episiotomy

A. More blood loss
B. Increased faulty healing
C. More dyspareunia
D. Easier healing

A

D

36
Q

A method of placental extrusion in which the separation of the placenta occurs at the periphery first and where the maternal side comes out first in the vagina:

A. Duncan
B. Schultze
C. McRoberts
D. Ritgens

A

A

37
Q

Which is a non-pharmacological form of relief for labor pain?

a. TENS
b. ketomine
c. Lidocaine
d. Isoflurane

A

A

38
Q

Pain during 1st stage of labor is mediated by:

a. T10-T12
b. T8-T10
c. T10-L1
d. L1-L4

A

C

39
Q

Main factor that determines when to administer pain relief to a laboring mother.

a. cervical effacement
b. cervical dilatation
c. upon request of the patient
d. stage of labor

A

C

40
Q

Systemic toxicity due to local anesthetics initially manifests in:

a. CNS
b. CVS
c. GI
d. Respiratory

A

B

41
Q

Which of the following labor analgesic is characterized by reliable onset of pain relief and an awake mother?

a. low spinal
b. generalized anesthesia
c. intravenous myperidine
d. intramuscular ketamine

A

A

42
Q

Regional anesthesia is absolutely contraindicated in the ff:

a. history of poliomyelitis
b. severe preeclampsia
c. bleeding placenta previa
d. maternal hemoglobin of 9gm/L

A

C

43
Q

A 27 yo G1P1(1001) mother has a breast mass on her right outer lower quadrant. Upon PE, there is erythema, tenderness, warmth and induration. At the center, there is pointing. What is the best management for this patient?

a. antibiotics
b. incision and drainage under anesthesia
c. apply warm compress
d. do Hoffman’s exercises

A

A

44
Q

the most versatile “mother-baby friendly” form of local anesthesia:

a. systemic medications
b. epidural analgesia
c. general analgesia
d. Lamaze

A

B

45
Q

Main constituent of breastmilk

a. fats
b. proteins
c. water
d. carbohydrates

A

C

46
Q

Who among will be successful in breastfeeding:

a. the one letting the baby use a pacifier
b. the one in crash course diet
c. 35 y/o who breastfeeds every hour
d. 25 y/o who had a baby less than a year

A

C

47
Q

A 23 y/o G1P1(1001) is 3 weeks postpartum. She complained of pain on her right upper outer quadrant of her right breast. Upon PE, pain and erythema was noted on the area.

a. acute mastitis
b. breast abscess
c. nipple trauma
d. breast cyst

A

A

48
Q

Baby is irritable and fussy. Presence of white plaques in oral cavity

a. left-over milk in tongue
b. deformity in tongue
c. moniliasis
d. NOTA

A

C

49
Q

25 year-old G1P0 itchy nipples, erythematous and cracked. Management?

a. Vit E lotion
b. Vaseline oil
c. avoid harsh soaps
d. oral antibiotics

A

C

50
Q

A 20 y/o GIP (0101) delivered to a live preterm baby girl (34 weeks). She noted that the baby gets tired easily and only sucks for a short time. She thinks that the baby is not getting enough milk. Best management?

a. pump breast in between feedings
b. supplement with milk formula
c. give malunggay capsule
d. give baby sugar water

A

A

51
Q

Endometrial restoration achieved in:

a. 2 weeks postpartum
b. 3 weeks postpartum
c. 4 weeks postpartum
d. 6 weeks postpartum

A

B

52
Q

Uterine involution occurs as

a. muscle cells degenerate
b. muscle cells decrease in number
c. muscle cells decrease in size
d. NOTA

A

C

53
Q

Lochial discharge extends up to

a. 2 weeks postpartum
b. 3 weeks postpartum
c. 4 weeks postpartum
d. 6 weeks postpartum

A

B

54
Q

Due to delay in ovulation, contraception is not needed during

a. 3 weeks postpartum
b. 4 weeks postpartum
c. 5 weeks postpartum
d. 6 weeks postpartum

A

B

55
Q

Vaccines which are contraindicated for pregnant women?

a. tetanus
b. influenza
c. polio
d. measles

A

D

56
Q

Allowing a pregnant woman to have an abortion respects her

a. autonomy
b. non-maleficence
c. beneficence
d. justice

A

A

57
Q

A public health worker who fails to counsel a grand multiparous woman on family planning methods is violating what?

a. autonomy
b. non-maleficence
c. beneficence
d. justice

A

D

58
Q

Giving radiotherapy to a pregnant patient with cancer of the cervix at 18 weeks AOG is morally justifiable based on the principle of

a. double effect
b. conscience
c. justice
d. utilitarianism

A

D

59
Q

The development of maternal health service is based on the objective o a health service that is of

a. high quality
b. lower cost
c. relevant to user
d. AOTA

A

D

60
Q

Method formulated by Rawls for use in general ethical theory, the goal of which is to match and develop considered judgments and principles in an attempt to make them coherent

a. need for specification
b. normative nature of principles
c. reflective equilibrium
d. NOTA

A

C

61
Q

Equity in the delivery of the maternal health services is based on the assumption that:

a. optimum reproductive and sexual health is a right of every individual
b. services should be provided to those who can afford it
c. equal access to rich and poor
d. AOTA

A

A

62
Q

Circumstance in which person understands his/her situation

a. psychologic acceptance
b. informed consent
c. patient’s rights
d. voluteerism

A

B

63
Q

The following are possible indicators of equity in maternal health services

a. available to socially and economically deprived
b. must have a registry that includes ethnic minor or migrant groups
c. must have a system of services for the homeless
d. AOTA

A

D

64
Q

True of IUDs

a. effective from 1st month ater insertion
b. prevents PID and STD
c. side effects are cramping and abnormal menstrual bleeding
d. progesterone-only contraceptives thins out cervix and thickens endometrium preventing fertilization

A

C

65
Q

Which type of pelvis has a slightly round/oval inlet?

a. anthropoid
b. android
c. gynecoid
d. platypeloid

A

C

[HD 201] 3rd Exam (6 decks)

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