HCP 9: Regal Domalagang Tuberculosis Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MOA of Robitussin DM?

When is it used?

A

Dextramethorphan: Non-competitively antagonizes NMDA receptor in brain/spinal cord
Decrease activation of cough center (NTS)
Cough suppression (anti-tussive effect)
Guafenesin: Decrease adhesiveness/surface tension of mucous secretions
Promot ciliary action
Increase secretion clearance (expectorant)
ONLY USED TO TREAT COUGH DUE TO THROAT IRRITATION, NOT smoking/COPD

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2
Q

Who gets screened for PPD?

A

Those at increased risk (close contact, immigrant from TB-endemic regions), HIV, immunosuppressed, smokers, drug abusers, recent transplant

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3
Q

What is a PPD?

A

Purified protein derivative intradermal injection that measures delayed-type hypersensitivity & read induration (not erythema)
+ means that PAST infection, NOT necessarily ACTIVE TB
Expose to protein-antigen
APC phagocytose and present to memory T cells
CD4 activated
Differentiated into TH1 & TH17 effects cells that secrete cytokines -> inflamm.

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4
Q

Why do we use a 2 step PPD?

A

Used for those re-tested periodically

Reduces likelihood that misinterpreted for false negative

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5
Q

What can cause false positives in PPD?

A

Infection of non-TB mycobacterium
Prior BCG vaccination (not used in US)
Improper administration/interpretation/antigen

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6
Q

What can cause false negatives in PPD?

A

Recent infection
Very old TB
Young (<6 months)
Anergy

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7
Q

What is anergy?

A

Inability of lymphocytes to respond to antigen due to weakened immune system, so PPD may result in false negative
If inhibitory receptor engaged during co-stimulation or co-stimulatory signals not delivered
+ anergy panel = immune system in tact, so PPD is true negative

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8
Q

What is the Xpert MTB/RIF?

A

Simultaneously detects presence of MTB & RIF resistance in <2 hr. by collecting sputum, mixing w/ reagent - the rest is automated
Advantages: Fast, more specific/sensitive, can simultaneously id Abx resistance, less training for personnel
Disadvantage: expensive
*SHOULD STILL perform acid fast stain/culture

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9
Q

What is the Acid fast stain/culture?

A

Bacteria testing for are mycobacterium, some Actinomyces, Nocardia
Stain/Smear= red to bright pink against blue
Traditionally used Ziehl-Neelson dye
Disadvantages: Time, Low sensitivity, trained eye to identify
Culture takes even longer to grow (4-8 weeks) but is the “Gold standard”

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10
Q

What is the MOA of imipenem/cilistatin?

When is it used?

A

Cilistatin prevents degradation of imipenem by competitively inhibiting dihydropeptidase I on renal tubule brush border
Imipenem binds to PBP to inhibits final step of cell wall synthesis (transpeptidation), inhibit cross-linking of cell wall, bacterial cell death
EMPIRICAL THERAPY: “Atomic bomb”

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11
Q

What are some identifying factors of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A
Neither Gram + or -
Acid-fast
Rod-shaped
Non-motile
Obligate anaerobe
Catalase +
Non-spore forming
Grows at 37C but not body temp
Slow growing
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12
Q

What are some virulence factors for MTB?

A

Mycolic acid: unique large FA, inhibit complement activity
LAM: inactivates macrophages
Cord factor: only in VIRULENT strains, allows for serpentine-like growth (stimulate TNF release, inhibit neutrophil migration)
Sulfatides-inhibit phagosome fusion w/ lysosome (contains bacteriocidal enzymes)
Wax D-enhance Ab formation to antigen
Phthiocerol Dimycocerosate - necessary for pathogen in lungs

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13
Q

How is MTB transmitted?

Pathogenesis?

A

Respiratory aerosols ( Healed lesion -> +PPD

  • Reactivation -> 2* TB
  • Liquefaction & release bacilli-> cough/into blood (military TB)
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14
Q

What are the first line drugs for treating TB?

A

Isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, streptomycin, & pyrazinamide. Used in combo bc high resistance to drugs.

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15
Q

What should you have supplemental pyridine (vitamin B6) on isoniazid?

A

One of the main side effects is peripheral neuropathy, which is caused by drug stimulating pyroxidine excretion -> deficiency.
Isoniazid also known for hepatotoxicity.

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16
Q

Why would someone need higher doses of opioid analgesics while on rifampin?

A

RIF induces hepatic P450 enzymes, including those that metabolize opioids

17
Q

What causes orange urine?

18
Q

What causes vision problems?

A

Ethambutol (decreased visual acuity & green/red color blindness)

19
Q

What is the standard treatment regimen so long?

A
  1. Intracellular location (difficult to get to)
  2. Bacillus often in large cavities w/ avascular centers (don’t penetrate well)
  3. Slow generation time
20
Q

Is cell-mediated or humoral immunity more important for fighting TB?

A

Cell-mediated bc bacillus resides intracellularly & cell-mediated targets intracellular pathogens

21
Q

Why is reactivation TB more likely to occur in apical lungs rather than lower lobes?

A

Obligate aerobes & higher O2 tension in apex of lung facilities growth (but primary infection more likely to occur in lower segments where bacteria initially deposited)

22
Q

What is the MOA of Rifampin?

Side effects?

A

Binds to B-subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase (w/o binding to eukaryotic)
Inhibit RNA transcription
Bacteriostatic
SIDE EFFECT: orange urine, LFTs, rash, nausea, vomiting

23
Q

What is the MOA of Isoniazid?

Side effects?

A

Activated by mycobacterial catalase peroxidase (KatG)
Inhibit long-chain enoyl reductase (Inh)
Inhibit mycolic acid synthesis
Inhibit cell wall synthesis
Apoptosis
SIDE EFFECTS: hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy

24
Q

What is the MOA of Ethambutol?

Side effects?

A

Inhibit arabinosyl transferase
Decrease synthesis of arabinogalactan
Decrease covalent linking of mycolic acid to cell wall
Increase cell permeability
Increase susceptibility to other drugs
SIDE EFFECTS: optic neuropathy (decrease visual acuity, red/green color blindness)

25
What is the MOA of pyrazinamide? | Side effects?
Only works in acidic conditions (granuloma) Prodrug that's activated by pyrazinamidase secreted by Mtb Converted to pyrazanoic acid Diffuses out of Mtb & protonated (more lipid-soluble) Re-enters Mtb Inhibits mycobacterial FA synthase I Decrease mycolic acid synthesis Decrease cell wall synthesis Disrupt membrane transport
26
What is the immunopathology of TB?
Majority of TB expelled by cilia, but MTB killing Activated macrophages release TNF Recruit monocytes Differentiate into epithelioid histiocytes Fusion -> giant Langhans cells (granuloma) Localized caseation
27
What is the proper protocol of reporting TB to DOH?
HI has one of highest annual TB cases in US due to immigration Report when: -+AFB smear (& suspicion) -+ result from rapid diagnosis test (Xpert) -+ culture -Pathology/autopsy consistent -Clinical suspicion such that airborne isolation initiated Needs to be done w/in 24 hr of diagnosis
28
What is a surveillance program?
After TB case confirmed, screen patient's contacts with risk assessment -Lanakila Health Center
29
What are the 4 major types of isolation?
4 types: 1. Standard (universal) - PPE, hand hygiene, soiled patient-care equipment, environmental control, textiles/laundry, needles/sharps 2. Airborne: patient has separate entrance, isolation room (negative pressure), respirator mask (workers), PPE, hand hygiene - MTB, rubeola, varicella 3. Droplet: individual room w/ closed door 4. Contact: Individual room/bathroom