hazmatt Flashcards

1
Q

what is a plume

A

a plume is irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a poison

A

Any material, excluding gases, that when taken into the body is injurious to health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is a level 1 incident

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is a level 2 incident

A

a level 2 incident is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene and beyond the capabilities of the first response agency/organization having jurisdiction. level 2 incidents may require the services of the formal hazmat response team.
+spill or leak requiring limited scale evacuation
+any major accident, spillage, or overflow flammable liquids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a level 3 incident

A

a level 3 incident is the most serious incident that requires resources from state/provincial federal and/or private industries.
+decom on a large scale
+beyond the capabilities of the local hazmat response team
+a evacuation extending across jurisdiction boundaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are operational strategies [ hazmat incidents

A

+nonintervention
+offensive
+defensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

nonintervention Strat/operations

A

nonintervention operations are operations in witch the responders do not take direct actions on the actual problem. not taking any action is the only safe strat in many types of incidents. responders should evacuate personnel in the area and withdraw to a safe distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

offence Strat/operations

A

responders take a aggressive, direct action on the material, container, or process equipment involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

defense Strat/operations

A

responders seek to confine the emergency to a given area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the 4 stages of the initial response

A

+the information gathering stage or input stage
+a processing or planning stage
+an implementing or out put stage
+a review or evaluation stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what dose APIE stand for

A

analyze, plan, implement evaluate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a risk based response

A

a risk based response uses information, science and technology, science and technology to mitigate a hazardous incident. risk based response is a hierarchy of decisions needed to protect responders. as with the most successful incidents, the response starts with a thorough size up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does IAP stand for

A

incident action plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are common response obj in hazmat incidents

A

isolation, notification, identification, protection (life safety), rescue, spill control/confinement leak control/containment, crime scene and evidence preservation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is difference between a response objective and a action option

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the cold (support) zone used for

A

the cold zone surrounds the warm zone and is used to carry out all logistical support functions of the incident. workers in the cold zone are not required to wear PPE because the zone is considered safe. however, some personnel may still be wearing PPE (such as body armor) in case of secondary devices/attacks to ensure safe evacuation in case of rapid expansion of the hot zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the hot (exclusion) zone used for

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the warm zone used for

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

staging area

A

the staging area needs to be located in an isolated spot in a safe area where occupants cannot interfere with ongoing operations. idealiy emergency responders and e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is parr

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what protects responders in a hazmat situation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is accountability systems

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the buddy system and backup personnel

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how dose time, distance, and shielding protect first responders in hazmat incidents

A

+time
+distance
+shielding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
what are escape procedures
25
what are factors that affect rescue
26
what are factors that ic must address in large scale evacuations
27
what is shelter in place
sheltering in place means to direct people to go quickly inside or to stay inside a room or building and remain inside until danger passes
28
how can you help investigators in the investigation
+make visual notes +try not to disturb evidence +do not move body's +remember what the scene looked liked when you arrived +note who was present or anything suspicions +if you disturb something tell investigators +do not try to recreate the scene
29
what is fire control
30
what are terror organizations objectives and methods
using force that involves illegal activity intimidation support political and social objectives
31
what are the responsibilities of awareness level personnel at a terrorist incidents
+protect yourself and others by isolating the incident and denying entry +prevent contaminated persons and animals from leaving the scene
32
what are types and tactics of terror attacks
assassination, wmd, cyber attacks, agroterrorism bombings and armed assault
33
what are secondary attacks and booty traps
34
what are potential terror targets
killing or injuring persons, causing panic and/or disruption, damaging the economy, destroying property, demoralizing the community
35
what are secondary attacks and booby traps
36
what is a VBIED
vehicle borne improvised explosive devices
37
what is a response to ied events
38
what are types of chemical agents
nerve, blood, blister, choking, riot control, and toxic industrial materials
39
what should you to if you suspect a booby trap or secondary device
40
what are chemical attack indicators
41
what is a nerve agent
malitple po
42
what is a blister agent
43
what is a blood agent
blood agents are chemical asphyxiants. they interfere with the body's ability to use oxygen etheir by preventing red blood cells in the body
44
what is choking agents
45
what is riot control agents
46
what is toxic industrial materials (TIMs)
47
what is a biological attack
the CDC defines biological terrorism as a intentional release of viruses, bacteria, or their toxins for the purpose of harming or killing citizens
48
what are bio attack indicators
multiple people have the same symptoms
49
what is disease transmission
50
what is contagiousness
51
what are operations at a bio attack incedent
52
what is a radiological and nuclear attack
53
what are nuclear attack indicators
threat of attack, individuals, exhibiting signs and symptoms
54
what are the types of radiological devices
55
what are operations in radiological attack
56
what is a illicit labs
illicit labs are used to manufacture drugs, explosives, bio weapons, such as ricin or chemical warfare agents. drug labs in particular can be found virtually anywhere from any where to hotel rooms private residences cars or campgrounds
57
what is a illegal hazmatdump
58
how can hazmat released during a natural disaster affect the environment and community
59
what is a progress report
60
how do u know when to withdraw
+sudden change in temperature +sudden change in pressure +audible indicators of a pressure relive device activating +sudden increase in flames
61
what are the two types of self contained breathing apparatus
+open circuit SCBA +closed circuit SCBA
62
supplied air respirators (SARs)
the supplied air respirators or airline respirator is an atmosphere supplying respirator where the user dose not carry the breathing air source
63
air purifying respirators (APRs)
+may be powered or nonpowered +do not supply oxygen or air from separate source +protect against only specific contaminates or below certain concentrations +has disposable filters cartridges mounted on sides... no single canister or filter protects against all hazards
64
what is the disadvantages of self contained breathing apparatus
+weight of units +open/closed SCBA have a max air supply duration +change in profile may hinder mobility +limited vision due to fogging +limited communications if the face piece is not equipped with a microphone or speaking diaphragm
65
what are air purifying respirators limitations?
+ do not protect against oxygen deficient and oxygen enriched atmospheres +must not be used in IDLH atmospheres +can only be used if hazardous materials has a taste or smell +limited life of filters +needs constant atmosphere monitoring +need for normal oxygen content before use 19.5%-23.5%
66
air purifying respirator precautions
+ensure that oxygen level is in-between 19.5% and 23.5% +ensure that atmospheric hazards are below IDLH conditions +know what and how much of the chemicals/air contaminants are in the air
67
powered air purifying respirators (PAPRs)
+uses a blower and filter to remove contaminants and supply purified air to full facepiece +Greater degree of safety than standard APRs in case of leaks or poor facial seals +may be used at hazmat/wmd situations for decom and long term operations +comfortable +do not use in explosive atmospheres
68
supplied air hoods
+loose fitting and light weight +can be worn with glasses facial hair +no fit testing +simple to use
69
respiratory equipment limitations
limited visibility, decreased ability to communicate, increased weight, decreased mobility, inadequate oxygen levels,, chemical specific, psychological stress
70
what are the different type of respiratory protection used at hazmat/wmd situations
71
what does NIOSH and NFPA stand for
72
what does structural fire fighting protective clothing protect against
+protects against some chemicals found in atmosphere of burning buildings +SCBA protects against some toxic gases +multiple layers of coat and pants may protection from liquid chemicals
73
structural fire fighting protective clothing limitations
+not corrosive resistant or vapor tight +liquids can soak through acids and basis can dissolve or deteriorate outer layers +gases and vapors can penetrate +gaps can occur at neck, wrist, waist, and points where boots and pants overlap +some hazardous materials can permeate and remain in the clothing +not sufficient when skin contact is potentially hazardous +no protection against mechanical effects, shrapnel and projectiles
74
chemical protective clothing (cpc)
cpc is not intended for fire fighting or hot liquids, steam, molten metals, welding, electrical arcs, flammable atmospheres, explosive environments, or thermal radiation
75
liquid splash protective clothing
encapsulating suit +one piece garment +protects against splashes or vapors and gases +boots and gloves are sometimes separate or attached and replaceable ------------------------------------------------------------------- encapsulating suit limitations +impairs mobility, vision, and communication +traps body heat
76
written management programs
all emergency response organizations that routinely use cpc must establish +written chem protective clothing program +respiratory protection management program
77
what are two basic objectives of any management programs?
+protecting user from safety and health hazards +preventing injury from incorrect use or malfunction
78
comprehensive cpc management program elements
hazard identification, medical monitoring, environmental surveillance, selection, care, testing, and maintenance, training
79
level a ensemble
80
level b ensemble
81
level c
82
level c
83
level d
84
PPE selection factors
allied professionals, hazmat tec
85
what are the types/levels in order from most severe to least sever
heat stroke, heat exhaustion, heat cramps, heat rashes,
86
what are preventive methods to cold exposure
be active, wear warm clothing/layers, avoid cold beverages, rehab in a warm area, dress appropriately
87
what are preventative methods to heat exposure
fluid consumption, air cooling, ice cooling, water cooling, cooling vests
88
what are the steps to pre entry inspection
+visual inspection +confirm pressure test completion dates +operational check of components
89
safety and emergency procedures
always work in teams of two or more accountability system know evacuation and escape procedures know the technical decom procedures
90
safety briefings should be conducted before entering the hot zone, and should include
+incident status +identified hazards +description of site +tasks t be performed +expected duration of tasks +escape route or area of refuge +ppe and health monitoring requirements +notification of identified tasks +communication procedures
91
what are common adsorbents
sawdust, clay, charcoal, polyolefin type fibers, specially designed adsorbent pads, pillows, booms, and socks
92
absorption
+absorbent is spread directly onto the hazardous material or in location where material is expected to flow + after use responders must treat and dispose of absorbents as hazardous materials because they retain the properties of the materials they absorb
93
what is the difference between absorption and adsorption?
94
what are tools for covering solids
tarps, salvage tarps, plastic sheeting, other materials including foam
95
dilution
96
neutralization
97
when neutralizing a material what is the ph goal
ph 7
98
what is a safety factor to consider when working with pressurized tanks
tanks with relief valves may still rupture violently if exposed to heat or flames
99
fire control
if flammable
100
at what point during a flammable liquid incident does the focus turn from containment to fire control?
101
describe methods of leak control
102
leak control goals
stop or limit escape, contain the release either in its original container or by transferring it to a new one
103
operations level responder can perform leak control in certain situations involving what materials?
+gasoline +diesel +liquefied petroleum gas +natural gas fuels
104
operations level responders can take offensive actions provided they have the appropriate ......?
+training +procedures +equipment +ppe
105
when should responders operate affixed facility or pipeline remote shutoff valves?
106
decon at terror incidents
+may require changes to procedures +may involve large numbers of people +must be treated as a crime scene
107
what is the difference between gross decontamination and emergency decontamination
+gross deacon is a rapidity brushing or removing surface contaminates of the suite or ppe +emergency deacon removes immediately personal threating contaminate from the victim as quickly as possible without regard for the environment or property protection
108
basic principals of decontamination
+get it off +keep it off +contain it
109
what should u be asking before initiating decontamination
+ do victims need to be decontaminated immediately or can they wait? +is it safe to conduct decon? +is there a safe place to conduct decon +what alternative decon methods are available? +are there adequate resources to conduct the operation?
110
emergency decontaminat
111
what details should decontamination records include
+activities performed +products involved +mission +equipment failures +ppe malfunctions +hazards associated +symptoms experienced +monitoring levels in use +exposure circumstances