Hazmat State Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following statements best describes the standards set by OSHA?
A
OHSA standards apply to all workplaces
2
Q
Which of the following statements best describes the regulations set by the EPA?
A
EPA regulations apply primarily to hazardous wastes
3
Q
Which of the following organizations issues mandatory standards?
A
OSHA
4
Q
The OSHA standard that protects workers in hazardous waste operations and emergency response is?
A
29 CFR 1910.120
5
Q
OSHA’s Hazard Communication standard is:
A
A worker right-to-know law
6
Q
Which of the following organizations issues hazard classes & divisions?
A
DOT
7
Q
Un identification numbers indicate that a chemical may be shipped:
A
Internationally
8
Q
Hazardous materials that must always be placarded, regardless of quantity, are:
A
Table 1 materials
9
Q
Title 49 in the Code of Federal Regulations includes all:
A
DOT Regulations
10
Q
The Superfund Amendment and Reauthorization Act is administered by:
A
EPA
11
Q
How can DOT subsidiary placards be distinguished from primary placards?
A
Subsidiary placards do not carry hazard class or UN numbers
12
Q
Bulk containers for liquids hold a maximum capacity of more than:
A
118.9 gallons
13
Q
An “MC 331” is a:
A
Pressure cargo tank
14
Q
Non-pressure cargo tanks have:
A
Elliptical cross–sections and flat heads
15
Q
Caustic Soda is frequently transported in:
A
Covered hopper cars
16
Q
Non-pressure cargo tanks primarily carry:
A
Petroleum products
17
Q
Which of the following is not true regarding shipping papers:
A
DOT requires that MSDSs accompany shipping papers
18
Q
Non-pressure tank containers transport liquid & solid materials at pressures up to:
A
100 psig
19
Q
Tube trailers carry:
A
Pressurized gases
20
Q
Which of the following best describes the most common type of tank container?
A
Single compartment, stainless steel tank in metal frame
21
Q
Medical surveillance for emergency responders is part of which federal regulation?
A
29 CFR 1910.120
22
Q
The primary route of chemical exposure for fire fighters is:
A
Inhalation
23
Q
Secondary contamination refers to:
A
Contamination from someone who has already been contaminated
24
Q
Which of the following statements is not true of the skin?
A
Water-soluble substances are more easily absorbed by the skin
25
Which of the following items will provide minimum shielding from gamma radiation?
Several inches of lead
26
Under federal regulations, medical surveillance is required for:
Members of hazardous materials teams only
27
Biological monitoring measures:
The amount of an agent in your body
28
Simple asphyxiants displace oxygen in the air. Chemical asphyxiants:
Prevent the body from using inhaled oxygen
29
Etiologic means that an agent is:
Infectious
30
Which of the following organs is considered the primary “transfer point” for chemicals in the body?
The lungs
31
Which of the following statements is true regarding the hazard identification phase of pre-incident planning?
Transportation routes as well as fixed sites should be identified
32
What influence does topography have on the spread of a poisonous gas that is heavier than air?
It may either increase or prevent the spread of the gas
33
Which of the following is not true regarding weather conditions?
Cold temperatures have little effect because of physical demands in fire fighting
34
The hazard identification phase of pre-incident planning primarily involves:
Gathering information
35
Facilities that use only very small quantities of hazardous materials:
May not need to follow government reporting procedures
36
What is the next step in a pre-incident plan once you have collected all pertinent information?
Develop a comprehensive plan of action
37
If after preplanning a facility, you find you would not have sufficient resources to respond to an incident, your
department should:
Take preventive measures
38
Generic pre-incident plans can be developed for:
Each pre-incident plan must be site –specific
39
Which of the following statements is not true of pre-incident planning?
A site visit may not be necessary if previous pre-incident plans are available
40
The right response to an incident is to:
Work within limitations of resources & training
41
Air is assigned a vapor density of:
1
42
If a material is “water miscible”, it is:
Infinitely soluble in water
43
Substances with high vapor pressures are:
More likely to evaporate
44
The rate of a chemical reaction can usually be increased by:
Increasing temperature, concentration, and pressure
45
Vapors and gases with molecular weights greater than 29 tend to:
Sink in air
46
Although specific gravity has no unit of measure, it does have a value relative to:
The weight of water
47
“Ignition temperature” refers to:
The temperature at which a material burns without a flame
48
A “pyrophoric” material describes a material that spontaneously ignites in air at or below:
130 F
49
All gases have vapor pressure higher than:
760 mm Hg
50
A chemical’s “explosive limit” depends on its:
Concentration
51
Which of the following is the best definition of response time as it applies to detection devices?
The period between beginning measurement & obtaining a reading
52
Detector tubes are used to:
Measure the concentration of known gases, vapors, & unknown hydrocarbons
53
Alpha & beta radiation survey meters usually display readings in:
Counts per minute
54
On a combustible gas indicator with a reading in % LEL, the reading indicates 0-100% of:
The lower explosive limit
55
The most common calibration gases for combustible gas indicators are:
Methane, pentane
56
Which of the following is true of direct read-out instruments?
Direct read-out instruments provide measurements in real time
57
Which of the following instruments should you use in a flammable atmosphere?
Instruments marked “intrinsically safe” or “UL or FM”
58
Which of the following is the best definition of relative response as it applies to detection devices?
The instrument’s reading compared to the calibration gas
59
If you are monitoring a gas with an LEL of 2% and your combustible gas indicator reads 50% LEL, what is the
actual percentage of gas in the atmosphere?
1%
60
An atmosphere is assumed to be oxygen-enriched if concentrations of oxygen are greater than:
23.5%
61
Vapor-protective clothing for hazardous chemical emergency response is described in:
NFPA 1991
62
Chemical protective clothing is specifically designed to:
Prevent or limit skin exposure
63
The process by which a chemical moves through a material by molecular means is called:
Permeation
64
Which type of respirator should be worn in emergency response?
Positive pressure self contained breathing apparatus
65
Which of the following organizations assigns protection factors to respirators?
NIOSH
66
The longest approved air line for supplied air respirators is:
300 feet
67
Support function garments should never be used for:
Emergency response
68
Liquid splash-protective clothing for hazardous chemical emergency response is described in:
NFPA 1992
69
Break though time refers to the time it takes for a chemical to:
Permeate protective clothing
70
Which type of resistance data is most valuable when using vapor-protective clothing?
Permeation
71
When must a decontamination area be set up?
Before personnel enter the Hot Zone
72
In emergency decontamination, which of the following is a primary concern?
Prevent severe injury.
73
If contaminants are corrosive, skin and mucous membranes must be flushed with:
Large amounts of water
74
Non-soluble contaminants should be removed from the skin with:
Liquid soap & water
75
Although other factors are involved, protective clothing is more likely to be permeated if:
The chemical is highly concentrated
76
“Deactivation” is the use of cleaning agents, neutralizers, or disinfectants for decontamination and is generally
used for:
Organic compounds
77
In the decontamination process for liquid splash-protective garments, the SCBA face piece is removed:
After the splash suit is removed
78
How should you decontaminate a contaminated entry team member who experience heat stress in the Hot
Zone?
Perform an emergency decontamination, then remove the clothing
79
Exposure to which type of chemical automatically prohibits the reuse of PPE?
Carcinogens
80
PPE contamination levels can only be determined by:
Destructive testing
81
Most 55-gallon drums have openings in the top fitted with plugs & caps. These opening are called:
Bungs
82
Oxygen gas would most likely be transported in which type of tank car?
High pressure tube car
83
Which of the following is usually built to contain releases on land?
Dikes
84
Which of the following statements is true of over packing?
Over pack drums must be marked
85
Which of the following control techniques involves releasing gas vapors into the atmosphere to reduce tank
pressure?
Venting
86
Which of the following items is often used as an adsorbent?
Clay
87
Cargo tanks can be constructed from any of the following materials. Which one is softest & will puncture most
easily?
Aluminum
88
Which type of tank car is the most common?
Non-pressure tank cars
89
Which type of tank car is the most common?
Non-pressure tank cars
90
An incident management system (I.M.S.) should be established when:
The first responding unit arrives
91
Which of the following function is not a command staff position?
Logistic
92
In an I.M.S., which of the following statements best describe the function of the Operations function?
Operation is responsible for management of tactical operations to stabilize & control the incident
93
A rest & rehabilitation unit at a large-scale incident would fall under the:
Logistics function
94
A rest & rehabilitation unit at a large-scale incident would fall under the:
Logistics function
95
The Integrated Emergency Management System is implemented at large-scale incidents by:
FEMA
96
In addition to Incident Command, what are the four primary divisions at a hazardous materials incident?
Operations, Planning, Logistic, Finance
97
Which of the following statements is true of the Incident Safety Officer?
The Incident Safety Officer can halt operations if unsafe practices occur
98
Coordination of communication at a hazardous materials incident is the responsibility of which division?
Logistic
99
Coordination of communication at a hazardous materials incident is the responsibility of which division?
Logistic
100
How should burns from alkali corrosive agents be treated?
The chemical should be thoroughly flushed and the burn covered with a dry dressing
101
Which of these asphyxiants carries the highest risk of secondary contamination?
Cyanide
102
The acronym DUMBELS is associated with symptoms produced by exposure to which of the following
insecticides?
Organophosphates
103
Victims of heat stroke experience:
Rapid, strong pulse and flushed, dry skin
104
Exposure to hydrogen fluoride can deplete blood of:
Calcium
105
Carboxyhemoglobin occurs when carbon monoxide inhibits:
The blood’s ability to carry oxygen
106
Cyanide is easily absorbed through:
All three routes of exposure
107
How should hypothermic patients be treated?
The patient should be warmed slowly by placing heat packs close to the body
108
Which of the following chemicals can produce methemoglobinemia?
Nitrates
109
Which organization mandates the use of Incident Command System at hazardous materials incidents?
OSHA
110
How should a seriously injured patient who has been contaminated with a toxic chemical be decontaminated?
The patient should undergo gross decontamination prior to medical treatment
111
Non-soluble contaminants should be removed from the skin with:
Liquid soap & water
112
A DOT 407 is a:
Low pressure cargo tank
113
The Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) is defined as:
The average airborne concentration of substance to which an adult can be exposed for 8-hour workday or
40 hour work week.
114
In emergency gross decontamination, the primary concern is to:
Prevent severe injury
115
When used as weapon of mass destruction, biological agents can be dispersed as:
All of the above (solids, liquids, & gases)
116
Breakthrough time refers to the time it takes for a chemical to:
Permeate protective clothing
117
Chlorine A kits are designed to help you handle leaks from:
Cylinders
118
The warfare agent SARIN is an example of a:
Nerve agent
119
The “persistence” of a product refers to:
The rate at which a product evaporates
120
When used as a terrorist weapon, which of the following chemicals is considered a blood agent?
Hydrogen cyanide
121
Cryogenic liquids are generally stored at maximum temperature of:
Minus 130 F
122
Diazinon & malathion are examples of which type of insecticide?
Organophosphates
123
A chlorine B kit is designed to handle leaks in:
Ton containers
124
An MC 338 cargo tank carries:
Cryogenic materials
125
Based on its molecular weight, which one of the following gases will tend to rise in air?
Acetylene (MW=26)
126
DOT hazard class 5 includes:
Oxidizers
127
When doffing chemical protective clothing, the last item removed should be:
SCBA
128
When a hazardous material contains multiple hazards, which types of labels should be used on the packaging?
Labels for the primary hazards & at least one subsidiary label for a secondary hazard
129
Hydrocarbons containing a molecular structure in the form of a ring are known as:
Aromatic hydrocarbons
130
Photoionization detectors (PIDs) are generally used to detect:
Organic vapors in low ppm ranges
131
Non-pressure Type I intermodal tank containers transport liquid & solid materials at pressures up to:
100 psig
132
If you are exposed to a hazardous material, OHSA requires that your medical records be kept for how many
years after you leave your job?
30 years
133
Approximately how much of a displacing gas is needed to drop oxygen concentrations by 5%?
1%
134
Inorganic peroxides act as both oxidizers and:
Corrosives
135
Compressed gases are defined by DOT as having an absolute pressure exceeding:
40 psi at 70 F
136
Of the following heat-related stresses, which symptom indicates the most serious condition?
Flushed, dry skin
137
The types of weapon most commonly used by terrorists are:
Explosives
138
DOT hazards class 4 includes:
Flammable solids
139
How should you decontaminate a contaminated entry team member who experience heat stress in the hot
zone?
Perform an emergency decon, then remove the clothing
140
Which type of respirator should be worn in emergency response?
Positive pressure SCBA
141
The first step in conducting pre-incident planning for a fixed site is:
Conducting a site visit
142
MC 306/ DOT 406 cargo tanks generally carry what type of products?
Fuels
143
In the decontamination process for liquid splash-protective garments, the SCBA face piece is removed:
After the splash suit is removed
144
Which of the following is not an example of a containment technique?
Diking
145
Which of the following must be placarded regardless of the amount being transported?
Table 1 materials
146
A chemical with a pH less than 7 is alkaline; a chemical with a pH greater than 7 is acidic.
False
147
A product with a Class Division number of 5.2 at the bottom of the placard would be considered an:
Organic peroxide
148
Non-soluble contaminants should be removed from the skin with:
Liquid soap and water
149
Which of the following is a resource for determining the size of an endangered area of a
hazardous materials incident?
Emergency response guidebook
150
Steel cylinder designed to withstand pressure may contain:
Compressed gases
151
A tanker equipped with propane burner and attached propane tanks with a working tank
pressure usually between 400-500F is what type of carrier?
Tar and asphalt carrier
152
A MC 333 cargo tank carries what type of product?
Cryogenic materials
153
All the following are types of toxic skin reaction except:
Carcinogens
154
The hazard identification phase of pre-incident planning primarily involves:
Gathering information
155
Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations includes all:
DOT regulations
156
The Superfund Amendment and Reauthorization Act are administered
by:
EPAB
157
Compressed gases are defined by DOT as having an absolute pressure
exceeding:
40 psi at 70 F
158
What measures the ability of a liquid to evaporate, that is, to change from a liquid to a
gas?
Vapor Pressure
159
On a combustible gas indicator with a reading in % LEL, the reading indicates 0-100%
of:
Lower Explosive Limit
160
Which of the following chemicals can produce
| methemoglobinemia?
Nitrates
161
The longest approved airline for supplied air respirators is:
300 feet
162
A product with a Class Division number of 4.2 at the bottom of the placard would be
considered what:
Spontaneously combustible materials
163
How can DOT subsidiary placards be distinguished from primary
placards?
Subsidiary placards do not carry class or UN numbers
164
If you are monitoring a gas with a LEL of 2% and your combustible gas indicator reads 1%
LEL, what is the actual percentage of gas in the atmosphere?
5,000 ppm
165
Photo Ionization detectors (PID) are generally used to detect:
Organic vapors in low ppm ranges
166
Class 5 materials, such as ammonia nitrate fertilizer, include which of the following groups of
materials?
Organic peroxides
167
Carboxyhemoglobin occurs when carbon monoxide inhibits:
The blood’s ability to carry oxygen
168
An asphyxiate is any substance that:
Prevents the body from using oxygen
169
According to the IAFF Technician manual, what signs would a victim of heat stroke
exhibit:
Strong pulse and hot, dry skin
170
A Pyrophoric material describes a material that spontaneously ignites in air at or
below:
130 F
171
Substances added to monomers to prevent them from polymerizing
are:
Inhibitors
172
All gases have vapor pressures higher than:
780mm Hg
173
A glass of plastic bottle encased in outer packaging such as a polystyrene box or wooden
crate may contain:
Hydrochloric acid
174
Inorganic peroxides act as both oxidizer and:
Corrosives
175
What type of respirator should be worn in response?
Positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus
176
Exposure to hydrogen fluoride can cause a depletion of blood:
Calcium
177
Non-pressure DOT 406 cargo tanks have what type of
| construction:
Elliptical cross sections and flat heads
178
Emergency responders should withdraw from a haz-mat incident
| if:
External damage to the container threatens massive release
179
Post-exposure monitoring is necessary:
To assist in early identification of illness and injury
180
If further assistance is needed to analyze an incident, it can be sought from:
The shipper of the product
181
The process by which a chemical moves through a material by molecular means is
called:
Permeation
182
The Chlorine “B” kit is designed to handle leaks on what type of
container?
One-ton Containers
183
Benzene, which can over stimulate the nervous system causing skin irritation, is an
example of a:
Neurotoxin
184
The first step in conducting a pre-incident plan for a fixed site is:
Conducting a site visit.
185
Responsibilities of the haz-mat safety officer include:
Remaining alert to various threats at hazmat incidents
186
Most biological agents are dispersed as a(n):
Aerosol
187
The NFPA diamond is a labeling system that incorporates the use of four diamonds
combined in one central diamond. What is indicated in the blue field?
Health
188
Which of the following organs is considered the primary “transfer point” for chemicals in the
body?
The lungs
189
What type of chemical exposure automatically prohibits the reuse of any
PPE?
Carcinogens
190
A limited use non-bulk container or carboy are used almost exclusively for hazardous
materials and can hold between:
15 to 20 gallons
191
In emergency decontamination, the primary concern is to:
Prevent severe injury
192
When must the decontamination area be set up?
Before any personnel enter the hot zone
193
Which of the following organizations issues hazard classes and
divisions?
Department of transportation (DOT)
194
Non-pressure cargo tanks primarily carrier:
Petroleum products
195
Colorimetric detector tubes are used to:
Measure the concentration of any unknown gas or vapor by volume
196
Cryogenics liquids are generally stored at a maximum temperature
of:
-130 F
197
Tube trailer’s carry what commodities:
Pressurized gases
198
The hazardous materials safety officer is not responsible for:
Identifying the materials involved
199
Which of the following statements describes the standard set by the Occupational Safety
and Health Act?
OSHA standards apply to all workplaces
200
The temperature at which a liquid change to a gas increasing pressure inside a closed
container is known as:
Boiling point
201
Of the following heat-related stresses, which symptom indicates the most serious
condition?
Red hot, dry skin, no sweating
202
Chlorine “A” kit are designed to help you handle leaks from:
150 lb. cylinders
203
When used as a terrorist weapon, which of the following chemicals is considered a blood
agent?
Hydrogen cyanide
204
How many individuals are commonly required for a hazardous materials section group
to make a well-coordinated entry and recovery?
Eight to twelve technicians
205
How do you decontaminate a contaminated entry team member who experiences heat
stress in the hot zone?
Perform emergency decon and then remove clothing
206
Based on its molecular weight, which one of the following gases will tend to rise in
air?
Acetylene (MW= 26)
207
Which of the following is considered to be defensive control
| operations?
Firefighters in the warm zone performing diking and damming
| operations
208
Prior to beginning offensive operations in the hot zone, adequate resources must
be:
On scene
209
DOT hazard Class 4 includes:
Flammable solids
210
Which of the following instruments should you use in a flammable
atmosphere?
Instruments that marked “UL or “FM” approved an intrinsically safe
211
If you are exposed to a product while on duty, OSHA regulations require that your medical
records be maintained for:
30 years post-employment
212
Alpha and beta survey meters usually display readings in:
Counts per minute
213
A floating roof tank is an example of a which of the following:
Atmospheric tank
214
Ignition temperature refers to:
The temperature at which materials burn without flame.
215
Of the following ICS positions, which must be established at all hazardous materials
incidents:
Incident Commander
216
A storage tank with a relief valve is an example of a(n):
Pressure vessel or cylinder
217
The entry route of chemical exposure for fire fighters is:
Inhalation
218
Leaking propane or LPG tanks that are not on fire are hazardous situations because
propane vapor:
May cause frostbite with direct skin contact
219
Air has Molecular weight of:
18
220
The warfare agent SARIN in an example of a:
Nerve Agent
221
According to the ERG, a bulk container of liquids holds a maximum of more than
100 gallons
222
The type of weapon most commonly used by terrorists are:
Explosives
223
Most materials with a pH of 4 are:
Acidic
224
Which of the following is true concerning decontamination?
A decontamination area must be set up prior to personnel entering an area with potential for
exposure to hazardous substances.
225
Diazinon and Malathion are examples of which type of insecticide?
Organophosphates
226
Simple asphyxiates displace oxygen in the air; chemical asphyxiates:
Prevent the body from using inhaled oxygen
227
The minimum concentration that a responder or worker could escape without suffering
irreversible harm as a consequence of a 30-minute exposure should his/her respirator fail is
known as:
Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (ILDH)
228
Which of the following is not a pressure vessel?
Vertical cone roof tank
229
What type of facility is characterized by its ball-like appearance and support
legs?
Spherical tank
230
The OSHA standard that protects workers in hazardous waste operations and emergency
response is _______________?
29 CFR
231
Of the following which statement is true concerning routes to exposure to chemicals?
The underarm, genital, and jaw area allow greater absorption than do other parts of
the body
232
The area which serves as the staging are for the backup team which is also beyond the
range of potential contamination is the:
Cold zone
233
A chemical explosive limits depends on its:
Concentration by volume
234
Although specific gravity has no unit of measure, it does have value relative
to:
The weight equal to water
235
Which of the following statements is true regarding the hazard identification phase of pre
incident planning:
Transportation routes, as well as fixed sites should be identified
236
OSHA’s hazard communication standard is a(n):
Employees’ right to know law, to understand chemicals they may be exposed to.
237
DOT Hazard class 1 includes:
Explosives
238
The minimal process of considering all available factors that will immediately affect the
incident and the course of operation in known as:
Hazard assessment
239
If the specific gravity of a known substance is released into a pond is 1.3, the product
will:
Sink in water
240
UN identification numbers indicate that a chemical may be shipped:
Internationally
