HAZMAT Prep 11 -1 Flashcards
The piping for the _______ is contained outside of the tank, usually on the ends, with a manhole on top of the tank.
A - IM 101
B - IM 102
C - IM 105
D - IM 107
B - IM 102
The statement, “Keep away from waterways,” is found on a pesticide label. This statement is referred to as a/an:
A - signal word
B - hazard statement
C - pest control product warning
D - incompatibility statement
B - hazard statement
The vehicle pictured below is an:
A - MC 331
B - MC 338
C - MC 312/DOT 412
D - MC 306/DOT 406
C - MC 312/DOT 412
A recon team is sent to observe a tank truck that has rolled over. The team reports that the vehicle is an MC 312. The container most probably contains a:
A - flammable liquid
B - corrosive liquid
C - poison gas
D - flammable solid
B - corrosive liquid
In response to an incident involving a jackiknifed tractor trailer, you arrive and size up the situation. From your position, you only have a side view of the tractor trailer. You know it is an:
A - MC 331
B - MC 338
C - MC 312 / DOT 412
D - MC 306 / DOT 406
A - MC 331
An MC 307 / DOT 407 low-pressure chemical carrier is designed to carry chemicals with pressures not to exceed _______ psi.
A - 3.0
B - 75.0
C - 40.0
D - 30.0
C - 40.0
An uninsulated, single-shell vessel (illustrated below), which carries gases that have been liquefied, is an:
A - MC 306 / DOT 406
B - MC 307 / DOT 407
C - MC 312 / DOT 412
D - MC 331
D - MC 331
The V-shaped carrier below depicts a _______ carrier.
A - low pressure
B - high pressure
C - dry bulk
D - cryogenic
C - dry bulk
A carboy may be used for transporting materials containing:
A - radioactive substances
B - corrosives
C - explosives
D - poison gases
B - corrosives
The proper cargo tank truck to carry a shipment of sulfuric acid is an:
A - MC 306 / DOT 406
B - MC 307 DOT 307
C - MC 312 / DOT 412
D - MC 331
C - MC 312 / DOT 412
A cryogenic liquid tank car will have:
A - a single uninsultaed shell
B - an enclosed dome
C - a double shell with insulation
D - fittings and valves visible on top of the tank car
C - a double shell with insulation
Which of the following is not mandatory information found on a pesticide label?
A - EPA registration number
B - Signal word
C - NFPA 704 data
D - Active ingredients
C - NFPA 704 data
When implementing tactical activities during a bomb event, responders should:
A - stage in the line-of-site path of the suspected device
B - use only one radio when in close proximity to the device
C - be alert for secondary devices
D - move the device away from primary exposures
C - be alert for secondary devices
The rail car pictured below is what type of tank car?
A - Nonpressurized tank care with expansion dome
B - Cryogenic tank car
C - Pressurized tank car
D - Spec 51 intermodal car
C - Pressurized tank car
While surveying a HMs incident scene, you notice yellowish vapors emitting from a cylinder. The driver of the vihicle carrying the cylinders tells you they contain chlorine. As a responder trained to the operations level one of the ways to verify chlorine could emit these vapors is to:
A - contact CHEMTREC
B - enter the hot zone to read the label on the cylinder.
C - bring a chlorine monitor into the vapor cloud to check the reading.
D - Both A and C are correct
A - contact CHEMTREC
The intermodal tank that is designed for working pressures of 100 to 500 psi and usually transports liquefied gases under pressure is known as an:
A - IMO TYPE 1
B - IMO TYPE 2
C - IMO TYPE 5
D - IMO TYPE 7
C - IMO TYPE 5
- There are many types of intermodal containers, or freight containers that can be used interchangeably on multiple modes of transportation (highway, rail, ship)
- Cyrogenic liquids cannot be shipped in intermodal containers because they are considered to be too unstable for this type of shipment.
- Radioactive material containers are shipped in either Type A or Type B containers.
A - All three statements are correct
B - only statements 2 and 3 are correct
C - Only statements 1 and 3 are correct
D - Only statement 2 is correct
C - Only statements 1 and 3 are correct
The design pressure of an IM 101 portable tank is:
A - 14.5 to 25.4 psi
B - 100 to 500 psi
C - 25.4 to 100 psi
D - 6.89 to 14.5 psi
C - 25.4 to 100 psi
An intermodal container that is capable of building high pressure gases 3000 psi or higher is a:
A - cryogenic intermodal tank
B - tube module intermodal container
C - pressurized intermodal tank
D - nonpressurized intermodal tank
B - tube module intermodal container
Cylindrical packaging mae of metal, plastic, or fiberboard used to transport solids or liquids best describes:
A - carboys
B - drums
C - pressurized cylinders
D - bins
B - drums
In the UN/DOT marking system, hazard Class 3 includes:
A - black powder
B - gasonline
C - ammonium nitrate
D - magnesium
B - gasonline
Within the UN/DOT system, a container labled with a hazard classifiation of 4 containes a/an:
A - explosive
B - flammable gas
C - flammable solid
D - flammable liquid
C - flammable solid
At an emergency incident, the fire fighter may obtain appropriate MSDS information from:
A - CAMEO
B - the National Response Center
C - OSHA
D - CHEMTREC
D - CHEMTREC
A liquis ability to mix with water best defines:
A - solubility
B - surface tension
C - water reactivity
D - instability
A - solubility
A reaction that is associated with over-pressurization of closed containers and occurs at a rate of one second or less is called a:
A - rapid relief
B - violent rapture
C - detonation
D - spill
B - violent rapture
______ interfere with oxygen exchange during normal respiration.
A - Anesthetics
B - Carcinogens
C - Irritants
D - Ashphyxiants
D - Ashphyxiants
_______ is the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixure with air:
A - Ignition temperature
B - Autoignition temperature
C - Flash point
D - Reactivity point
C - Flash point
Determining whether a vapor will rise or fall is commonly referred to as:
A - vpor dispersion
B - vapor density
C - vaporization
D - specific gravity
B - vapor density
Chemicals that are classified as _______ can cause a severe allergic reaciton.
A - asphyxiants
B - sensitizers
C - irritants
D - convulsants
B - sensitizers
What would be the likely result of allowing a contaminated individual to leave the hot zone without being decontaminated?
A - Nothing, all contaminates would likely be gone after the individual exited the hot zone.
B - The contaminants would likely be transferred to other personnel or equipment, resulting in secondary contamination.
C - The individual would be treated for exposure but is no risk to others.
D - There would be direct contamination of the warm zone.
B - The contaminants would likely be transferred to other personnel or equipment, resulting in secondary contamination.
Blood agents, such as Arsine, would fall under which UN/DOT hazard Class and division
A - 1.1
B - 1.2
C - 6.1
D - 2.3
D - 2.3
Vesicants/blister agents, such as nitrogen mustard, would fall under which UN/DOT hazard Class and division?
A - 6.1
B - 6.2
C - 4.1
D - 4.2
A - 6.1
The minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture, with air near the surface, is called the _______ point.
A - combustion
B - Ignition
C - flash
D - fire
C - flash
Which DOT hazard class covers nerve agents used in chemical warfare?
A - DOT 6.3
B - DOT 6.1
C - DOT 6.2
D - DOT 5.2
B - DOT 6.1
Most riot control agents are considered to be in DOT hazard class:
A - 6.2
B - 6.1
C - 6.3
D - 5.2
B - 6.1
Pepper spray is considered an irritant. Which of the following is not a symptom of irritant exposure?
A - Excessive tearing
B - Difficulty swallowing
C - Chest tightness
D - Fluid in lungs
D - Fluid in lungs
The concentration that should never be exceeded is called:
A - TLV-C
B - PEL
C - TLV-TWA
D - STEL
A - TLV-C
The measurement commonly used by OSHA in evaluating workplace exposure during an 8 - hour period is:
A - PEL
B - LC
C - TLV-C
D - STEL
A - PEL
Which of the following resources are available for determining the concentrations of a released HM in an endangered area?
A - Concentrations can be estimated using the ERG
B - Monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that HMs technicians are needed to operate this equipment.
C - It is impossible to determine concentrations of HMs
D - Concentrations can be estimated by the odor of the leaking product.
B - Monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that HMs technicians are needed to operate this equipment.
Read the following statements regarding remote shutoffs, then select your answer from A - D below
- Remote shutoffs are usually well marked and in an easy-to-find location.
- Remote shutoffs in fixed facilities are typically located near the entrance.
- On vehicles, the two most common locations for remote shutoffs are at the valve controls and behind the driver’s door.
A - Only statement 1 is correct
B - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct
C - Only statements 2 and 3 are correct
D - All three statements are correct
D - All three statements are correct
Which of the following is not an appropriate procedure or consideration before applying foam?
A - Ensure the material is contained
B - The use of foam is limited to combustible liquids.
C - Ensure that foam will not cause any further problems.
D - Ensure that the foam is compatible with the spilled material.
B - The use of foam is limited to combustible liquids.
Defensive control techniques that operations level personnel are permitted to engage in are
A - monitoring and capping
B - Diking, damming, diversion, ad retention
C - overpacking and diluting
D - clamping and neutralizing
B - Diking, damming, diversion, ad retention
A process by which a hazardous-liquid flow is redirected away from an area is called:
A - absorption
B - dispersion
C - diversion
D - retention
C - diversion
Read the following statements regarding vapor dispersion, then select your answer from below.
- Vapor dispersion involves using water spray or fans to intnetionally move vapors away from certain areas.
- Vapor dispersion is always a good idea when flammable substances are the problem.
- Vapor dispersion is only effective with materials that are water soluble.
A - All three sttements are correct
B - Only statement 1 is correct
C - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct
D - Only statements 2 and 3 are correct
B - Only statement 1 is correct
Diversion, diking, and retention are all techniques used in:
A - confinement
B - containment
C - neutralization
D - disposal
A - confinement
Actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area, performed remotely are considered to be:
A - offensive strategies
B - poor strategies
C - defensive strategies
D - unacceptable actions
C - defensive strategies
The zone where contamination has occurred or has the potential to occur,which requires established entry and exit control points, is known as the _______ zone.
A - warm / contamination reduction
B - safety
C - hot / exclusion
D - Cold / Support
C - hot / exclusion
Read the following statements regarding HMs incident control zones, then select your anwer from below
- The hot zone is the area immediately around the release.
- The warm zone includes the decontamination area
- The command post is located in teh warm zone.
A - All three statements are correct
B - Only statement 1 is correct
C - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct
D - Only statements 2 and 3 are correct
C - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct
In level 1 incidents, the resonse team should be able to deal with:
A - LPG leaking from full 1000 pound tanks
B - ruptures of hig-pressure gas lines
C - spills requiring evacuation
D - a natrual gas leak in an ocupancy
D - a natrual gas leak in an ocupancy
The safety officer notices a critical emergency conition at an incident. The safety officer should.
A - Intervene in the unsafe action
B - discipline the offenders
C - take over the incident commaner’s position
D - consult with on-scene personnel
A - Intervene in the unsafe action
Which of the following tasks at a HMs incident is/are provided by logistics?
A - Providing information to the media
B - Coordinating interaction between law enforcement personnel and emergency response operations.
C - Monitoring the incident and personnel, while assuring compliance with safety procedures.
D - Securing facilities, services, and equipment.
D - Securing facilities, services, and equipment.
The person who advises the incident commander of existing or potentially unsafe conditions, monitoring conditions of personnel, and compliance with standard operating procedures is the:
A - operations officer
B - Safety officer
C - recon officer
D - team leader
B - Safety officer
At the HMs emergency, the Operations section is resonsible for:
A - establishing incident objectives
B - controlling and overseeing equipment and personnel inventories.
C - controlling the tactical portion of the incident
D - cooridnating all medical and health concerns at the incident
C - controlling the tactical portion of the incident
“The individual responsible for establishing and managing the overall plan, developing an organizational structure, and allocating resources,” best describes the:
A - safety officer
B - Incident commander
C - Operations Section Chief
D - decontamination officer
B - Incident commander
The first step and most important thing to accomplish upon arrival at a HMs or sustpected HMs incident is:
A - identification of the spilled or released product.
B - victim recovery
C - notification of the hms resonse team
D - isolation of the area and prevention of entry.
D - isolation of the area and prevention of entry.
When resonding to a potential HM incident, the safest way to approach the scene is to:
A - take the most direct route
B- approach from downwind as this will allow you to detect any odors from a greater distance.
C - approach from uphilland upwind, even if it requires a longer response time.
D - stage the vehicles downhill and upwind until the HM team arrives.
C - approach from uphilland upwind, even if it requires a longer response time.
At a HMs incident which function area is responsible for adding a special techincal group to the basic incident command system (ICS).
A - Planning
B - Loistics
C - Command
D - Operations
D - Operations
“Work uniforms that provide minimal protection,” best defines EPA Level _______ protection.
A - A
B - B
C - C
D - D
D - D
The type of brathing system that cannot be utilized in an oxygeen-deficient atmosphere is a / an:
A - supplied air respirator
B - rebreather equipment
C - air-purification respirator
D - SCBA
C - air-purification respirator
Dizziness, headache,, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and decreased urine output are all signs of:
A - heat stroke
B - heat cramps
C - heat exhaustion
D - Both B and C are correct
C - heat exhaustion
Read the following regarding excessiveheat dissorders, then select your answer.
- Heat exhaustion occurs because the body is unable to dissipate excessive heat and becomes overheated.
- Heat stroke results from the failure of the temperature - regulating capacity of the body
- both heat exhaustion and heat stroke are immediate life-threatening conditions
A - All three statements are correct
B - Only statement 1 is correct
C - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct
D - Only statements 2 and 3 are correct
C - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct
The following limitations are indicative of what type of chemical vapor suit?
- SCBA is exposed to the atmosphere without protection
- Face-piece compatability may not be equivalent to suit compatibility
- The chemical compatibilitiy of betls, straps, and harnesses may not be know.
A - Level A
B - Level B
C - Level C
D - Level D
B - Level B
The most critical parameter when selecting the appropriate level of chemical-protective equipment is:
A - flexibility
B - decontamination abilities
C - available sizes
D - chemical compatibilitiy
D - chemical compatibilitiy
” The process by which a chemical enters a protective suit through openings in the garment,” best describes.
A - degradation
B - breathrough time
C - penetration
D - permeation
C - penetration
The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical - protective clothing by a chemical action is called.
A - degreadation
B - Breathrough time
C - penetration
D - permeation
A - degreadation
“The highest level of respiratory protection is neededbut lesser chemical protection is required for the skin” best describes EPA level _______ protection.
A - A
B - B
C - C
D - D
B - B
“The chmical action involving hte movement of chemicals, on a molecular level, through intact materials,” best defines:
A - degradation
B - breakthrough time
C - penetration
D - permeation
D - permeation
_______ is the flow of HM through zippers, pinholes, or other material imperfections found in chemical-protective clothing.
A - Degreadation
B - Penetration
C - Permeation
D - Diffusion
B - Penetration
“The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical-protective clothing material due to exposure to chemicals, general use, or ambient conditions,” defines:
A - degradation
B - penetration
C - permeation
D - diffusion
A - degradation
The type of breathing system that cannot be utilized in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere is:
A - a supplied-air respiratot
B - rebreather equipment
C - an air purification repirator
D - SCBA
C - an air purification repirator
Self-contained breathing apparatus and supplied-air respirators are two types of:
A - rebreather equipment
B - air-purification devices
C - air-filtration devices
D - atmosphere supplied devices
D - atmosphere supplied devices
The highest level of protection from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is:
A - LEVEL A
B - LEVEL B
C - LEVEL C
D - LEVEL D
A - LEVEL A
When using air-purifying respirators, which of the following is not an operational component that should be considered prior to use?
A - The supplied air line cannot exceed 300 feet.
B - The appropriate cartridge / filter is selected prior to use
C - The concentration of the chemical is known
D - Ambient air must contain at least 19.5% of oxygen
A - The supplied air line cannot exceed 300 feet.
Which of the following is not an operational consideration when using supplied-air respirators?
A - NIOSH certification limits the maximum hose length from the source to 300 feet
B - Use of airlines in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere requires a secondary emergency air supply.
C - The proper air filtering cartridge for the expected contaminants must be selected.
D - The air line hose is vulnerable to physical damage, chemical contamination, and degradation.
C - The proper air filtering cartridge for the expected contaminants must be selected.
An advantage of using a Level A with supplied-air respirators (type 3) chemical bapor suit is:
A - greater comfort and mobility because of the close-fitting cut.
B - a turnout coator limited use garment can be worn over the suit for additional protection.
C - Air cylinders can be removed or changed withoutopening the suit.
D - That it permits extended operations
D - That it permits extended operations
