Harmon Hints for the Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 goals of General Anesthesia?

A
  • analgesia
  • amnesia
  • immobility
  • unconsciousness
  • attenuation of autonomic reflexes to pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two main types of amnesia?

A

retrograde and anterograde.

(retrograde - previously formed memories are lost

anterograde - inability to form new memories)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Mallampati class if the hard palate is not visible?

A

Mallampati IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the Mallampati class if only the hard and soft palates are visible?

A

Mallampati III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the Mallampati class if you can see the hard palate, the soft palate, the uvula, and the tonsilar pillars?

A

Mallampati I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Mallampati class if you can see the hard palate, the soft palate, and part of the uvula?

A

Mallampati II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At what spinal process does the adult spinal cord terminate?

A

L1-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can provide the best sensitivity and specificity for a patient in regards to their diagnoses?

A

patient history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define sensitivity.

A

the proportion of actual positives which are correctly identified as such (e.g. the percentage of sick people who are correctly identified as having the condition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define specificity.

A

the proportion of negatives which are correctly identified (e.g. the percentage of healthy people who are correctly identified as not having the condition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Would a patient who previously had endocarditis, but who does not have valve dysfunction, require prophylactic antibiotics?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How much air is needed to inflate a size 4 LMA?

A

30mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the definitive way to guarantee placement of a double ETT?

A

fiberoptic scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

One way to assess a decreased volume status.

A

urine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the number of mL/kg used to calculate the estimated blood volume of an adult female?

A

65 mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the number of mL/kg used to calculate the estimated blood volume of an adult male?

A

70 mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the number of mL/kg used to calculate the estimated blood volume of an infant?

A

80 mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the number of mL/kg used to calculate the estimated blood volume of a full-term neonate?

A

80-90 mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the number of mL/kg used to calculate the estimated blood volume of a premature neonate?

A

100-120 mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does the 4-2-1 rule work for maintenance fluid calculation?

A

4 mL for each of the first 10kg
2 mL for each of the next 10kg
1 mL for each of the rest.

(or for adults > 30kg, just add 40 to their weight, and there is the maintenance.

80kg = 120mL/hr maintenance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do you do if you are unable to ventilate and unable to intubate a patient?

A

create a surgical airway.

especially after 3 intubation attempts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most nerve injuries are due to these two things.

A

pressure ischemia and overstretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which patient position is the worst for V/Q mismatching?

A

lateral decubitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What potassium level would require rapid treatment?

A

> 5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Would ascites be considered an insensible loss?
No.
26
A basal skull fracture is contraindicated in what type of intubation?
nasal intubation
27
Which nerve is responsible for sensation above the vocal cords?
internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
28
Which nerve is responsible for the motor function of the cricothyroid muscle?
external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
29
Which nerve is responsible for sensation below the vocal cords and motor function of everything but the cricothyroid muscle?
recurrent laryngeal nerve
30
When replacing an NPO deficit, how much fluid is given during each of the first three hours?
1/2 of the total deficit during the 1st hour, 1/4 of the total deficit during the 2nd hour, 1/4 of the total deficit during the 3rd hour.
31
How many mL/kg of fluid is required to replace insensible losses for minimal trauma?
4 mL/kg
32
How many mL/kg of fluid is required to replace insensible losses for moderate trauma?
6 mL/kg
33
How many mL/kg of fluid is required to replace insensible losses for extensive trauma?
8 mL/kg
34
What is the ratio of how much crystalloid fluid you would give for each mL of blood lost?
3:1 (3mL crystalloid for each mL of blood lost)
35
What is the ratio of how much colloid fluid you would give for each mL of blood lost?
1:1 (1mL colloid for each mL of blood lost)
36
What is the calculation for allowable blood loss (ABL)?
EBV x (starting Hct - target Hct) ABL = ------------------------------------ starting Hct (ABL = (70mL/kg x 70kg) x (45% - 30%) / 45% = (4900 x 15) / 45 = 1633mL
37
A 10mL/kg transfusion of PRBCs will increase Hgb by ____ and the Hct by ____.
Hgb by 3g/dL Hct by 10%
38
Which nerve is most commonly injured due to positioning errors?
ulnar nerve
39
Which nerve is most commonly injured while patients are in the supine position?
ulnar nerve
40
Which two nerves are most commonly injured while patients are in the lithotomy position?
sciatic nerve and common peroneal nerve
41
What causes the majority of postop vision loss following prone spinal procedures?
ischemic optic neuropathy
42
At what platelet count would you usually consider giving a platelet transfusion?
< 50,000
43
One unit of platelets will increase the platelet count by how much?
5,000 - 10,000
44
At what platelet count does spontaneous bleeding usually occur?
~20,000
45
Platelets can be given specifically to treat what?
thrombocytopenia
46
Fresh frozen plasma contains all coagulation factors, except what?
platelets
47
How high would the PT/PTT need to be in order to require fresh frozen plasma?
> 1.5 times normal
48
Fresh frozen plasma can be used as the urgent reversal of what medication?
coumadin
49
Cryoprecipitate is used to treat what disease?
hemophilia A
50
Cryoprecipitate contains more _______ than fresh frozen plasma.
fibrinogen
51
One unit of whole blood will increase your hematocrit by how much?
3-4%
52
One unit of PRBC will increase your hematocrit by how much?
2-3%
53
What is the shortcut ratio for normal hemoglobin and hematocrit?
1:3 (Hgb:Hct) or Hgb x 3 = Hct (+/-3)
54
What is the hematocrit of one unit of PRBC?
~70%
55
What are the 3 ways to lose red blood cells?
decreased production increased destruction bleeding
56
What is the normal range for white blood cells?
4,000 - 7,000
57
Most common type of anemia found in the hospital?
iatrogenic anemia
58
Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions can occur up to ____ days after a transfusion.
14
59
Based on what we were told in class, what is probably the first sign/symptom of a hemolytic reaction?
free hemoglobin in blood and urine
60
Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI) mimics what respiratory condition?
ARDS
61
Bilateral pulmonary edema seen with transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI) can occur within how many hours of transfusion?
4 hours
62
If the PTT is elevated and the PT is normal, would this be an intrinsic, extrinsic, or overall clotting problem?
intrinsic clotting problem
63
If the PTT is normal and the PT is elevated, would this be an intrinsic, extrinsic, or overall clotting problem?
extrinsic clotting problem
64
If the PTT is elevated and the PT is elevated, would this be an intrinsic, extrinsic, or overall clotting problem?
overall clotting problem
65
Where is Factor VIII produced?
in the endothelium
66
Venous air embolisms are a concern when the patient is in what position for surgery?
sitting position | per Dr. Hogan, you can hear venous air emboli with the precordial stethoscope
67
Name the 3 single and 3 paired cartilages that make up the larynx.
Singles: Paired: cricoid arytenoids thyroid corniculates epiglottis cuneiforms
68
What Cormack and Lehane grade would be given if most of the glottis is visible?
Grade 1
69
What Cormack and Lehane grade would be given if only the posterior portion of the glottis is visible?
Grade 2
70
What Cormack and Lehane grade would be given if the epiglottis, but no part of the glottis, can be seen?
Grade 3
71
What Cormack and Lehane grade would be given if no airway structures can be visualized?
Grade 4
72
Bilateral injury of the superior laryngeal nerve causes what?
hoarseness, tiring of voice
73
Unilateral injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve causes what?
hoarseness
74
Acute, bilateral injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve causes what?
stridor, respiratory distress
75
Chronic, bilateral injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve causes what?
aphonia
76
ASA classification of a healthy person that is a smoker? (per Ms. Harmon)
ASA II
77
ASA classification of someone with OSA? (per Ms. Harmon)
ASA III
78
ASA classification of someone who had an MI in the past? (per Ms. Harmon)
ASA III