Hardware 25% Flashcards
A technician is designing a new laptop for a local construction company. Company employees will move the laptop around frequently and are likely to drop the laptop while working. Which of the following drives should the technician install to mitigate for potential damage?
A. S.M.A.R.T
B. SCSI
C. RAID
D. Solid-state
D. Solid-state drive (SSD)
Explanation: Solid-state drives (SSDs) are more durable than traditional hard disk drives (HDDs) because they have no moving parts. In contrast, HDDs use spinning disks and moving read/write heads, which can be damaged by physical shocks or movement, like drops. Since laptops are often carried around, SSDs are a better choice because they’re less likely to suffer mechanical failure.
Incorrect choices:
A. S.M.A.R.T: While S.M.A.R.T can warn about potential drive failure, it doesn’t prevent damage from physical impacts.
B. SCSI: SCSI is an interface for connecting storage devices but doesn’t improve a drive’s resistance to physical damage.
C. RAID: RAID provides data redundancy and performance benefits but doesn’t make individual drives more resistant to drops or damage.
An administrator needs to configure RAID for a video-rendering workstation at minimal cost. The solution should have high read/write performance and maximum drive storage utilization. Redundancy is not a concern. Which of the following RAID configurations should the administrator use?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 10
A. RAID 0
Explanation: RAID 0, or striping, distributes data across multiple drives without redundancy, resulting in high read/write performance and maximum storage utilization. However, it lacks fault tolerance, meaning if one drive fails, all data is lost.
Incorrect choices:
B. RAID 1: This configuration mirrors data across two drives, providing redundancy but reducing storage capacity to half. It does not maximize drive utilization.
C. RAID 5: RAID 5 stripes data with parity for redundancy and requires at least three drives. While it offers performance and fault tolerance, it has storage overhead due to parity, making it less efficient when redundancy isn’t needed.
D. RAID 10: Combining striping and mirroring, RAID 10 provides both performance and redundancy but requires at least four drives. This setup is more expensive and less storage-efficient than RAID 0, making it unnecessary if redundancy is not a concern.
A user is unable to plug a USB 3.0 device into a USB port. Upon inspection, a technician notices the USB 3.0 port appears to be shallower than the other USB ports, preventing a solid connection. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. A foreign object is stuck inside the port.
B. The cable connection utilized the wrong orientation.
C. The USB cable is physically damaged.
D. The USB port belongs to a different form factor.
D. The USB port belongs to a different form factor.
Explanation: USB 3.0 ports have extra contacts compared to USB 2.0 ports, enabling higher data transfer rates, and they are generally backward compatible. If a USB 3.0 port seems shallower, it might indicate that it is a different form factor, like USB Type-C, which is smaller and more compact than the standard USB Type-A ports.
Incorrect choices:
A. A foreign object is stuck inside the port: While this could obstruct the connection, a shallower appearance suggests a form factor issue rather than an obstruction.
B. The cable connection utilized the wrong orientation: USB cables can only fit in one orientation, so if the port looks shallower, incorrect insertion is unlikely.
C. The USB cable is physically damaged: While damage could cause connection problems, a shallower port would likely point to a design difference rather than cable damage, which would affect the connection regardless of the port’s depth.
Which of the following is the best environment for an engineer to use for research purposes?
A. Host
B. Sandbox
C. Simulated production
D. Cross-platform
B. Sandbox
Explanation: A “sandbox” environment is a controlled and isolated space where engineers can safely experiment and test without impacting production systems. It enables exploration of new technologies and configurations while ensuring that changes are evaluated before deployment in a live environment.
Incorrect choices:
A. Host: “Host” refers to the main operating system or hardware platform for running applications. Testing directly on the host can risk stability and affect other applications, making it less suitable for safe experimentation.
C. Simulated production: This environment mimics production systems but lacks the isolation and control of a sandbox. Misconfiguration can still impact real systems, making it less safe for experimentation.
D. Cross-platform: This term describes software that runs on multiple operating systems, not an isolated research environment. While important for compatibility, cross-platform testing doesn’t provide the controlled space that a sandbox offers.
Which of the following features of a laptop display influences the battery life of the laptop?
A. Brightness
B. Resolution
C. Contrast
D. Aspect ratio
A. Brightness
Explanation: Brightness directly affects a laptop display’s power consumption. Higher brightness settings consume more power, reducing battery life. Lowering brightness helps conserve battery when not plugged in.
Incorrect choices:
B. Resolution: While higher resolutions may use more processing power, they don’t directly impact battery life.
C. Contrast: This affects image quality but not significantly battery life or power consumption.
D. Aspect ratio: Refers to the display’s shape and does not influence battery life or power usage.
A client wants to connect an external keyboard to an Android tablet. Which of the following connection types are appropriate for this task? (Choose two.)
A. DVI
B. Infrared
C. Lightning
D. USB-C
E. PS/2
F. Bluetooth
D. USB-C
F. Bluetooth
Correct Answers:
D. USB-C: Many modern Android tablets include USB-C ports, which support connecting peripherals like external keyboards directly.
F. Bluetooth: Bluetooth is a common wireless technology for connecting external keyboards to Android tablets, allowing for convenient, cable-free use.
Incorrect Options:
A. DVI: Used for video, not keyboard connections.
B. Infrared: Rarely used for keyboards, typically for short-range remote controls.
C. Lightning: Proprietary to Apple devices, incompatible with Android tablets.
E. PS/2: An outdated connector for keyboards/mice on desktops, not found on Android tablets.
A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and will be installing the hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables to connect it.
Which of the following will the technician be installing?
A. Thunderbolt
B. eSATA
C. M.2
D. SCSI
c. M.2
Correct Answer:
M.2: This is a form factor for solid-state drives (SSDs) that connects directly to the motherboard via M.2 slots, allowing for compact and high-speed storage without the need for cables.
Incorrect Options:
A. Thunderbolt: A high-speed interface for connecting external peripherals, requiring cables and not installed directly on the motherboard.
B. eSATA: An interface for connecting external storage devices that also requires cables and is not directly attached to the motherboard.
D. SCSI (Small Computer System Interface): An older standard for connecting peripherals using cables, not directly installed onto the motherboard.
A desktop support technician is building a new desktop that features the fastest internal storage. Which of the following BEST suits this request?
SATA SSD
SATA HDD
M.2 PCIe NVMe SSD
PCIe SATA HDD
c. M.2 PCIe NVMe SSD
Correct Answer:
M.2 PCIe NVMe SSD: This SSD type offers the fastest internal storage by using the PCIe interface and NVMe protocol, providing significantly higher data transfer speeds essential for booting the OS and running demanding applications.
Incorrect Options:
A. SATA SSD: Faster than HDDs but limited by SATA’s bandwidth, making it slower than M.2 PCIe NVMe SSDs.
B. SATA HDD: Traditional HDDs are significantly slower than SSDs and unsuitable for high-speed storage.
D. PCIe SATA HDD: This configuration is incorrect as PCIe and SATA refer to different interfaces and cannot be mixed.
A technician logs on to a PC and inserts an encrypted USB drive. When opening File Explorer, the technician cannot see the USB drive. Which of the following tools should the technician use to see all drives?
A. DiskPart
B. Diskmgmt
C. Disk Cleanup
D. BitLocker
b. Diskmgmt
Disk Management (Diskmgmt): This Windows utility allows users to view, create, format, and manage disk partitions and volumes. It is useful for managing USB drives that may not automatically appear in File Explorer due to factors like encryption or partitioning.
Incorrect Options:
A. DiskPart: A command-line utility for disk management that is less user-friendly than Disk Management, especially for inexperienced users.
C. Disk Cleanup: A tool for freeing up disk space by deleting temporary files; it does not manage drives or access encrypted USB drives.
D. BitLocker: A feature for drive encryption that secures USB drives but is not used for viewing or managing them.
Which of the following should a user do FIRST when upgrading the power supply on a gaming PC?
A. Update the BIOS
B. Disconnect the system memory
C. Check the wattage rating
D. Reseat the graphics card
C. Check the wattage rating
Explanation:
When upgrading the power supply in a gaming PC, the first step is to check the wattage rating of the new power supply. Ensuring that it has sufficient wattage is critical to support all components—CPU, GPU, RAM, storage drives, and peripherals—without risking instability or damage.
Incorrect Options:
A. Update the BIOS: This is not necessary for a power supply upgrade. BIOS updates are for enhancing features or fixing bugs, not for power supply changes.
B. Disconnect the System Memory: This is unnecessary and could disrupt the system. Memory is not directly affected by power supply upgrades.
D. Reseat the Graphics Card: This step is not required unless there are specific connection issues with the graphics card. It should not be the first action taken.
A technician is building a new computer for a customer. The computer must use an ITX-sized motherboard and have a RAID 5 array with all drives using the same interface.
Which of the following drive types will the technician MOST likely utilize?
A. SCSI
B. PCIe
C. NVMe
D. SATA
D. SATA
Explanation: SATA (Serial ATA) is the most common interface for hard drives and solid-state drives (SSDs) used in consumer-grade computers. It is widely supported by ITX-sized motherboards and is suitable for building RAID arrays. RAID 5 arrays can be easily configured using SATA drives, and they offer a good balance of performance, reliability, and cost-effectiveness for most consumer and small business applications.
Incorrect Answer:
A. SCSI: Less common, may not be supported by ITX motherboards.
B. PCIe: Used for expansion cards, less common for RAID arrays.
C. NVMe: High-speed protocol for SSDs, less common in consumer ITX builds.
A storage server with three drives was reporting errors indicating the array was in degraded mode, but the stored files were still accessible. A technician went to the server room to troubleshoot the error message.
Which of the following RAID configurations did the technician MOST likely find?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
C. RAID 5
Explanation: RAID 5 provides fault tolerance by distributing parity information across all drives in the array. This allows the array to continue operating even if one drive fails, ensuring that data remains accessible. When a drive fails in a RAID 5 array, the array goes into a degraded mode, meaning it is still functional but at a reduced level of fault tolerance until the failed drive is replaced.
Incorrect Answers:
A. RAID 0: No fault tolerance, all data lost with one drive failure.
B. RAID 1: Mirrors data, less likely to report degraded mode.
D. RAID 10: Combines mirroring and striping, less likely to report degraded mode.
A technician is configuring a desktop computer and the hard drive must be encrypted.
Which of the following will the technician need to verify is enabled to complete this configuration?
A. ATX
B. NIC
C. TPM
D. ARM
C. TPM (Trusted Platform Module)
Explanation: TPM is a hardware-based security feature that provides a secure storage area for cryptographic keys, as well as secure cryptographic functions. It is commonly used for encryption purposes, such as encrypting the hard drive to ensure data security. Enabling TPM ensures that the necessary security features are available for encrypting the hard drive.
A. ATX: Motherboard form factor, not related to encryption.
B. NIC: Network interface card, not related to encryption.
D. ARM: Processor architecture, not related to encryption.
A user is installing a new display on a desktop computer that only has a single DVI port for video input and a single HDMI port for video output.
Which of the following does the technician need to complete the setup?
A. Digital-to-analog converter
B. A/V switcher
C. DisplayPort to HDMI adapter
D. DVI to HDMI cable
E. Correct Answer:
D. DVI to HDMI cable
Explanation: Since the desktop computer has a single DVI port for video input and a single HDMI port for video output, a DVI to HDMI cable is required to connect the new display to the computer. This cable will convert the DVI output from the computer to HDMI input for the display, allowing video transmission.
Incorrect choices:
A. Digital-to-analog converter: A digital-to-analog converter would be necessary if the display or the computer had analog video connections, but in this case, both the DVI and HDMI ports are digital, so it is not needed.
B. A/V switcher: An A/V switcher is used to switch between multiple audio/video sources, which is not required for connecting a single display to a computer.
C. DisplayPort to HDMI adapter: Since the computer does not have a DisplayPort output, a DisplayPort to HDMI adapter would not be applicable in this scenario.
A technician is building a video production workstation that will consist of two high-end GPUs. The technician is reusing an existing ATX case. Which of the following should the technician select as the MOST appropriate power supply type?
A. 400W external power supply
B. 2x 600W redundant power supplies
C. 1,200W modular power supply
D. 1,500W uninterruptible power supply
C. 1,200W modular power supply
Adequate power capacity and modular design for cable management.
Incorrect answers:
A. 400W external power supply: Not sufficient for high-end GPUs.
B. 2x 600W redundant power supplies: Overkill and may not fit in an ATX case.
D. 1,500W uninterruptible power supply: Overkill and typically used with a primary power supply, not as the primary power source.
Which of the following video cables can carry an audio signal?
A. HDMI
B. S-Video
C. VGA
D. DVI
A. HDMI: Carries both video and audio signals.
Incorrect Answers:
B. S-Video: Transmits only video signals, no audio.
C. VGA: Transmits only video signals, no audio.
D. DVI: Transmits only video signals, no audio.
A technician is installing new power supplies for the application engineering team’s workstations. The management team has not yet made a decision about installing dual graphics cards, but they want to proceed with the project anyway.
Which of the following power supplies would provide the BEST solution?
A. 1000W 24-pin modular power supply
B. 220VAC 9000J surge protector
C. 500W redundant power supply
D. 2000VA uninterruptible power supply
A. 1000W 24-pin modular power supply
A 1000W power supply can support high-performance components, such as dual graphics cards, and a modular design allows for better cable management and airflow.
Incorrect choices:
B. 220VAC 9000J surge protector: This protects against voltage spikes but isn’t a power supply and doesn’t provide the capacity needed for dual graphics cards.
C. 500W redundant power supply: While it offers backup power, 500W is insufficient for dual graphics cards and other high-demand components.
D. 2000VA uninterruptible power supply (UPS): A UPS provides backup power but isn’t a primary power supply and may not support the high power needs of dual graphics cards.
A technician needs to install RAM into a rackmount server that will be used as a VM host.
Which of the following would be BEST to install?
A. SODIMM
B. VRAM
C. DDR4
D. ECC
D. ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM
Rackmount servers need ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM because they ensure data integrity and stability, which is vital for business operations. ECC RAM can detect and correct errors in data transmission or storage, making it ideal for VM hosts that run multiple virtual machines simultaneously.
Best option:
D. ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM
Incorrect choices:
SODIMM: These are used in laptops and small computers, not in rackmount servers, which use standard DIMM or RDIMM modules.
VRAM: This is dedicated memory for GPUs, not suitable for system memory in servers.
DDR4: While this is a common type of server memory, it does not guarantee ECC functionality, which is critical for server reliability and data integrity.
Which of the following cables replaced the Apple 30-pin connector and is also reversible?
A. USB-C
B. Lightning
C. miniUSB
D. DisplayPort
B. Lightning
The Lightning cable replaced the Apple 30-pin connector in 2012. It is smaller, more durable, and reversible, allowing it to be plugged in either way.
Incorrect choices:
A. USB-C:
USB-C is a universal connector that is reversible but did not replace the 30-pin connector. It is used in newer Apple devices alongside Lightning.
C. miniUSB:
MiniUSB is an older standard that is not reversible and did not replace the 30-pin connector.
D. DisplayPort:
DisplayPort is a digital display interface for connecting monitors and is not a replacement for the 30-pin connector, nor is it reversible like Lightning.
A user’s laptop is running out of disk space and requires a new hard drive. The user wants to replace the existing hard drive with the fastest possible 1TB HDD. A technician assesses the user’s hardware and determines the connections that are available.
Which of the following drive types should the technician recommend as the BEST choice?
A. 1TB NVMe SSD
B. 1TB flash drive
C. 1TB SATA SSD
D. 1TB SAS
D. 1TB SAS
The correct answer is 1TB SAS drive because SAS drives generally offer higher data transfer rates than SATA drives, making them the best choice among HDDs for speed. Since the user requests the fastest possible HDD replacement, a SAS drive fits this requirement.
Here’s why the other options are less relevant:
1TB NVMe SSD: NVMe SSDs are faster than SAS drives but are not HDDs, which the user specifically requested.
1TB flash drive: Flash drives are slower than HDDs and SSDs and are intended for portable storage, not as internal HDD replacements.
1TB SATA SSD: While fast, SATA SSDs do not match SAS drives in data transfer speed for HDD replacements, so they’re not the fastest choice here.
A drive failed on a server that was leveraging a RAID disk configuration. The server administrator would like to rebuild the array so it can withstand a potential multidrive failure in the future.
Which of the following RAID configurations will the administrator MOST likely select?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 10
D. 10 (RAID 10)
RAID 10 (RAID 1+0) combines mirroring and striping, offering both redundancy and performance. Data is mirrored across pairs of disks (RAID 1) and then striped (RAID 0), allowing the system to withstand multiple drive failures as long as they do not occur in the same mirrored pair. This configuration provides enhanced fault tolerance and performance.
Here’s why the other options are less suitable:
RAID 0: Offers striping but no redundancy; a single drive failure results in complete data loss.
RAID 1: Provides mirroring for redundancy but lacks striping, so it doesn’t improve performance and doesn’t protect against multiple drive failures.
RAID 5: Uses parity for fault tolerance but can only handle a single drive failure. A second drive failure during rebuild results in data loss, unlike RAID 10, which is more resilient.
A user is unable to plug a USB 3.0 device into a USB port. Upon inspection, a technician notices the USB 3.0 port appears to be slightly smaller than the other connections.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. A foreign object is stuck inside the port.
B. The cable connection utilized the wrong orientation.
C. The USB cable is physically damaged.
D. The USB port belongs to a different form factor.
D. The USB port belongs to a different form factor.
USB ports come in various forms, like Type-A, Type-B, micro USB, and USB-C. USB 3.0 ports typically use the Type-A form factor but have additional pins and often a blue insert. If the port appears smaller, it likely belongs to a different type, explaining why the USB 3.0 device cannot be plugged in. Thus, option D is correct.
Here’s why the other options are incorrect:
A. A foreign object is stuck inside the port: This would typically block connection, but the size issue suggests a different problem.
B. The cable connection utilized the wrong orientation: This refers to incorrect plugging in the same type, not a size difference.
C. The USB cable is physically damaged: While possible, the size discrepancy points to a different port type, making this less likely.
A desktop support technician is tasked with upgrading a laptop so that it has the fastest data access possible.
Which of the following BEST satisfies this requirement?
A. mSATA SSD
B. M.2 NVMe SSD
C. 2.5 SATA SSD
D. 2.5 SAS HHD
B. M.2 NVMe SSD
M.2 NVMe SSDs offer the fastest data access due to the NVMe protocol, which maximizes high-speed PCIe connections. This enables much faster data transfer compared to SATA-based SSDs.
Other options explained:
A. mSATA SSD: Uses the SATA interface, which is slower than PCIe-based NVMe SSDs.
C. 2.5” SATA SSD: Also uses the SATA interface, providing slower speeds than NVMe SSDs.
D. 2.5” SAS HDD: A traditional hard drive with slower data access than any SSD.
A technician needs to install a cost-effective storage device into a rackmount server that will be used as a VM host. This storage will be used for all VMs that run from the server.
Which of the following should be used?
A. Optical disk drive
B. eMMC storage device
C. 15,000rpm drive
D. RAID 10 array
C. 15,000rpm drive
A 15,000 RPM drive is a high-speed hard disk drive (HDD) ideal for enterprise environments where performance is critical for VM hosting. When cost-effectiveness is a priority and redundancy is not required, these drives can deliver strong performance.
Now, let’s briefly review why the other options are incorrect:
A. Optical disk drive: Optical drives (like CD/DVD drives) are not suitable for hosting virtual machines due to their limited capacity and performance compared to other storage options.
B. eMMC storage device: eMMC storage is typically used in mobile devices and embedded systems. While cost-effective, it does not offer the high performance needed for server environments.
D. RAID 10 array: Although RAID 10 offers both performance and redundancy, it may not be cost-effective if redundancy is unnecessary, as it requires multiple drives, increasing overall costs compared to individual high-speed drives.
