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Hardware Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following answers refer to common battery types that can be found in modern portable devices?

  • Nickel-Iron (Ni-Fe)
  • Lithium-ion (Li-ion)
  • Nickel–Metal Hydride (Ni-MH)
  • Lithium-ion Polymer (LiPo)
  • Nickel-Cadmium (Ni-Cd)
A

Lithium-ion (Li-ion)
Lithium-ion Polymer (LiPo)

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2
Q

What is the most common memory module form factor type used in laptops?

A

SODIMM

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3
Q

Which of the following hardware components would be the most difficult to replace on a laptop computer?
* Optical drive
* Primary storage
* System board
* Integrated GPU
* Secondary storage

A

Integrated GPU

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4
Q

What are the characteristic features of In-Plane Switching (IPS)? (Select 3 answers)
* High color quality
* Fast response times
* Wide viewing angles
* Low color quality
* Slow response times
* Low viewing angles

A

Slow response times
Wide viewing angles
High color quality

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5
Q

Which of the following answers describe the Twisted Nematic (TN) technology? (Select 3 answers)
* Low viewing angles
* Fast response times
* Low color quality
* High color quality
* Slow response times
* Wide viewing angles

A

Low viewing angles
Fast response times
Low color quality

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6
Q

Vertical Alignment (VA) display technology can be characterized by: (Select 3 answers)
* High contrast ratios
* Low color quality
* Good viewing angles
* Low contrast ratios
* Good color quality
* Low viewing angles

A

High contrast ratios
Good viewing angles
Good color quality

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7
Q

What are the characteristic features of an OLED display? (Select 3 answers)
* Works without backlight
* Inferior contrast ratio and color representation in comparison to LCDs
* Lower light output (brightness) in comparison to LCDs
* Display type commonly used in modern laptop devices
* Better contrast ratio and color representation in comparison to LCDs
* Requires backlight to illuminate the screen
* Lower cost in comparison to LCDs
* Higher light output (brightness) in comparison to LCDs

A
  • Works without backlight
  • Better contrast ratio and color representation in comparison to LCDs
  • Lower light output (brightness) in comparison to LCDs
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8
Q

Which of the following answers refer to the function of digitizer? (Select 3 answers)
* Translates analog data into a format suitable for computer processing
* A type of output device
* Component of a mobile device’s screen that allows to control the device with a stylus or fingertip
* An example of media converter
* A type of input device

A
  • Translates analog data into a format suitable for computer processing
  • A type of input device
  • Component of a mobile device’s screen that allows to control the device with a stylus or fingertip
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9
Q

Which of the answers listed below describe the function of a laptop’s inverter? (Select 2 answers)
* Converts AC power into DC power
* Used for supplying voltage to backlights in older types of LCD panels
* Converts DC power into AC power
* Used for supplying voltage to backlights in OLED displays

A
  • Used for supplying voltage to backlights in older types of LCD panels
  • Converts DC power into AC power
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10
Q

What are two characteristics of Li-Po and Li-Ion batteries?

A

No memory

Charging diminishes capacity over time

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11
Q

True or False

Laptop memory is always replaceable

A

False, some memory is soldered to the board

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12
Q

What is the standard form factor for SSDs and HDDs in a laptop?

A

2.5 inch

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13
Q

What is the range of NFC

A

4cm or less

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14
Q

True or False:

LCDs always require a backlight

A

True

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15
Q

What color does LCD struggle with?

A

Black as all pictures are made by shining light through the LCD, it would have trouble making a true black

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16
Q

Which are thinner?

LCD or OLED

A

OLED as there is no need for a backlight

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17
Q

What is a digitizer?

A

it enables a display to use a stylus/touch as an input

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18
Q

What is the theoretical maximum for how many connected devices you can have per USB controller?

A

127

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19
Q

Name each of these connectors

A
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20
Q

What is the nominal data rate of a USB port supporting Gen 3.2 2x1?

A

10 Gbps

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21
Q

You are configuring four 120 GB drives in a RAID 5 array. How much space will
be available?

A

360 GB

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22
Q

What is the bandwidth of a PCIe v2.0 x16 graphics adapter?

A

8 GBps in each direction (full-duplex). PCIe v2 supports 500 MBps per lane

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23
Q

Why can cache improve performance?

A

A CPU tends to repeat the same routines and access the same data over and over again. If these routines are stored in fast cache RAM, they can be accessed more quickly than
instructions and data stored in system memory.

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24
Q

A network owner has configured three web servers to host a website. What device
can be deployed to allow them to work together to service client requests more
quickly?

A

A load balancer.

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25
Q

You are setting up a Wi-Fi network. Do you need to configure the BSSID?

A

No. You need to configure the service set identifier (SSID), unless you want to rely on the default value. The SSID is a name for users to recognize the network by. The basic SSID
(BSSID) is the MAC address of the access point’s radio. As this is coded into the device firmware, it does not need to be configured. Stations use the BSSID to send frames to the
access point.

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26
Q

Accessed by only servers, a network uses Fiber Channel adapters to implement
connections. What type of network is this?

A

A storage area network (SAN).

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27
Q

What type of TXT record uses cryptography to help recipient servers reject
spoofed messages and spam?

A

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM).

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28
Q

A technician connects a single port on a graphics card to two monitors using two
cables. What type of interface is being used?

A

Both DisplayPort and Thunderbolt interfaces support this type of daisy-chaining.

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29
Q

Which types of data might require mapping between fields when syncing between
applications?

A

Contacts and calendar items.

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30
Q

Name three keys on a keyboard that are commonly used to run a PC’s BIOS/UEFI
system setup program

A

Esc, Del, F1, F2, F10, or F12.

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31
Q

True or false? A TPM provides secure removable storage so that encryption keys
can be used with different computers

A

False. A trusted platform module (TPM) provides secure storage for a single computer as it is an embedded function of the CPU or motherboard chipset. The term hardware security
module (HSM) is sometimes used to describe a secure USB thumb drive for storing encryption keys on portable media.

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32
Q

True or false? USB-C ports and connectors are compatible with Apple Lightning
connectors and ports.

A

False. An adapter cable is required.

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33
Q

True or false? Only a single network name can be configured on a single access
point.

A

False. Each band can be assigned a different service set identifier (SSID) or network name. Access points also allow the configuration of multiple SSIDs per radio, such as
configuring a secure network for known clients and an open network for guests.

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34
Q

True or false? A solid-state drive (SSD) attached to an M.2 port must be using the
non-volatile memory host controller interface specification (NVMHCI) or NVM
Express (NVMe).

A

False. M.2 is a physical form factor and can support both SATA and NVMe interfaces.

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35
Q

True or false? AAA allows switches and access points to hold directory
information so that they can authenticate clients as they connect to the network.

A

False. One of the purposes of authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) is to authenticate clients as they connect to the network, but the directory information and
credentials are not stored on or verified by switches and access points. These devices are configured as clients of an AAA server and act only to transit authentication data between
the end user device (the supplicant) and the AAA server.

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36
Q

True or false? A top-level domain such as .com represents the top of the DNS
hierarchy.

A

False. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses root servers at the top of the hierarchy. The root is represented by a trailing dot at the end of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN),
though this can very commonly be omitted in ordinary usage.

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37
Q

True or false? A SOHO router uses an embedded modem and Ethernet adapter to
forward traffic between public and private network segments over a single
hardware port.

A

False. The modem and Ethernet interfaces use separate ports.

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38
Q

True or false? At the Transport layer, connections between hosts to exchange
application data are established over a single port number.

A

False. The server application is identified by one port, but the client must also assign its own port to track the connection.

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39
Q

True or false? A long-range fixed wireless installation operating without a license
is always illegal.

A

False. These installations may use unlicensed spectrum but must not exceed the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) defined for the frequency band by regulations

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40
Q

True or false? To enable printer sharing via Windows, the print device must be
connected to the Windows PC via an Ethernet or Wi-Fi link

A

False—any print device can be shared via printer properties. The print device can be connected to the Windows print server over USB, Bluetooth, Ethernet, or Wi-Fi. Other clients
connect to the printer via the share, however, so the Windows PC must be kept on to facilitate printing.

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41
Q

What type of peripheral port would you expect to find on a current generation
smartphone?

A

For Apple devices, the Lightning port. For Android, it will be USB-C.

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42
Q

What is a Type 2 hypervisor?

A

Hypervisor software that must be installed as an application running on a host OS. A Type 1 (or bare metal) hypervisor is installed directly to the host hardware.

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43
Q

What effect does a dirty primary charge roller have on laser printing?

A

It leaves black stripes on the paper. If the roller does not apply the correct charge evenly to the drum, toner is attracted to the place where the charging failed, creating a black stripe
all the way down the page.

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44
Q

What type of standard adapter card might be used to connect internal FRU
devices to the motherboard of a laptop?

A

Mini-PCIe, mSATA, or M.2.

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45
Q

A company has discovered that an employee has been emailing product design
documents to her smartphone and then saving the files to the smartphone’s flash drive. Which technology can be deployed to prevent such policy breaches?

A

Mobile application management (MAM) allows an enterprise to create a protected container as a workspace for corporate apps and data and prevent copying to other storage areas.

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46
Q

Can 802.11ac achieve higher throughput to a single client by multiplexing the
signals from both 2.4 and 5 GHz frequency bands? Why or why not?

A

No. First, a client can only use one radio at a time and so cannot connect simultaneously to the 2.4 GHZ and 5 GHz bands. Secondly, 802.11ac works only at 5 GHz; 802.11ac
access points use the 2.4 GHz band to support 802.11b/g/n clients. The 802.11ac standard can increase bandwidth by using multiple input output (MIMO) antenna configurations to
allocate more streams, such as 2x2 or 3x3.

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47
Q

You are writing an advisory to identify training requirements for support staff and
have included OT networks as one area not currently covered. During the quality
assurance (QA) review, the QA analyst states that OT does not exist and that it is
a typo for IT. Is the QA analyst correct in their observation?

A

No. Operational technology (OT) refers to networks that connect embedded systems in industrial and process automation systems.

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48
Q

You need to provision a virtualization workstation to run four guest OSs
simultaneously. Each VM requires 2 GB system RAM. Is an 8 GB workstation
sufficient to meet this requirement?

A

No. The host OS and/or hypervisor also requires system memory. If the host also has a 2 GB requirement, you would only be able to launch three of the VMs simultaneously.

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49
Q

You are specifying a computer for use as a software development workstation.
This will be required to run multiple virtual machines (VMs). Can any x64-
compatible CPU with sufficient clock speed be used?

A

No. You must verify that the CPU model supports virtualization extensions.

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50
Q

You are planning to install a network of wireless access points with power
supplied over data cabling. Each access point requires a 20W power supply. What
version of PoE must the switch support to fulfill this requirement?

A

PoE+ (802.3at) or PoE++/4PPoE (802.3bt).

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51
Q

What is the minimum number of disks required to implement RAID 10, and how
much of the disks’ total capacity will be available for the volume?

A

RAID 10 requires at least four disks (two mirrored pairs) and comes with a 50% capacity overhead, so the volume will only be half the total disk capacity

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52
Q

If you have a computer with three hard disks, what type of RAID fault-tolerant
configuration will make best use of them

A

RAID 5 (striping with parity). RAID 0 is not fault tolerant. RAID 1 and RAID 10 require an even number of disks.

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53
Q

You are reviewing network inventory and come across an undocumented cable
reel with “CMP/MMP” marked on the jacket. What installation type is this cable
most suitable for?

A

The cable is plenum cable, rated for use in plenum spaces (building voids used with HVAC systems).

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54
Q

What feature of DHCP means that it must use UDP at the transport layer?

A

The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses broadcast addressing, which is not supported by the connection-oriented Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
Consequently, DHCP uses the connectionless User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

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55
Q

Which fiber optic connector uses a small form factor design?

A

The Lucent Connector (LC).

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56
Q

You are advising another technician about typical DNS configuration. The
technician thinks that the name server hosting the 515 support domain resource
records on the Internet should be configured as the primary DNS server entry in
the IP configuration of local clients. Why is this unlikely to be the case?

A

The role of a name server is to respond to queries for the resource records of the specific domain(s) that it is responsible for. The role of the DNS server types listed in a client’s IP
configuration is to resolve requests for records in any valid domain. To do this, the resolver must take on the task of querying multiple name servers on behalf of the client. Mixing
these roles on the same server machine is possible in theory, but for performance and security reasons, they are more commonly performed by separate servers.

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57
Q

A technician provisions a network of virtual machines running web server,
scripting environment, and database software for use by programmers working
for the sales and marketing department. What type of cloud model has been deployed?

A

This is a platform as a service (PaaS) model. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) would only provision the VMs and network without the software. It is not software as a service (SaaS)
because the web server and database are unconfigured.

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58
Q

True or false? A valid IPv6 configuration does not require a subnet mask.

A

True. In IPv6, the host ID portion of the address is always the last 64 bits. The network prefix length is used to determine which network a host is on, but a mask is not required.

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59
Q

True or false? An HTTP application secured using the SSL/TLS protocol should
use a different port to unencrypted HTTP.

A

True. By default, HTTPS uses port TCP/443. It is possible in theory to apply SSL/TLS to port TCP/80, but most browsers would not support this configuration.

60
Q

company is ordering custom-built laptops to supply to its field sales staff for use predominantly as presentation devices. The company can specify the type of panel used and has ruled out IPS and OLED on cost grounds. Which of the remaining mainstream display technologies is best suited to the requirement

A

Vertical alignment (VA) displays support good viewing angles and high-contrast ratios, which makes them well-suited to displaying slides to an audience. The twisted nematic (TN)
type is cheap but does not support wide-angle viewing

61
Q

When users connect to the network, they use a basic hardware terminal to access
a desktop hosted on a virtualization server. What type of infrastructure is being
deployed?

A

Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI).

62
Q

What type of memory technology supports paging?

A

Virtual RAM or virtual memory. The operating system creates a virtual address space for each process. This address space can use physical system random-access memory (RAM)
modules and swap space or paging files stored on fixed disks (hard drives and SSDs). Paging moves data between system RAM and the swap space as required.

63
Q

A network consultant is recommending the use of S/FTP to extend a cable
segment through a factory. Is this likely to be an appropriate cable choice

A

Yes. Shielded/foiled twisted pair (S/FTP) will provide the best protection from the external interference sources likely to be generated by factory machinery.

64
Q

You have a x8 PCIe storage adapter card—can you fit this in a x16 slot?

A

Yes—this is referred to as up-plugging. On some motherboards it may only function as a x1 device though.

65
Q

Which of the following statements regarding modern connectors and ports is untrue?

They use edge contacts.
They use internal connection points.
They sometimes use keying.
They can be reversible.

A

They use internal connection points

66
Q

A support technician is installing a new SATA hard drive on a new computer. What is the best type of cable connector the technician will plug in to supply power to the drive?

A

15-pin connector

67
Q

One of the PCs has a faulty CPU, and one has a faulty power supply. You can use the CPU from one machine in the other. You have opened the case and taken antistatic precautions. What steps must you perform to access the CPU?

A

First, you will remove power cables from the motherboard and CPU. Then, you will have to remove the fan and heat-sink assembly, disconnect the fan’s power connector, release the pins or screws that attach the assembly to the motherboard, and remove the assembly (a gentle twisting motion may be required if the thermal paste has stuck the heat sink firmly to the CPU).

68
Q

match the correct answers

A
69
Q

True or false: A mass storage device installed as an internal component is referred to as a fixed disk. Storage devices are produced in a number of standard widths: 5.25 inches, 3.5 inches, and 2.5 inches.

A

True

70
Q

A hardware technician is tearing apart a non-functioning computer to salvage parts and pulls out a memory stick that synchronizes its speed to the motherboard system clock and has a peak transfer rate of 1600MBps. What type of memory has the technician removed?

SDRAM
Dynamic RAM
DDR SDRAM
ECC RAM

A

DDR SDRAM

Modern system RAM is double data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory (DDR SDRAM) and makes two data transfers per clock cycle and has a peak transfer rate of at least 1600MBps synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) is so-called because its speed is synchronized to the motherboard system clock.

71
Q

A hardware technician is building a server that will process financial data in real-time and wants to use error correcting code (ECC) RAM that will detect and correct errors, if possible. What other considerations will the technician need to include to support the ECC RAM? (Select all that apply.)

ECC - Capable Motherboard
72-bit data bus
DDR memory module
Two 64-bit data buses

A

ECC - Capable Motherboard
72-bit data bus

72
Q

A technician is troubleshooting a video display that is fuzzy. What has caused this?

Insecure connector
Burn-in
Resolution mismatch
Incorrect color display

A

Resolution Mismatch

73
Q

An energy company is strengthening its defenses and wants to look for methods that successfully protect trade secrets by ensuring none of its company computing assets are hijacked by malware. To assist in safeguarding the sensitive information, what can the technician enable to ensure this will not happen?

TPM
HSM
Encryption
Secure boot

A

The technician can configure secure boot which is a unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) feature designed to prevent malware from hijacking a computer.

74
Q

What is another name for the mac address of a wireless APs radio?

A

BSSID

75
Q

how many channels are in 5ghz wifi

A

23 channels

76
Q

You are setting up an ADSL router/modem for a client; unfortunately, the contents of the box have become scattered. What type of cable do you need to locate to connect the router’s WAN interface?

A

Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) connects to the phone line via a filter. You need an RJ11-terminated patch cord to make the connection.

77
Q

What are the port numbers for the following ports?

A
78
Q

What are the port numbers for the following ports?

A
79
Q

What are the port numbers for the following ports?

A
80
Q

What is the typical process for getting a dhcp lease in order?

A

DHCP Discover, Offer, Request, Ack (Acknowledge) process

81
Q

_ uses a TXT resource record published via DNS by an organization hosting email service. The _ record—there must be only one per domain—identifies the hosts authorized to send email from that domain. A _ can also indicate what to do with mail from servers not on the list, such as rejecting them (-all), flagging them (~all), or accepting them (+all)

A

Sender Policy Framework (SPF)

82
Q

_ uses cryptography to validate the source server for a given email message. This can replace or supplement SPF. To configure _ , the organization uploads a public encryption key as a TXT record in the DNS server. Organizations receiving messages can use this key to verify that a message derives from an authentic server.

A

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

83
Q

A company hires a network technician who is reviewing the network setup documentation. The technician sees that the company has fiber optic cable running all the way up to the building. This represents what type of connection?

FTTC
VDSL
ONT
FTTP

A

A fiber to the premises (FTTP) internet connection means that the service provider’s fiber optic cable runs all the way to the customer’s building.

A fiber to the curb (FTTC) solution retains some sort of copper wiring to the customer premises while extending the fiber link to a communications cabinet servicing multiple subscribers.

The service providers with their roots in telephone networks use very high-speed DSL (VDSL) to support FTTC. VDSL achieves higher bit rates than other DSL types at the expense of range.

An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that converts between optical and electrical signaling deployed to facilitate full fiber internet connection types.

84
Q

An application uses Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) as it requires data to make it to the destination 100% intact. Which of the following are functions of this protocol? (Select all that apply.)

Uses SYN/ACK packets.
Uses TFTP.
Uses negative acknowledgment.
Uses FIN.

A

TCP establishes a connection between the sender and recipient using a handshake sequence of SYN, SYN/ACK, and ACK packets.

TCP allows the receiver to send a negative acknowledgment (NACK) to force retransmission of a missing or damaged packet.

TCP allows the graceful termination of a session using a FIN handshake. The main drawback is that this connection information requires multiple header fields.

Network devices typically use Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) to obtain a configuration file. The application protocol uses its own acknowledgment messaging, so it does not require TCP.

85
Q

An energy company is upgrading its systems across multiple sites. The company would like to control the systems with software that communicates with the current programmable logic controllers (PLCs) and new RTUs. What kind of system is the company upgrading to?

OT
SCADA
Embedded system
ICS

A

The company is upgrading to a supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system which takes the place of a control server in large-scale, multiple-site ICSs.

86
Q

A web designer is securely uploading files to a web server. What protocol is the designer using to do this?

SMB
NetBIOS
FTPS
FTP

A

The plain File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows a client to upload files to a web server, but it is unencrypted and poses a high-security risk. FTP-Secure (FTPS) encrypts FTP sessions and is more prevalent than FTP now.

87
Q

A network technician is configuring an email connection that will have a permanent connection to the mail server. What kind of email connection is the technician configuring?

SMTP
HTML
POP3
IMAP

A

The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is a mail retrieval protocol that supports permanent connections to a server and connecting multiple clients to the same mailbox simultaneously.

In Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), the SMTP server of the sender discovers the IP address of the recipient SMTP server by using the domain name part of the recipient’s email address.

HyperText Markup Language (HTML) web pages are plain text files with coded tags describing how to format the document.

The Post Office Protocol (POP) is an early example of a mailbox access protocol. POP is generally known as POP3 because the active version of the protocol is version 3.

88
Q

Company employees access the same resources on the internet many times a day. As such, a network administrator configures a solution that forwards traffic to and from the internet and also caches content to improve performance and reduce bandwidth consumption. What solution is the administrator implementing?

NAT
Proxy server
UTM
Load balancer

A

A proxy server takes a whole HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to and from the destination server on the internet. It also caches content to improve performance.

In a port-based or overloaded network address translation (NAT), a NAT device translates between the private IP addresses used on the LAN and the public IP address on the router’s WAN interface.

A unified threat management (UTM) appliance enforces a variety of security policies and controls, combining the work of multiple security functions.

A load balancer distributes client requests across server nodes in a farm or pool and can deploy in any situation where multiple servers are providing the same function.

89
Q

A cloud service provider is taking advantage of software-defined networking (SDN) to allow customers to provision and deprovision cloud resources on-demand. Which layer of SDN does the SDN controller operate on?

API
Infrastructure
Application
Control

A

In software defined networking, the SDN controller operates on the control layer between the application layer and the infrastructure layer.

Application programming interfaces (APIs) provide the interface between the control layer and application and infrastructure layers and scripts can automate calling functions in the layers.

The infrastructure layer is the bottom layer of SDN and it contains the devices (physical or virtual) that handle the actual forwarding (switching and routing) of traffic.

The application layer is the top layer of SDN and it makes decisions about how traffic is prioritized and secured and where it should be switched using business logic.

90
Q

A company uses cell phones that do not have SIM cards and can only be managed by a specific network provider. The company wants to buy 3G cell phones that have SIM cards so they can switch to any chosen provider. What network type best suits the company’s needs?

GSM
CDMA
PRL
LTE

A

Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) allows subscribers to use a removable subscriber identity module (SIM) card to use an unlocked handset with their chosen network provider.

Code division multiple access (CDMA) means that the provider directly manages the handset and there is no removable SIM card.

A preferred roaming list (PRL) provides the information that the cellular radio needs to connect to the network and a user can trigger an update to the list in the device’s settings or by dialing a code.

Long-term evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA cellular networks. LTE Advanced provides 4G standard network access.

91
Q

A network technician is purchasing new displays for the graphics design team. Which type of thin-film transistor (TFT) will be optimal for supporting that type of work?

TN
Digitizer
In-plane switching
VA

A

In-plane switching (IPS) uses crystals that rotate rather than twist. The main benefit is to deliver better color reproduction at a wider range of viewing angles making it the best TFT option for graphics design work.

Twisted nematic (TN) crystals twist or untwist in response to the voltage level. This is the earliest type of TFT technology .

A touch screen is also known as a digitizer because of the way it converts analog touch input to digital software instructions. The digitizer is in between a layer of protective glass and the display panel.

Vertical alignment (VA) uses crystals that tilt rather than twist or rotate. This technology supports a wide color gamut and the best contrast-ratio performance.

92
Q

_ allows subscribers to use a removable subscriber identity module (SIM) card to use an unlocked handset with their chosen network provider. _ is adopted internationally and by AT&T and T-Mobile in the United States.

A

GSM

93
Q

Which of the following central processing unit (CPU) architectures implements a system-on-chip (SoC) where all the controllers, including video, sound, networking, and storage, are part of the CPU?

IA-32
x86
x64
ARM

A

ARM

94
Q
A
95
Q

A technician is managing configuration settings in Windows for a LaserJet printer from the printer’s properties dialog box. Among the following options, which one is NOT commonly found in the properties dialog box?

Sharing and permissions
Printing to a different port
Print in color or black and white
Setting default paper types

A

Print in color or black and white
In contrast to the Properties dialog box, the Preferences dialog sets the default print job options, such as the type and orientation of paper or whether to print in color or black and white.

96
Q

Which of the following solutions can address occasional overheating in a system that’s positioned safely away from other objects by facilitating airflow to cool down the internal components? (Select all that apply.)

Add more RAM
Check the motherboard
Install a new system fan
Use blanking plates

A

Install a new system fan
Use blanking plates

97
Q

A support firm installs and configures network access control systems for organizations. This includes implementing the security mechanisms for local and remote computers to authenticate with an internal server system. A switch is put in place on the edge of the network to protect the server and protect against unauthorized traffic. What role does the switch play in the implementation?

Supplicant
Network Access Server
AAA
RADIUS

A

Network Access Server

98
Q

A systems administrator looks to control HTTP requests from client computers based on the time of day. What type of service does the administrator deploy when configuring clients in a non-transparent manner?

Load balancer
Proxy server
Unified threat management
Embedded system

A

A proxy can perform a security function by acting as a content filter to block access to sites deemed inappropriate. A non-transparent proxy requires client configuration for the proxy server.

99
Q

An organization experiences an internet outage. As fiber is being used, an engineer checks to see if the optical signal is being properly converted to an electrical signal. The router is connected using an RJ45 copper wire patch cord. What does the engineer check?

OLT
PoP
PON
ONT

A

*** The optical network terminal (ONT) installed at the customer’s premises converts the optical signal to an electrical one. The ONT is connected to the customer’s router using an RJ45 copper wire patch cord.
**
* An optical line terminal (OLT) is located in a street cabinet. From the OLT, splitters direct each subscriber’s traffic over a short length of fiber to an optical network terminal (ONT) installed at the customer’s premises.

  • A connection to an internet service provider’s (ISP’s) network uses its nearest point of presence (PoP), such as a local telephone exchange.
  • A full fiber connection to a customer’s building is implemented as a passive optical network (PON). In a PON, a single fiber cable is run from the point of presence to a street cabinet.
100
Q

The office laser printer starts printing pages that smudge easily. The IT specialist is proficient in the common printing defects of laser printers and knows what is causing the problem. What will the IT specialist do to fix the problem?

Clean the blocked ink nozzle.
Realign the transfer belt.
Replace the fuser.
Adjust the platen gap.

A

The IT specialist will replace the fuser because smudging print indicates that the toner is not fusing to the paper.

101
Q

A company implements a new wireless Infrastructure. During the installation, an engineer adjusts the signal of all antennas for optimal performance. Which setting does the engineer use to measure dBi?

Transmit power
Effective isotropic radiated power
Antenna gain
Frequency band

A

**Antenna gain is the amount that a signal is boosted by directionality. This focuses the signal in a single direction rather than spreading it over a wide area. Gain is measured in dBi (decibels isotropic).
**
Transmit power is the basic strength of the radio, measured in dBm.

Effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) is the sum of transmit power and gain, expressed in dBm.

Every Wi-Fi device operates on a specific radio frequency range within an overall frequency band. Each frequency band is split into a series of smaller ranges referred to as channels.

102
Q

A technician troubleshoots a motherboard issue. What the tech discovers is chip creep with a serial ATA (SATA) connector. What is the cause? (Select all that apply.)

Changing temperature
Dust and dirt
Electrostatic discharge
Capacitor swelling

A

Chip creep is where an adapter works loose from its socket over time. This may happen perhaps because of temperature changes causing the plastic to flex over time.

Dust and dirt can cause chip creep in a SATA connector by acting as an abrasive between the connector and socket, causing wear and damage to the pins over time.

103
Q

A critical system is set to use secure boot. What properties are characteristic of the secure boot process? (Select all that apply.)

The firmware is configured with cryptographic keys.
The operating system boot loader is digitally signed.
The microprocessor is hard coded with a unique key.
It can be managed through the operating system.

A

Secure boot is a unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) feature designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. With secure boot, the computer firmware is configured with cryptographic keys.

With secure boot, the firmware can identify trusted code and ensure that the bootloader has been digitally signed by the OS vendor.

The last 2 options refer to TPM not secure boot

104
Q

A technician follows a best practice methodology when troubleshooting a problematic computer system. Which of the following represents a consequence of having a problematic computer when considering that problems have causes, symptoms, and consequences?

The printer is not working properly.
The internet connection is slow.
The computer is running low on memory.
Data required for a meeting is missing.

A

It is important to realize that problems have causes, symptoms, and consequences. A consequence is the result of the problem. Not being able to provide data is a consequence of having a problematic system.

105
Q

A user traveling on business reports that a company owned device suffered damage to the screen during a trip. A technician notices cracks on the screen and determines that touch input is no longer recognized. Visual elements on the screen look fine. What components need replacing? (Select all that apply.)

Digitizer
Protective glass
Display panel
Gyroscope

A

**A touch sensitive component in a mobile device is referred to as a digitizer because of the way it converts analog touch input to digital software instructions. In this case, the digitizer is damaged.

The touch sensitive component itself is covered by a thin layer of scratch-resistant, shock-resistant tempered glass. In this case, the glass is cracked.
**
The display panel sits below the digitizer. As the visuals on the screen look fine, the display does not need to be replaced.

A gyroscope can detect when a device changes position and adjust the screen orientation appropriately. The gyroscope does not need replacing.

106
Q

A network administrator adds several network printers to a business network. Users can install the printers easily by browsing resources that are available for use. Which protocol enables this capability within a Windows server-based network?

A

The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a TCP/IP protocol used to query and update resources in an X.500 directory. It is widely supported in current directory products such as Windows Active Directory.

107
Q

An engineer plans a new wired infrastructure rollout that will support wireless capabilities. The requirement includes the incorporation of access points that use 48V of power and 13 watts. Which specific IEEE standard does the engineer implement?

  • 802.3at
  • 802.3af
  • 802.3bt
  • 802.3
A

**The 802.3af standard allows powered devices to draw up to about 13 W. Power is supplied as 350mA@48V and limited to 15.4 W. Usable wattage usually falls around 13 W.
**
The 802.3at (PoE+) standard allows powered devices to draw up to about 25 W, with a maximum current of 600 mA.

The 802.3bt (PoE++ or 4PPoE) supplies up to about 51 W (Type 3) or 73 W (Type 4) usable power.

The 802.3 standard is an overall arching standard that covers Ethernet usage. While the implementation falls under 802.3, it is not specific to the application.

108
Q

A user states that a smartphone does not hold a charge for as long as it did in the past and seems to charge slowly. The change was noticed over the last few months. What could be the cause? (Select all that apply.)

  • Swelling
  • Battery type
  • Aging battery
  • Aftermarket AC Adapter
A

An aging battery would be the cause of charging issues, including the likelihood of a battery no longer holding a full charge. As batteries age, so does the charging lifetime.

An aftermarket or third party mobile power supply may impact how well a battery is being charged, as it may not have the manufacturer’s power specifications needed for proper charging of the device.

109
Q

A user complains about the quality of the display on a laptop. The user mentions that the laptop has been in use since the company started many years ago. IT determines that the display uses a very early thin film transistor (TFT) technology and will replace the laptop. Which TFT technology does the display use?

  • Vertical alignment
  • Organic LED
  • In-plane switching
  • Twisted nematic
    *
A

**In an early TFT implementation, twisted nematic (TN) crystals twist or untwist in response to the voltage level. This is the earliest type of TFT technology that can be in budget displays.
**
Vertical alignment displays use crystals that tilt rather than twist or rotate. This technology supports wide color gamut and the best contrast ratio performance.

In an organic LED (OLED) display, or technically an advanced matrix OLED (AMOLED), each pixel is generated by a separate LED. This is not a TFT display.

In-plane switching (IPS) displays use crystals that rotate rather than twist. The main benefit is to deliver better color reproduction at a wider range of viewing angles. Most IPS panels support 178/178 degree horizontal and vertical viewing angles.

110
Q

An engineer plans a fiber cable implementation between two campus buildings about 50 meters apart. Due to the distance between the locations, the engineer selects single-mode fiber. What specifications does the engineer need to consider with this decision?

  • Large core, long distances, short wavelength
  • Small core, long distances, long wavelength
  • Large core, short distances, long wavelength
  • Small core, short distances, short wavelength
A

**Single-mode fiber (SMF) has a small core (8-10 microns) and is designed to carry a long wavelength over long distances.
**
Multi-mode fiber (MMF) does not support such high signaling speeds or long distances as single-mode. MMF uses less expensive and less coherent LEDs or vertical cavity surface emitting lasers.

Multi-mode fiber (MMF) has a larger core than single-mode fiber (62.5 or 50 microns) and is designed to carry a short wavelength infrared light.

Single-mode cables support data rates up to 10 Gbps or better and cable runs many kilometers, depending on the optics and cable quality.

111
Q

A hardware technician replaces the central processing unit (CPU) on an Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) motherboard. What must be applied when connecting the heat sink to the CPU?

  • Thermal grease
  • Locking lever
  • CPU socket
  • PIN grid array (PGA)
A

During the installation of the heat sink on top of the CPU, a small amount of thermal grease must be applied in an X-pattern to allow for heat transference to be most successful.

112
Q

A technician installs memory into a computer that supports a multi-channel configuration. A 4GB module is placed in bank A1 and a 16GB module is placed in bank B1. A diagnostic tool reports that 12GB is useable, but not as multi-channel. What mode does the system use in making all of the memory available?

  • Single-channel
  • Flex
  • Dual-channel
  • ECC
    *
A

**In flex mode, memory that is of equal value within each channel can work as dual-channel while the remainder of the memory will work in single-channel mode.
**
In a modern system, single-channel memory means that there is one 64-bit data bus between the central processing unit (CPU), memory controller, and RAM devices.

In a modern system with a dual-channel memory controller, there are two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the CPU. This means that 128 bits of data can be sent per transfer.

Error correcting code (ECC) RAM is used for systems that require a high level of reliability. For each data transfer, ECC RAM performs a hash calculation.

113
Q

An engineer configures a workstation for development testing by using virtualization. The engineer chooses to use a type 1 hypervisor. Which statements describe the environment? (Select all that apply.)

The hypervisor is bare-metal.
The hypervisor is installed within an OS.
The hypervisor is host-based.
The hypervisor is installed on and manages hardware directly.

A

The hypervisor is installed on and manages hardware directly.
The hypervisor is bare-metal.

114
Q

When upgrading the RAM on multiple standardized laptops, what is the most important factor to consider to ensure compatibility with the existing hardware?

  • Number of pins
  • HDD size
  • AC adapter power rating
  • DDR version
    *
A

The DDR version of a laptop is critical in the upgrade process. For example, a laptop designed to run DDR4 cannot run DDR3 RAM.

115
Q

A universal asynchronous receiver transmitter (UART) port was traditionally a physical serial port in a legacy system. In a modern mobile device, how can a UART be utilized? (Select all that apply.)

  • Wi-Fi
  • Bluetooth
  • USB
  • Ethernet
A

A Bluetooth wireless radio creates a short-range personal area network (PAN) to share data with a PC, connect to a printer, and even connect to automobiles. A Bluetooth connection does use a UART.

A universal serial bus (USB) connection allows systems to easily use peripherals and more. A USB connection does use a UART.

116
Q

A PC tech plugs a x4 PCIe adapter card into a x8 socket. What speed would the card be capable of running? (Select all that apply.)

  • x1
  • x4
  • x16
  • x8
A

Each PCIe adapter card supports a specific number of lanes. Ideally, the card should be plugged into a port that supports the same number. Often a card will only work at x1 if in a mismatched port.

117
Q

After identifying the problem with a user’s computer and collecting detailed information from the user about the problem, a technician believes they know the cause. However, when testing this theory, the technician discovers they were wrong and may not be capable of resolving the issue. What are some appropriate troubleshooting steps for the technician to try next? (Select all that apply.)

  • Back up the computer.
  • Escalate.
  • Develop a new theory.
  • Ask colleagues if any changes have been made to the network infrastructure.
A

**If the technician believes the problem is now beyond their ability to solve, they should escalate it through the proper channel.
**
**After discovering the initial probable cause theory was wrong, the technician should develop a new theory based on what is known about the problem combined with what is now known not to work. If the technician believes their initial theory was the only solution within their skill set, they should escalate the problem.
**

Backing up the computer should have occurred before the technician tested their probable cause theory.

Asking colleagues about changes to network infrastructure should have occurred while gathering information. This is before developing an initial probable cause theory.

118
Q

A user complains that a computer is too slow when opening numerous applications. A technician suggests purchasing a new computer that features CMP capabilities to handle the user’s workload. Which statement describes the technician’s suggestion?

  • A single execution unit and set of registers for processes
  • A multi-socket motherboard for multiple CPUs
  • Multiple processing cores combined in the same package
  • Multiple parallel thread capability within a process
A

**A multi-core central processing unit (CPU) is multiple processors combined in one. This means that there are multiple execution units and registers. This is referred to as chip level multiprocessing (CMP).
**
A single-core CPU has a single execution unit and set of registers implemented on a single package. This essentially means that the system has a single processor.

The use of two or more physical CPUs is referred to as symmetric multiprocessing (SMP). An SMP-aware OS can then make efficient use of CPUs on a multi-socket motherboard.

Simultaneous multithreading (SMT) is referred to as HyperThreading by Intel. A thread is a stream of instructions generated by a software application. SMT allows the threads to run through the CPU at the same time.

119
Q

A user’s computer powers on, but it does not pass the power on self-test (POST) and there is no display on the monitor. The IT specialist starts with the POST issue. Which of the following troubleshooting tests are appropriate in this situation? (Select all that apply.)

  • Check power management with ACPI.
  • Check for faulty devices by removing one device at a time to see if this fixes the problem.
  • Check for faulty devices by removing all non-essential devices, then adding them back one at a time.
  • Check for a faulty CPU.
    *
A

**A faulty device can halt the POST process. One way to test this is by removing devices one at a time to see if it resolves the problem.
**
**If a computer cannot pass POST, a faulty device could be to blame. Removing all non-essential devices, then adding them back one at a time will identify the problem device if it exists.
**
**A faulty central processing unit (CPU) could keep POST from executing, so replacing the CPU chip with a known good one will confirm or eliminate this as a cause.
**
The advanced configuration and power interface (ACPI) is a power management standard that defines power states such as “sleep” and “hibernate.”

120
Q

A hard disk drive in a system experiences extended read and write times. What is likely the cause? (Select all that apply.)

Disk thrashing
Bad sectors
Bad blocks
Data corruption

A

Bad sectors
Bad blocks

121
Q

A user tries to connect a second monitor to a computer. The computer has an available digital visual interface (DVI) connector that outputs a digital signal and the monitor has a video graphics array (VGA) connector. A technician recommends a VGA to which type of cable?

  • DVI-D
  • DVI-A
  • DVI-I
  • USB-C
A

**DVI-I is a technology that is capable of connecting a digital source to an analog display or an analog source to a digital display. A VGA to DVI-I cable will connect your digital computer to an analog monitor.
**
DVI-D is available in both single link and dual link. A DVI-D cable is intended to be used between two digital devices. As VGA is analog, a DVI-D cable will not be useful.

DVI-A is a technology that carries an analog signal to an analog device. This cable along with an adapter for a VGA connector is required.

USB adapters to convert connector types, such as USB-C to USB-A but this is not applicable for this situation.

122
Q

How many binary digits are found within a media access control (MAC) address?

  • 32
  • 12
  • 48
  • 16
    *
A

48

123
Q

A shared printer handles a lot of print jobs for a medium-sized company. As of late, all users are complaining about the print jobs having a speckled output. What does a printer maintenance technician find to be the problem?

  • The fuser needs replacing.
  • The feed rollers are dirty.
  • The charge roller is dirty.
  • Toner is loose in the printer.
A

The speckling of toner on output is likely caused by loose toner that may be getting onto the paper. Cleaning the inside of the printer using an approved toner vacuum is helpful.

124
Q

A security team at a company discovers that malware is rapidly moving from one virtual machine to another in a live environment. What security issue is occurring?

  • Escape
  • Extension
  • Intrusion
  • Sprawl
A

Escape

125
Q

Which current USB standard supports 2 x 10 Gbps speeds and uses a USB-C connector type?

  • USB 3.2 Gen1
  • USB 3.2 Gen 2x1
  • USB 3.2 Gen 2x2
  • USB 3.1
    *
A

USB 3.2 Gen 2x2

USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 is only 1x10Gbps

126
Q

A technician troubleshoots wired connectivity issues with a device. What should the technician check first to resolve a no connectivity issue?

  • Patch cable
  • Network interface card (NIC)
  • Wall port
  • Wi-Fi adapter
A

When troubleshooting connectivity on a wired network, the first thing the technician should check is the patch cable. Ensure that the RJ45 connectors are solidly connected to the cable, there are no obvious wear bends or breaks, and that it is properly connected to the device and the wall jack.

127
Q

An organization looks to harden email services. The systems administrator uses every possible option to help prevent SPAM and other anomalies. During the final stages of configuration, the systems administrator creates a policy within the Domain Name System (DNS) to handle authentication failures. Which record is being configured?

  • MX
  • SPF
  • DMARC
  • DKIM
A

**The Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework ensures that SPF and DKIM are being utilized effectively. DMARC specifies a policy mechanism for senders to specify how authentication failures should be treated.
**
A mail exchange (MX) record is used to identify an email server for the domain so that other servers can send messages to it.

The Sender Policy Framework (SPF) uses a TXT resource record published via DNS to identify the hosts authorized to send email from that domain.

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) uses cryptography to validate the source server for a given email message. To configure DKIM, the organization uploads a public encryption key as a TXT record.

128
Q

A printer technician receives a complaint from multiple users sharing a laser printer that the pages they are printing are faded or faint. Upon troubleshooting, the technician ruled out user and server settings. What laser printer component needs replacing to fix this error?

  • Fuser
  • Print head
  • Drum
  • Toner cartridge
A

If user settings can be ruled out, it is common that the toner cartridge has simply run out of toner and needs to be replaced.

129
Q

A remote facility cannot utilize a wired internet connection for a short period. When relying on a wireless solution, the company uses a technology that must be provisioned with a motor so it can periodically realign with the array. Which internet access technology is in use?

  • Geostationary orbital satellite internet access
  • Wireless internet service provider
  • Low Earth orbital satellite internet access
  • Global System for Mobile Communication
    *
A

Satellites positioned in low Earth orbit (LEO) have a drawback such that the satellites move relative to the surface of the Earth. Premises antennas must be provisioned with a motor so that they can periodically realign with the array.

130
Q

A user’s monitor displays a distortedly large image. To fix the resolution problem, the IT specialist performs which software troubleshooting steps? (Select all that apply.)

  • Use the OSD to check monitor settings.
  • Check the configuration of the video card.
  • Update the video card driver.
  • Check that the monitor is powered on.
A

Check the configuration of the video card.
Update the video card driver.

131
Q

A printer technician troubleshoots a laser printer and determines that the exposing stage of the print job is the issue with print jobs printing incorrectly. What does the technician suspect is happening?

  • The imaging drum is not properly losing its charge.
  • The OS driver is improperly encoding the page in a page description language.
  • The imaging drum is not being conditioned by the primary charge roller.
  • The toner is not being fed evenly onto a magnetized developer roller.
A

**In the exposing stage, as the laser receives the image information, it fires a short pulse of light for each dot in the raster to neutralize the charge that was applied by the PCR. In this stage, the imaging drum loses its charge when functioning properly.
**
During the processing stage, the OS driver encodes the page in a page description language and sends it to the print device for processing.

In the charging stage, the imaging drum is conditioned by the primary charge roller (PCR). The PCR is a metal roller with a rubber coating powered by a high voltage power supply assembly.

In the developing stage, the toner is fed evenly onto a magnetized developer roller from a hopper.

132
Q

What pci version does a wireless nic use?

A

PCIe x1

133
Q

What pci version does a video card use?

A

PCIe x16

134
Q

What pci version does an additional ethernet nic use?

A

PCI

135
Q

What pci version does a sound card use?

A

PCI

136
Q

What Stage in laser printing is this?

Laser printers produce output as a series of dots. The OS driver encodes the page in a page description language and sends it to the print device. In the _ stage, the printer’s formatter board processes the data to create a bitmap (or raster) of the page and stores it in the printer’s RAM.

A

Processing Stage

137
Q

What Stage in laser printing is this?

In the _ stage, the imaging drum is conditioned by the primary charge roller (PCR). The PCR is a metal roller with a rubber coating powered by a high voltage power supply assembly. The PCR applies a uniform -600 V electrical charge across the drum’s surface.

A

Charging Stage

138
Q

What Stage in laser printing is this?

The surface coating of the photosensitive imaging drum loses its charge when exposed to light. In the _ stage, as the laser receives the image information, it fires a short pulse of light for each dot in the raster to neutralize the charge that was applied by the PCR. The pulsing light beam is reflected by a polygonal mirror through a system of lenses onto the rotating photosensitive drum. The drum ends up with a series of raster lines with charge/no-charge dots that represent an electrostatic latent image of the image to be printed.

A

Exposing Stage

139
Q

What Stage in laser printing is this?

Laser toner is composed of a fine compound of dyestuff and either wax or plastic particles. The toner is fed evenly onto a magnetized developer roller from a hopper.

The developer roller is located very close to the photosensitive drum. The toner carries the same negative charge polarity as the drum, which means that, under normal circumstances, there would be no interaction between the two parts. However, once areas of charge have been selectively removed from the photosensitive drum by the laser, the toner is attracted to them and sticks to those parts of its surface. The drum, now coated with toner in the image of the document, rotates until it reaches the paper.

A

Developing Stage

140
Q

What Stage in laser printing is this?

From the transfer assembly, the paper passes into the fuser assembly. The fuser unit squeezes the paper between a hot roller and a pressure roller so that the toner is melted onto the surface of the paper. The hot roller is a metal tube containing a heat lamp; the pressure roller is typically silicone rubber. The heat roller has a Teflon coating to prevent toner from sticking to it.

A

Fusing Stage

141
Q

What Stage in laser printing is this?

To complete the printing cycle, the photosensitive drum is cleaned to remove any remaining toner particles using a cleaning blade, roller, or brush resting on the surface of the drum. Any residual electrical charge is removed, using either a discharge (or erase lamp) or the PCR.

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Cleaning Stage

142
Q

What Stage in laser printing is this?

The _ stage moves the toner from the drum onto the print media. The paper transport mechanism includes components such as gears, pads, and rollers that move the paper through the printer. Pickup components lift a single sheet of paper from the selected input tray and feed it into the printer. To do this, a pickup roller turns once against the paper stack, pushing the paper into a feed and separation roller assembly. This assembly is designed to allow only one sheet to pass through.

A printer will have a number of automatic trays and a manual tray. The manual feed tray uses a separation pad rather than rollers.

When the paper reaches the registration roller, a signal tells the printer to start the image development process. When the drum is ready, the paper is fed between the imaging drum and the high voltage transfer roller. The transfer roller applies a positive charge to the underside of the paper. This causes the toner on the drum to be attracted to the paper. As the paper leaves the transfer assembly, a static eliminator strip (or detac corona) removes any remaining charge from the paper. This is done to avoid the paper sticking to the drum or curling as it enters the fuser unit.

A

Transferring Stage

143
Q

_ has a small core (8–10 microns) and is designed to carry a long wavelength (1,310 or 1,550 nm) infrared signal, generated by a high-power, highly coherent laser diode. _ cables support data rates up to 10 Gbps or better and cable runs of many kilometers, depending on the quality of the cable and optics.

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Single-Mode Fiber

144
Q

_ has a larger core (62.5 or 50 microns) and is designed to carry a shorter wavelength infrared light (850 nm or 1,300 nm). _ uses less expensive and less coherent LEDs or vertical cavity surface emitting lasers (VCSELs) and consequently is less expensive to deploy than _. However, _ does not support such high signaling speeds or long distances as _ and so is more suitable for LANs than WANs.

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Multi-mode fiber (MMF)
Multi-mode fiber (MMF)
Single Mode Fiber
Multi-mode fiber (MMF)
Single Mode Fiber

145
Q

What type of fiber connector allows for the highest density of connections

A

LC

146
Q
A

A+ (6 decks)

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