hard topics Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the role of antibodies in producing a positive result in an ELISA test. (4 marks)

A

1.   (First) antibody binds/attaches /complementary (in shape) to antigen;

2.   (Second) antibody with enzyme attached is added;

3.   (Second) antibody attaches to antigen;

Accept (second) antibody attaches to (first) antibody (indirect ELISA test).

4.   (Substrate/solution added) and colour changes;

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2
Q

State three roles of a Cytotoxic Killer T Cell (Tc cell)

A
  • Locate and destroys infected body cells that present the correct antigen.
  • Binds to antigen-presenting-cells
  • Releases perforin (protein) which creates holes in the cell surface membrane which destroys the APC.
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3
Q

State 4 roles of a T helper cell.

A

Specific T Helper cell binds to the antigen presenting cell and….

1) Release cytokines that attract phagocytes to the area of infection.

2) Release cytokines that activate Cytotoxic Killer T cell (TC).

3) Activates a specifically complementary B cell.

4) Form memory TH cells

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4
Q

Describe the structure of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). [5]

A
  • RNA (as genetic material);
  • Reverse transcriptase;
  • (Protein) capsomeres/capsid;
  • (Phospho) lipid (viral) envelope OR Envelope made of membrane;
  • Attachment proteins;
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5
Q

Describe the difference between active and passive immunity. [4]

A
  • Active involves memory cells, passive does not;
  • Active involves production of antibody by plasma cells/memory cells whereas, Passive involves antibody introduced into body from outside/named source;
  • Active long term, because antibody produced in response to antigen whereas, Passive short term, because antibody (given) is broken down;
  • Active (can) take time to develop/work, passive fast acting;
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6
Q

When a vaccine is given to a person, it leads to the production of antibodies against a disease-causing organism. Describe how [5]

A
  • Vaccine contains antigen from pathogen;
  • Phagocyte (other APC) presents antigen on its surface;
  • T (helper) cell with complementary receptor protein binds to antigen;
  • T cell stimulates B cell;
  • (With) complementary antibody on its surface;
  • B cell divides to form clone secreting / producing same antibody;
  • B cell secretes large amounts of antibody (by exocytosis);
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7
Q

Describe and explain the role of antibodies in stimulating phagocytosis. [2]

A
  • Bind to antigen OR Are markers (Opsinisation);
  • (Antibodies) cause agglutination (clumping) OR Attract phagocytes;
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8
Q

Describe how substances move across cell-surface membranes by facilitated diffusion. [3]

A
  • Carrier / channel protein;
  • (Protein) specific / complementary to substance;
  • Substance moves down concentration gradient;
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9
Q

Compare and contrast the processes by which water and inorganic ions enter cells. [3]

A
  • Comparison: both move down concentration gradient;
  • Comparison: both move through (protein) channels in membrane;
  • Accept aquaporins (for water) and ion channels
  • Contrast: ions can move against a concentration gradient by active transport (Carrier protein)
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10
Q

Many different substances enter and leave a cell by crossing its cell surface membrane.

Describe how substances can cross a cell surface membrane. [7]

A
  • (Simple / facilitated) diffusion from high to low concentration / down concentration gradient;
  • Small / non-polar / lipid-soluble molecules pass via phospholipids / bilayer;
  • OR
  • Large / polar / water-soluble molecules go through proteins;
  • Water moves by osmosis / from high water potential to low water potential / from less to more negative water potential;
  • Active transport is movement from low to high concentration / against concentration gradient;
  • Active transport / facilitated diffusion involves proteins / carriers; (Reject Both use channels)
  • Active transport requires energy / ATP;
  • Ref. to Na+ / glucose co-transport
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11
Q

Explain why a cell membrane may be described as a fluid-mosaic? [2]

A
  • Fluid – Each molecule within the membrane is able to move around within the membrane.
  • Membrane is made up from a variety of different molecules (e.g, different proteins) arranged into a mosaic.
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12
Q

Describe the process of crossing over and explain how it increases genetic diversity. [4]

A
  • Homologous pairs of chromosomes associate / form a bivalent;
  • Chiasma(ta) form;
  • (Equal) lengths of (non-sister) chromatids / alleles are exchanged;
  • Producing new combinations of alleles;
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13
Q

Meiosis results in cells that have the haploid number of chromosomes and show genetic variation. Explain how. [7]

A
  • Homologous chromosomes pair up;
  • maternal and paternal chromosomes are arranged in any order;
  • Independent segregation (RANDOM);
  • Crossing over (RARE);
  • (Equal) Portions of chromatids are swapped between chromosomes;
  • Produces new combination of alleles;
  • Chromatids separated at meiosis II/ later;
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14
Q

Describe Viral replication [5]

A
  • Attachment proteins attach to receptors
  • (viral) nucleic acid enters cell
  • Nucleci acid replicated in cell OR Reverse transcriptase makes DNA from RNA
  • Cell produces (viral) protein/capsid/enzymes
  • Virus assembled and released (from cell)
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15
Q

Describe and explain what the student should have done when counting cells to make sure that the mitotic index he obtained for this root tip was accurate. [2]

A

Description; Explanation;
E.g,
* Examine large number of fields of view / many cells;
* To ensure representative sample;

OR
* Repeat count;
* To ensure figures are correct;

OR

  • Method to deal with part cells shown at edge /count only whole cells;
  • To standardise counting;
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16
Q

Define ‘Gene’

A

Section of DNA base sequences on a chromosome coding for one specific polypeptide

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17
Q

Define ‘Gene’

A

Section of DNA base sequences on a chromosome coding for one specific polypeptide

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18
Q

Describe the appearance and behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis: [5]

A
  1. During prophase, chromosomes supercoil and condense to become visible;
  2. Chromosomes appear as 2 identical sister chromatids joined by a centromere;
  3. During metaphase chromosomes line up on the equator of the cell;
  4. Chromosomes attach to the spindle fibres;
  5. By their centromeres;
  6. During anaphase, the centromere splits;
  7. Sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell making a V shape;
  8. During telophase, chromatids uncoil and become thinner;
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19
Q

Why is MITOSIS important? [3]

A
  • Increasing cell numbers and growth of an organism
  • Repair of damaged tissues (not cells)
  • Replacement of worn out / dead cells
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20
Q

Describe the features of Anaphase

A
  • Spindle fibres shorten and centromere splits;
  • Sister chromatids are separated;
  • Chromatids pulled to opposite poles of the cell;
  • Chromatids are in a V shape formation;
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21
Q

Describe the features of Prophase

A
  • Nuclear membrane begins to breakdown;
  • Centrioles move to poles of the cell;
  • Chromatin supercoils and condense into chromosomes around HISTONES;
  • Each chomosome consists of two identical sister chromatids joined by a centromere;
22
Q

What is a virus?

A
  • Acellular and non living
  • Consist of genetic material, a capsid and attachment proteins.
23
Q

Give the three structural features found in all virus particles and describe the function of one of these features. [2]

A
  1. Genetic material, capsid and attachment protein;
  2. Genetic material codes for (viral) protein
    OR
    Capsid protects the genetic material/RNA/DNA
    OR
    Attachment protein bind to receptors (on cell);
24
Q

Name two structures found in all bacteria that are not found in plant cells. [2]

A
  • Circular DNA (molecule in cytoplasm);
  • Murein cell wall OR Peptidoglycan cell wall OR Glycoprotein cell wall;
  • Small(er)/70s ribosomes (in cytoplasm);
25
Q

Compare and contrast Nuclear DNA and Chloroplast / Mitochondrial DNA [5]

A

Comparisons
* Nucleotide structure is identical;
* Nucleotides joined by phosphodiester bond;
* OR Deoxyribose joined to phosphate (in sugar, phosphate backbone);

Contrasts
DNA within the nucleus:
* Is longer ;
* Contain introns, Chloroplast/MT DNA does not;
* Is linear, Chloroplast/MT DNA is circular;
* DNA is associated with / bound to protein / histones, Chloroplast/MT DNA is not;

26
Q

What is the function of Lysosomes? [2]

A
  • Contains hydrolytic (digestive) enzymes;
  • Digests worn out organelles/autolysis;
27
Q

What is the function of the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum?

A

Site of lipid synthesis;

28
Q

What is the function of the Rough Endoplasmic reticulum? [3]

A
  • Encrusted in Ribosomes;
  • Site of protein synthesis;
  • Transports and stores protein within the cell
29
Q

What is the function of the cell (permanent) vacuole (plants)?

A
  • Stores sugars/minerals/pigments
  • Support
30
Q

Some seeds contain lipids. Describe how you could use the emulsion test to show that a seed contains lipids. (3)

A
  1. Crush/grind;
  2. With ethanol/ alcohol, to dissolve the lipid;
  3. Then add water then shake;
  4. Forms a white emulsion / goes white;
31
Q

Describe how a triglyceride molecule is formed [3]

A
  • ONE glycerol molecule and THREE fatty acids
  • Condensation reactions AND removal of THREE molecules of water
  • Ester bonds are formed.
32
Q

What is the effect of pH on the rate of an enzyme controlled reaction [3]

A
  • pH is changed from the optimum (more acidic or more basic)
  • charge on the R groups of the amino acids is altered and ionic bonds (and weak H bonds) in the tertiary structure are broken.
  • Active site changes shape and the substrate can no longer bind (no longer specifically complementary). Less/No enzyme substrate complexes can be formed, and the rate of the reaction decreases either side of the optimum. The enzyme is denatured.
33
Q

How does oxygen moves through an insect? [4]

A
  1. Oxygen diffuses in through the open spiracles;
  2. Spiracle closes;
  3. Oxygen moves through the trachea into the tracheoles;
  4. Oxygen delivered directly to the respiring tissues;
34
Q

A fish uses its gills to absorb oxygen from water. Explain how the gills of a fish are adapted for efficient gas exchange. [6]

A

1 Large surface area provided by many lamellae over many gill filaments;
2 Increases diffusion/makes diffusion efficient;
3 Thin epithelium/distance between water and blood;
4 Water and blood flow in opposite directions/countercurrent;
5 (Point 4) maintains concentration gradient (along gill)/equilibrium not reached;
6 As water always next to blood with lower concentration of oxygen;
7 Circulation replaces blood saturated with oxygen;
8 Ventilation replaces water (as oxygen removed);

35
Q

Describe the process of starch digestion [5]

A

(salivary/pancreatic) Amylase;
Starch to Maltose;
Maltase;
Maltose to glucose;
Hydrolysis;
Glycosidic bonds

36
Q

Describe and explain two features you would expect to find in a cell specialised for absorption. [4]

A
  1. Folded membrane/microvilli so large surface area (for absorption);
    Accept ‘brush border’ for ‘microvilli’.
  2. Large number of co-transport/carrier/channel proteins so fast rate (of absorption) OR
    Large number of co-transport/carrier proteins for active transport OR
    Large number of co-transport/carrier/channel proteins for facilitated diffusion;
  3. Large number of mitochondria so make (more) ATP (by respiration) OR
    Large number of mitochondria for aerobic respiration OR
    Large number of mitochondria to release energy for active transport;
  4. Membrane-bound (digestive) enzymes so maintains concentration gradient (for fast absorption);
37
Q

Describe the absorption of glucose (Cotransport) [4]

A
  1. Sodium ions actively transported from ileum cell in to blood;
  2. Maintains / forms diffusion gradient for sodium to enter cells from gut (and with it, glucose);
  3. GLucose enters cell down the sodium ion gradient
  4. Glucose enters by facilitated diffusion with sodium ions;
38
Q

Describe the mechanism for the absorption of amino acids in the ileum. [5]

A
  1. Facilitated diffusion of amino acid (into cell when higher concentration in lumen);
  2. Co-transport;
  3. Sodium ions actively transported from cell to blood/capillary/tissue fluid;
  4. Creating sodium ion concentration/diffusion gradient;
  5. Facilitated diffusion of amino acid into blood/capillary;
39
Q

Describe two adaptations of the structure of alveoli for efficient gas exchange.

A
  1. Thin walls or squamous epithelia is one cell thick
  2. (Total) surface area is large;
40
Q

Describe how haemoglobin normally loads oxygen in the lungs and unloads it in a tissue cell. [6]

A
  • Oxygen combines (reversibly) to produce oxyhaemoglobin;
  • each haemoglobin molecule/ one haemoglobin may transport 4 molecules of oxygen;
  • high partial pressure of oxygen / oxygen tension / concentration in lungs;
  • haemoglobin (almost) 95% / 100% saturated;
  • unloads at low oxygen tension(in tissues);
  • presence of carbon dioxide displaces curve further to right / increases oxygen dissociation;
  • allows more O2 to be unloaded;
  • increase temp/ acidity allows more O2 to be unloaded;
  • low pO2 / increase CO2 / increase term / increase acid occur in vicinity of respiring tissue;
41
Q

Explain how oxygen in a red blood cell is made available for respiration in active tissues. [4]

A
  • CO2 (increased) respiration;
  • (increased) dissociation oxygen from haemoglobin;
  • Low partial pressure in tissues/plasma;
  • Oxygen diffuses from r.b.c. to tissues;
42
Q

The oxygen dissociation curve of the foetus is to the left of that for its mother. Explain the advantage of this for the foetus. [3]

A
  • Foetal haemoglobin has Higher affinity / loads more oxygen;
  • At low/same/high partial pressure/pO2;
  • Oxygen moves from mother/to fetus;

Reject foetus has higher affinity for oxygen

43
Q

Explain how oxygen is loaded, transported and unloaded in the blood. [5]

A
  • Haemoglobin carries oxygen / has a high affinity for oxygen / oxyhaemoglobin;
  • In red blood cells;
  • Loading/uptake/association in lungs at high p.O2;
  • Unloads/ dissociates / releases to respiring cells/tissues at low p.O2;
  • Unloading linked to higher carbon dioxide (concentration);
44
Q

Describe and explain how the lungs are adapted to allow rapid exchange of oxygen between air in the alveoli and blood in the capillaries around them. [4]

A
  • Many alveoli/ alveoli walls folded provide a large surface area;
  • Many capillaries provide a large surface area (So) fast diffusion;
    Alveoli or capillary walls/ epithelium/ lining are thin/ one cell thick / short distance between alveoli and blood;
  • Flattened/ squamous epithelium (So) short diffusion distance/ pathway / (So) fast diffusion;
  • Ventilation / circulation; So Maintains a diffusion / concentration gradient (So) fast diffusion;
45
Q

Arteries and arterioles take blood away from the heart.

Explain how the structures of the walls of arteries and arterioles are related to their functions. (6)

A

**Elastic tissue **
1 Elastic tissue stretches under pressure/when heart contracts;
2 Recoils/springs back;
3 Evens out pressure/flow;
**Muscle **
4 Muscle contracts;
5 Reduces diameter of lumen/vasoconstriction/constricts vessel;
6 Changes flow/pressure;
**Epithelium **
7 Epithelium smooth;
8 Reduces friction/blood clots/less resistance

46
Q

Describe how tissue fluid is formed and how it is returned to the circulatory system. (6)

A

Formation
1. High blood / hydrostatic pressure / pressure filtration;
2. Forces water / fluid out;
3. Large proteins remain in capillary;

Return
4. Low water potential in capillary / blood;
5. Due to (plasma) proteins;
6. Water enters capillary / blood;
7. (By) osmosis;
8. Correct reference to lymph;

47
Q

If the dissociation curve is to the LEFT…..

A
  • Loads MORE oxygen
  • at LOWER partial pressures
  • Haemoglobin has HIGHER affinity (for oxygen)
48
Q

If the dissociation curve is to the RIGHT….

A
  • Unloads MORE oxygen
  • for MORE aerobic Respiration so more ATP
  • More heat energy released
  • at same partial pressures
  • Haemoglobin has LOWER affinity (for oxygen)
49
Q

Explain why water moves up the plant stem. [3]

A

1.   Water evaporates/is transpired out of leaves through stomata;

2.   Water potential gradient/lower water potential creates tension/pulls up water
OR Omosis creates tension/pulls up water; OR Osmosis creates negative pressure.

3.   Hydrogen bonds/cohesion/adhesion maintains ((continuous) column;

50
Q

Explain why water moves up the plant stem. [3]

A

1.   Water evaporates/is transpired out of leaves through stomata;

2.   Water potential gradient/lower water potential creates tension/pulls up water
OR Omosis creates tension/pulls up water; OR Osmosis creates negative pressure.

3.   Hydrogen bonds/cohesion/adhesion maintains ((continuous) column;

51
Q

Describe the cohesion-tension theory of water transport in the xylem [5]

A
  1. Water lost from leaf because of transpiration / evaporation of water (molecules) / diffusion from mesophyll / leaf cells through stomata; OR Transpiration / evaporation / diffusion of water (molecules) through stomata / from leaves;
  2. Lowers water potential of mesophyll / leaf cells;
  3. Water pulled up xylem (creating tension); (negative pressure)
  4. Water molecules cohere / ‘stick’ together by hydrogen bonds;
  5. (forming continuous) water column;
  6. Adhesion of water (molecules) to walls of xylem;
  7. Accept Ψ