Hard Questions Flashcards

1
Q
What is calculated using the numerical values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain?
A. EIRP
B. dBi
C. RSSI
D. SNR
A

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Once you know the complete combination of transmitter power level, the length of cable, and the antenna gain, you can figure out the actual
power level that will be radiated from the antenna. This is known as the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP), measured in dBm. EIRP is a
very important parameter because it is regulated by governmental agencies in most countries. In those cases, a system cannot radiate signals
higher than a maximum allowable EIRP. To find the EIRP of a system, simply add the transmitter power level to the antenna gain and subtract
the cable loss.

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2
Q
The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters.
The first method for authentication is TACACS
If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials
Which configuration accomplishes this task?
https://itexamanswers.net/ccie-ccnp-350-401-encor-dumps-full-questions-vce-pdf.html
A. R1#sh run | include aaa
aaa new-model
aaa authentication login VTY group tacacs+ none
aaa session-id common
R1#sh run | section vty
line vty 0 4
password 7 0202039485748
R1#sh run | include username
R1#
B. R1#sh run | include aaa
aaa new-model
aaa authentication login telnet group tacacs+ none
aaa session-id common
R1#sh run | section vty
line vty 0 4
R1#sh run | include username
R1#
C. R1#sh run | include aaa
aaa new-model
aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none
aaa session-id common
R1#sh run | section vty
line vty 0 4
password 7 0202039485748
D. R1#sh run | include aaa
aaa new-model
aaa authentication login default group tacacs+
aaa session-id common
R1#sh run | section vty
line vty 0 4
transport input none
R1#
A

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
According to the requirements (first use TACACS+, then allow login with no authentication), we have to use “aaa authentication login … group
tacacs+ none” for AAA command.
The next thing to check is the if the “aaa authentication login default” or “aaa authentication login list-name” is used. The ‘default’ keyword
means we want to apply for all login connections (such as tty, vty, console and aux). If we use this keyword, we don’t need to configure anything
else under tty, vty and aux lines. If we don’t use this keyword then we have to specify which line(s) we want to apply the authentication feature.
From above information, we can find out answer ‘R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none
aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748 If you want to learn more about AAA configuration,
please read our AAA TACACS+ and RADIUS Tutorial – Part 2.
For your information, answer ‘R1#sh run | include aaa
aaa new-model
aaa authentication login telnet group tacacs+ none
aaa session-id common
R1#sh run | section vty
line vty 0 4
R1#sh run | include username
R1#’ would be correct if we add the following command under vty line (“line vty 0 4”): “login authentication telnet” (“telnet” is the name of the AAA
list above)

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3
Q
Which access controls list allows only TCP traffic with a destination port range of 22-443, excluding port 80?
A. Deny tcp any any eq 80
Permit tcp any any gt 21 it 444
B. Permit tcp any any ne 80
C. Permit tcp any any range 22 443
Deny tcp any any eq 80
D. Deny tcp any any ne 80
Permit tcp any any range 22 443
E. deny tcp any any eq 80
permit tcp any any range 22 443
A

Correct Answer: E

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4
Q
Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH that a router accepts 100 kbps?
A. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH
match access-group name CoPP_SSH
!
Policy-map CoPP_SSH
class CoPP_SSHpolice cir 100000
exceed-action drop
! ! !
Interface GigabitEthernet0/1
ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0
ip access-group CoPP_SSH out
duplex auto
speed auto
media-type rj45
service-policy input CoPP_SSH
!
ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH
permit tcp any any eq 22
!
B. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH
match access-group name CoPP_SSH
!
Policy-map CoPP_SSH
class CoPP_SSH
police cir CoPP_SSH
exceed-action drop
!
Interface GigabitEthernet0/1
ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0
ip access-group … out
duplex auto
speed auto
media-type rj45
service-policy input CoPP_SSH
!
Ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH
deny tcp any any eq 22
!
C. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH
match access-group name CoPP_SSH
!
Policy-map CoPP_SSH
class CoPP_SSH
police cir 100000
exceed-action drop
!
!
!
Control-plane
service-policy input CoPP_SSH
!
ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH
permit tcp any any eq 22
!
D. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH
match access-group name CoPP_SSH
!
Policy-map CoPP_SSH
class CoPP_SSH
police cir 100000 exceed-action drop
!
Control-plane transit
service-policy input CoPP_SSH
!
Ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH
permit tcp any any eq 22
!
A

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
CoPP protects the route processor on network devices by treating route processor resources as a separate entity with its own ingress interface
(and in some implementations, egress also). CoPP is used to police traffic that is destined to the route processor of the router such as:
+ routing protocols like OSPF, EIGRP, or BGP.
+ Gateway redundancy protocols like HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP.
+ Network management protocols like telnet, SSH, SNMP, or RADIUS.
Therefore we must apply the CoPP to deal with SSH because it is in the management plane. CoPP must be put under “control-plane” command.

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5
Q

What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to least preferred, that the BGP best-path algorithm uses?
A. local preference, weight, AS path, MED
B. weight, local preference, AS path, MED
C. weight, AS path, local preference, MED
D. local preference, weight, MED, AS path
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

A

Explanation/Reference:
Path Selection Attributes: Weight > Local Preference > Originate > AS Path > Origin > MED > External > IGP Cost > eBGP Peering > Router ID

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6
Q
Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)
A. TCP window size
B. IP MTU
C. TCP MSS
D. DF bit clear
E. MTU ignore
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
A

Explanation/Reference:
The ip tcp adjust-mss only affects TCP streams. Other kinds of IP traffic – UDP, SCTP, DCCP, ICMP, ESP, AH, to name just a few- won’t be
influenced by the ip tcp adjust-mss command, and so their datagrams must be fragmented at the IP layer. That’s why it is necessary to properly
configure the ip mtu command to let the router know how large the fragments of non-TCP-carrying IP packets can be.
Reference: Click here

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7
Q

Which description of an SD-access wireless network infrastructure deployment is true?
A. The access point is part of the fabric overlay.
B. The wireless client is part of the fabric overlay.
C. The access point is part of the fabric underlay.
D. The WLC is part of the fabric underlay.
https://itexamanswers.net/ccie-ccnp-350-401-encor-dumps-full-questions-vce-pdf.html
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)

A

Explanation/Reference:
Access Points
+ AP is directly connected to FE (or to an extended node switch)
+ AP is part of Fabric overlay

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8
Q

What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two)
A. vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet
B. The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments
C. Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode
D. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based
E. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based

A

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation/Reference:
Broadcast radiation is the accumulation of broadcast and multicast traffic on a computer network.
Extreme amounts of broadcast traffic constitute a broadcast storm.
The amount of broadcast traffic you should see within a broadcast domain is directly proportional to the size of the broadcast domain. Therefore
if the layer 2 domain in virtual machine environment is too large, broadcast radiation may occur -> VLANs should be used to reduce broadcast
radiation.
Also if virtual machines communicate via broadcast too much, broadcast radiation may occur.
Another reason for broadcast radiation is using a trunk (to extend VLANs) from the network switch to the physical server.
Note about the structure of virtualization in a hypervisor:
Hypervisors provide virtual switch (vSwitch) that Virtual Machines (VMs) use to communicate with other VMs on the same host. The vSwitch
may also be connected to the host’s physical NIC to allow VMs to get layer 2 access to the outside world.
Each VM is provided with a virtual NIC (vNIC) that is connected to the virtual switch. Multiple vNICs can connect to a single vSwitch, allowing
VMs on a physical host to communicate with one another at layer 2 without having to go out to a physical switch.
https://itexamanswers.net/ccie-ccnp-350-401-encor-dumps-full-questions-vce-pdf.html
Although vSwitch does not run Spanning-tree protocol but vSwitch implements other loop prevention mechanisms. For example, a frame that
enters from one VMNIC is not going to go out of the physical host from a different VMNIC card.

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9
Q

Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?
A. Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic.
B. Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP.
C. Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks.
D. Provides reachability between border nodes in the fabric underlay.

A

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:
+ Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location (EID-to-RLOC)
mapping system for the fabric overlay.
+ Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.
+ Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+ Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+ Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access fabric role other than
underlay services.

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10
Q
Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?
A. MSS
B. MTU
C. MRU
D. window size
A

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The TCP Maximum Segment Size (TCP MSS) defines the maximum amount of data that a host is willing to accept in a single TCP/IP datagram.
This TCP/IP datagram might be fragmented at the IP layer. The MSS value is sent as a TCP header option only in TCP SYN segments. Each
side of a TCP connection reports its MSS value to the other side. Contrary to popular belief, the MSS value is not negotiated between hosts. The
sending host is required to limit the size of data in a single TCP segment to a value less than or equal to the MSS reported by the receiving host.
TCP MSS takes care of fragmentation at the two endpoints of a TCP connection, but it does not handle the case where there is a smaller MTU
link in the middle between these two endpoints. PMTUD was developed in order to avoid fragmentation in the path between the endpoints. It is
used to dynamically determine the lowest MTU along the path from a packet’s source to its destination.

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11
Q
What are three valid HSRP states? (Choose three)
A. INIT
B. listen
C. full
D. learning
E. speak
F. established
A

Correct Answer: ABE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
HSRP StatesWhen in operation, HSRP devices are configured into one of many states:
Active – This is the state of the device that is actively forwarding traffic.
Init or Disabled – This is the state of a device that is not yet ready or able to participate in HSRP.
Learn – This is the state of a device that has not yet determined the virtual IP address and has not yet seen a hello message from an active
device.
Listen – This is the state of a device that is receiving hello messages.
Speak – This is the state of a device that is sending and receiving hello messages.
Standby – This is the state of a device that is prepared to take over the traffic forwarding duties from the active device.

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12
Q

In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node?
A. to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric
B. to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric
C. to advertise fabric IP address space to external network
D. to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric

A
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
\+ Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.
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13
Q

Which two statements about AAA authentication are true? (Choose two)
A. RADIUS authentication queries the router’s local username database
B. TACACS+ authentication uses an RSA server to authenticate users
C. Local user names are case-insensitive
D. Local authentication is maintained on the router
E. KRB5 authentication disables user access when an incorrect password is entered

A

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

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14
Q
What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.)
A. LED lights
B. radar
C. fire alarm
D. conventional oven
E. rogue AP
A

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
According to the Meraki webpage, radar and rogue AP are two sources of Wireless Interference. Interference between different WLANs occurs
when the access points within range of each other are set to the same RFchannel.
Note: Microwave ovens (not conventional oven) emit damaging interfering signals at up to 25 feet or so from an operatingoven. Some
microwave ovens emit radio signals that occupy only a third of the 2.4-GHz band, whereas others occupy theentire band.

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15
Q

What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?
A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

A

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Control-Plane Nodes – Map System that manages Endpoint to Device relationships Fabric Border Nodes – A Fabric device (e.g. Core) that
connects External L3 network(s) to the SDA Fabric Fabric Edge Nodes – A Fabric device (e.g. Access or Distribution) that connects Wired
Endpoints to the SDA Fabric Fabric Wireless Controller – A Fabric device (WLC) that connects APs and Wireless Endpoints to the SDA Fabric

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16
Q

A network engineer configures a new GRE tunnel and enters the show run command. What does the output verify?
A. The tunnel will be established and work as expected
B. The tunnel destination will be known via the tunnel interface
C. The tunnel keepalive is configured incorrectly because they must match on both sites
D. The default MTU of the tunnel interface is 1500 byte.

A

Correct Answer: B

17
Q

Which router is elected the IGMP Querier when more than one router is in the same LAN segment?
A. The router with the shortest uptime
B. The router with the lowest IP address
C. The router with the highest IP address
D. The router with the longest uptime

A

Correct Answer: B

18
Q
Which unit is used to express the signal-to-noise ratio?
A. mW
B. db
C. amp
D. dbm
A
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR or S/N) is the ratio of signal power to the noise power, and its unit of expression is typically decibels (dB).
19
Q
What is used to measure the total output energy of a Wi-Fi device?
A. dBi
B. EIRP
C. mW
D. dBm
A

Correct Answer: C

20
Q
In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints?
A. DHCP
B. VXLAN
C. SXP
D. LISP
A

Correct Answer: D

21
Q
Refer to the exhibit.Which command must be applied to R2 for an OSPF neighborship to form?
A. network 20.1.1.2.0.0.0.0 area 0
B. network 20.1.1.2 255.255.0.0. area 0
C. network 20.1.1.2.0.0.255.255 area 0
D. network 20.1.1.2 255.255.255 area 0
A

Correct Answer: A

22
Q
In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings?
A. fabric control plane node
B. fabric wireless controller
C. fabric border node
D. fabric edge node
A

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SD-Access Wireless Architecture Control Plane Node –A Closer Look
Fabric Control-Plane Node is based on a LISP Map Server / Resolver
Runs the LISP Endpoint ID Database to provide overlay reachability information
+ A simple Host Database, that tracks Endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings (RLOCs)+ Host Database supports multiple types of Endpoint ID
(EID), such as IPv4 /32, IPv6 /128* or MAC/48
+ Receives prefix registrations from Edge Nodes for wired clients, and from Fabric mode WLCs for wireless clients
+ Resolves lookup requests from FE to locate Endpoints
+ Updates Fabric Edge no

23
Q
Which protocol is responsible for data plane forwarding in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?
A. VXLAN
B. IS-IS
C. OSPF
D. LISP
A

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In SD-Access the control plane is based on LISP (Locator/ID Separation Protocol), the data plane is based on VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN),
the policy plane is based on Cisco TrustSec, and the management plane is enabled and powered by Cisco DNA Center.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-design-guide.html#:~:text=In%20SD%

24
Q
An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router The peer
router has been configured using the default priority value. Which three commands are required? (Choose three.)
A. standby 300 timers 1 110
B. standby 300 priority 90
C. standby 300 priority 110
D. standby version 2
E. standby 300 preempt
F. standby version 1
A

Correct Answer: CDE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

25
Q

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of the Identity Services Engine?
A. It is leveraged for dynamic endpoint to group mapping and policy definition.
B. It provides GUI management and abstraction via apps that share context.
C. it is used to analyze endpoint to app flows and monitor fabric status
D. It manages the LISP EID database.

A

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DNA Controller – Enterprise SDN Controller (e.g. DNA Center) provides GUI management and abstraction via Apps that share context
Identity Services – External ID System(s) (e.g. ISE) are leveraged for dynamic Endpoint to Group mapping and Policy definition
Analytics Engine – External Data Collector(s) (e.g. NDP) are leveraged to analyze Endpoint to App flows and monitor fabric status
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/da_dk/assets/training/seminaria-materials/Software_Defined_Access_2017.pdf

26
Q
In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings?
A. fabric control plane node
B. fabric wireless controller
C. fabric border node
D. fabric edge node
A

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SD-Access Wireless Architecture Control Plane Node –A Closer Look
Fabric Control-Plane Node is based on a LISP Map Server / Resolver
Runs the LISP Endpoint ID Database to provide overlay reachability information
+ A simple Host Database, that tracks Endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings (RLOCs)+ Host Database supports multiple types of Endpoint ID
(EID), such as IPv4 /32, IPv6 /128* or MAC/48
+ Receives prefix registrations from Edge Nodes for wired clients, and from Fabric mode WLCs for wireless clients
+ Resolves lookup requests from FE to locate Endpoints
+ Updates Fabric Edge nodes, Border nodes with wireless client mobility and RLOC information
Reference: Click Here

27
Q
Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-LISP sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site
destination?
A. PITR
B. map resolver
C. map server
D. PETR
A

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Proxy ingress tunnel router (PITR): answer ‘PETR’ PITR is an infrastructure LISP network entity that receives packets from non-LISP sites and
encapsulates the packets to LISP sites or natively forwards them to non-LISP sites.
Reference: Click here

28
Q

In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, which two functions are performed by OMP? (Choose two.)
A. advertisement of network prefixes and their attributes
B. configuration of control and data policies
C. gathering of underlay infrastructure data
D. delivery of crypto keys
E. segmentation and differentiation of traffic

A

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

29
Q

In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node?
A. to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric
B. to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric
C. to advertise fabric IP address space to external network
D. to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric

A
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
\+ Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.