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AU IPC > Handies for IPC > Flashcards

Handies for IPC Flashcards

1
Q

What are the dimensions of the circling area for a Category A aircraft?
Category B aircraft?

A
  1. 68 NM / 3.1 KM
  2. 66 NM / 4.9 KM

AIP ENR-1.5 1.7.6 Note 3

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2
Q

Can you enter areas defined as “No Circling” when conducting a circling approach? If yes, then when is it allowed?

A

Yes. You can conduct a circling approach in areas marked as No Circling by Day VMC, provided you maintain 300’ obstacle clearance (Cat A aircraft)
AIP ENR 1.5 1.7.6

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3
Q

What are the requirements for a circling approach by day?

A

a) Remain WI the circling area.
b) Vis along the flight path not less than the vis. specified on the chart for circling approaches.
c) Maintains visual contact with the RWY environment.
d) While complying with a, b, and c, can maintain a continuous descent to the threshold at a rate that is normal for the Category of the aircraft, whilst maintaining the minimum obstacle clearance for the Category of aircraft; or
e) While complying with a, b, and c, maintains visual contact with obstacles along the flight path and maintains obstacle clearance applicable for the Category of aircraft.

AIP ENR 1.5 1.7.6

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4
Q

Define:

a) Category A aircraft; and

b) Category B aircraft.

A

a) Aircraft with Vref up to 90 KIAS.
b) Aircraft with a Vref from 91 - 120 KIAS.

AIP ENR 1.5 1.2.1

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5
Q

When can you descend below LSALT?

A
  • Don’t Vector In Very Close*
    a) DME/GNSS arrival
    b) Vectors from ATC
    c) Instrument approach
    d) VMC by day and Visual Approach
    e) Climb after take-off

AIP ENR 1.5 1.4

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6
Q

What is the required obstacle clearance for Cat A and B aircraft when manoeuvring in the Circling Area?

A

300 ft

AIP ENR 1.5 1.7.6 Note 3

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7
Q

How many degrees offset can there be between an APV and RWY centreline, and an NPA for Cat A and B aircraft?

A

a) APV - must be aligned with runway centreline
* Note - APV = Approach Procedure with vertical guidance
b) NPA - up to 30 degrees for Cat A and B aircraft

AIP ENR 1.5 - 1.8.3

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8
Q

What is the obstacle clearance gradient provided by a MAP (Missed Approach Procedure)?

A

MAP provides an aircraft climbing at a 2.5% gradient with 100 ft of clearance. If an aircraft can not achieve this gradient (eg OEI, then the pilot should add height to the MDA/DA).

AIP ENR 1.5 - 1.10.1 Note 2.

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9
Q

When must you conduct a missed approach during an IAL?

A
  • ** So Not Visual ROFL***
    a) Straight in landing and circling approach not possible.
    b) Not Visual by the MDA/DA
    c) RAIM warning/loss after IAF
    d) Outside tolerances for the aid when past the FAF
    e) Failure or navaid performance becomes suspect after the FAF
    f) Loss of visual reference while circling

AIP ENR 1.5 - 1.10.1

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10
Q

What are the tolerances for being “Established” on the following:

a) VOR
b) ILS
c) GNSS
d) NDB
e) DME Arc

A

a - c) Half scale deflection

d) 5 degrees
e) 2 nm

AIP ENR 1.5 - 1.21.2

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11
Q

What obstacle clearance does a 10 and 25 NM MSA give you?

A

1000 ft

AIP ENR 1.5 - 2.2.1

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12
Q

What are take-off minima for non-qualifying IFR Aircraft?

A

a) A ceiling of 300 ft; and
b) 2000 m visibility

PIC must ensure that terrain clearance is assured until reaching LSALT.

PIC must plan for the occurrence of an engine failure in IMC. If the pilot intends to return to the take-off aerodrome in the event of an engine failure then the take-off minima should be the landing minima for the aerodrome. Otherwise sufficient fuel and aircraft performance to get to another destination.

AIP ENR 1.5 - 4.4

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13
Q

What is the minimum take-off climb performance requirement for all aircraft?

A

a) 6% in take-off configuration with landing gear extended

CAO 20.7.4

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14
Q

What is the en-route climb performance requirement for Multi-engine IFR CHTR and AWK aircraft?

A

a) Must have the performance to maintain 1% climb gradient at all heights up to 5000 feet with the following conditions:
- Critical engine failure with propeller stopped
- Gear and flaps UP
- Live engine at MCP
- Airspeed not less than 1.2 Vs

CAO 20.7.4

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15
Q

What is the landing climb performance requirement for all aircraft?

A

a) 3.2% in ISA conditions with the following conditions:
- All engines at takeoff power
- Speed not exceeding 1.3 Vs

CAO 20.7.4

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16
Q

a) When must a pilot conduct an altimeter check?
b) What are the tolerances for an IFR altimeter?
c) When is an IFR altimeter immediately considered unserviceable

A

a) Whenever an accurate QNH is available and the aircraft is at a known elevation.
b) Tolerances:
* * +/- 60 ft = All good
* * 60 - 75 ft = Allowed to recheck at next location. If still greater than 60 ft ALT is unserviceable
* *** Greater than 75 ft = ALT immediately unserviceable

AIP ENR 1.7 - 1.2

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17
Q

What are the approved sources of actual QNH and when must the pilot have obtained and set this QNH?

A

a) ATIS, AWIS, ATC, CASA approved observers.
b) Pilot must set the actual QNH (or forecast if actual not available) before the IAF.

AIP ENR 1.5 - 5.3

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18
Q

What are the COMMS Failure procedures for VFR in Class G airspace?

A

a) Remain in VMC
b) Broadcast intentions with prefix “transmitting blind”
c) Remain VFR Class G and land at nearest suitable AD.
d) Report arrival to ATS.

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19
Q

What are the COMMS Failure procedures for IFR in any airspace?

A

a) Squawk 7600; then;
b) Listen out on ATIS and voice modulated NAVAIDS; then
c) Broadcast intentions with prefix “Transmitting Blind”; then
d) If VMC and certain of remaining VMC, then Remain VMC and proceed to nearest suitable AD.
e) If in IMC;
- proceed in accordance with latest ATC route clearance and climb to planned level (or LSALT if higher) and maintain for 3 minutes; and/or
- hold at nominated location for 3 minutes and then proceed with ATC route clearance
- If being vectored maintain last assigned vector for 2 minutes then proceed with latest ATC route clearance;
- if holding make one more hold before proceeding in accordance with ATC route clearance
f) proceed to destination in accordance with flight plan
g) carry out most appropriate approach to minimums. If visual at minimums check for light signals from tower.

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20
Q

What are the COMMS equipment requirements for an IFR CHTR and AWK aircraft?

A

a) 1x VHF and 1x HF when outside VHF range
b) 1x VHF and 1x HF when outside VHF range
* ** RPT CHT and AWK don’t need HF when outside VHF coverage if in contact with trained company personnel who can contact ATS

AIP GEN 1.5 - 1.1

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21
Q

What are the reporting requirements for an IFR aircraft taxiing at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A

a) Pilot of an IFR Aircraft must attempt to contact ATS via VHF or HF when taxiing at an uncontrolled aerodrome; and
b) If comms cannot be established, flight is permitted to continue on a broadcast basis provided contact is established once airborne; BUT
c) For IFR CHTR, RPT, and AWK flight can only continue on a broadcast basis if you have contact with your company and they have Comms with ATS; OR
d) For OTHER THAN RPT Aircraft, a SARTIME for departure has been established with a maximum of 30 mins from EOBT.

AIP ENR 1.1 - 10.1.1

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22
Q

What are the radio navigation equipment requirements for an IFR CHTR and RPT aircraft?

A

1x GNSS AND 1x ADF or VOR **(TSO 129, 145, or 146, or 196a);
***Note - TSO 129 not suitable for tracking to and approach at Alternate AD
OR
2x GNSS (TSO 145, 146, or 196a); OR

1x multi-sensor navigation system (INS + GNSS)
AND
if you plan to use ground based aids for enroute or terminal NAV (including approaches), then you require the following:
e) 2x ADF or VOR and 1x GPS/DME (look that shid up though. Some weird-ass rules)

AIP GEN 1.5 - 2.1 + 2.2

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23
Q

What is the rated coverage of a VOR?

A

a) Below 5000 feet = 60 nm
b) 5000 feet to below 10,000 feet = 90 nm
c) 10,000 feet to below 15,000 feet = 120 nm
d) 15,000 feet to below 20,000 feet = 150 nm
e) 20,000 feet and above = 180 nm

AIP GEN 1.5 - 2.3

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24
Q

What are the surveillance equipment requirements for aircraft?

A

a) Mode-S XPDR for all aircraft in Class A, B, and C airspace and ANY airspace above 10,000 feet; and
b) All aircraft in Class E below 10,000 feet (except for VFR aircraft without the capability of continuously powering a XPDR)
c) ADS-B out required for all IFR aircraft in any airspace

AIP GEN

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25
Q

What does full scale deflection represent when tracking off the GPS in ENR, TERM, and APP mode?

A

a) ENR full scale = 5 nm
b) Terminal mode full scale = 1 nm
c) APP mode full scale = 0.3 nm

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26
Q

When does the GPS transition to TERM, and APP mode?

A

a) TERM when WI 30 NM of the aerodrome.

b) APP when 2 NM from the FAF.

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27
Q

What are the pilot’s responsibilities during the conduct of a visual departure?

A

a) Climb in VMC to MSA/LSALT
b) Maintain track or heading as specified by ATC; and
c) Remain NOT LESS THAN 500 feet above the lower limit of the controlled airspace; and
d) Visually maintain obstacle clearance

AIP ENR 1.1 - 2.5.3

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28
Q

What are the requirements for a VFR departure by an IFR aircraft?

A

a) Only available at Class D aerodromes; and
b) Must comply with the VFR; and
c) Pilot responsible for separation with other aircraft; and
d) Must obtain ATC clearance before entering Class A or C airspace; and
e) Must obtain clearance to resume IFR in Class A, C, D, or E airspace; and
f) Must inform ATC when resuming IFR in Class G airspace

AIP ENR 1.1 - 2.6

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29
Q

When must you give an airborne report and what is required?

A

a) When departing a Class C or D aerodrome with surveillance services.
b) Report:
- Direction of turn and assigned heading; and
- Altitude passing; and
- Assigned level.

AIP ENR 1.1 - 2.7

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30
Q

What are the requirements for a VFR climb/descent by an IFR aircraft?

A

a) Can only be conducted in Class D or E airspace; and
b) Requires a clearance to do so; and
c) Maintain VMC cloud separation etc; and
d) Maintain obstacle clearance visually

AIP ENR

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31
Q

What are the Pilot actions during the conduct of a visual approach by DAY?

A

a) Maintain heading or track as authorised by ATC until WI 5 NM of the aerodrome; and
b) Descend as necessary but maintain a minimum of 500 feet above the lower limit of the CTA, whilst complying with CAR 157; and
c) Join the circuit as instructed by ATC.

AIP ENR 1.1 - 2.11.8.7

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32
Q

What are the actions for an IFR aircraft conducting a visual approach by NIGHT?

A

a) Maintain heading or track as directed by ATC; and
b) Maintain altitude at not less than either;
- MSA/LSALT or
- 500 feet above the LL of CTA (if higher than the above)
- Last assigned altitude if being vectored by ATC; UNTIL
c) The aircraft is WI the circling area; or
d) WI 5 nm (7 nm if the AD has an ILS/ LOC) aligned with the runway centreline and established not below slope on TVASIS or PAPI; OR
e) WI 10 nm if established not below slope on ILS/GLS glidepath, with less than full scale azimuth deflection; and
f) Join the circuit as directed by ATC.

AIP ENR 1.1 - 2.11.8.7

33
Q

What are the navigation requirements for flight under the IFR?

A

Must navigate enroute using:

a) An approved area navigation system that meets the performance requirements of the intended airspace or route; or
b) Radio navigation aids, provided the pilot comes within the rated coverage of another aid after allowing for a track error of +/- 9 degrees and makes a position fix at least once every 2 hours.

AIP ENR 1.1 - 4.1.1

34
Q

What are the Alternate Minima for an IFR aircraft (basic 3 not the ACCWPLS)

A

a) For AD’s with an instrument approach procedure, the alternate minima on the chart;
b) For AD’s with an instrument approach procedure where a TAF is unavailable or is provisional - require an alternate
c) AD’s w/o an instrument approach procedure - no more than SCT below the route LSALT + 500 feet and 8km vis

AIP ENR 1.1 - 11.7.2.10

35
Q

What are the IFR alternate minima?

** Edit this bad boy

A

a) For AD’s without an Instrument Approach - No more than SCT below the route LSALT + 500 feet and 8 KM visibility; and;
b) For AD’s with an Instrument Approach Procedure - the alternate minima specified on the IAP chart; AND
c) Aids - (For RPT and CHTR) Aircraft must have the equipment and the aerodrome must have sufficient approaches to allow for the failure of a navaid (EXCEPTION:- can disregard if forecast indicates no more than SCT below route LSALT+500 and 8KM VIS); AND
d) Cloud - No more than SCT below the alternate minima;
e) Vis - Not less than the vis specified on the approach chart; AND
f) Wind - not more than the crosswind/tailwind limit for the aircraft (inclusive of gusts); AND
g) Provisional - Forecast is NOT provisional;
h) Lighting:
- Portable = Require responsible person in attendance (otherwise alternate required)
- Standby Power = If no standby power available, then require portable lighting and responsible person (otherwise alternate required)
- PAL = If PAL and STBY, then require a responsible person available to switch on the lights if PAL fails (otherwise alternate required); AND
- Alternate AD lighting = Alternate AD can have PAL and no responsible person provided that aircraft is fitted with dual VHF or 1 VHF and 1 HF + 30 mins holding fuel (for non RPT, RPT <3500kg, and cargo only RPT)
i) Storms - No storms forecast in the vicinity of the aerodrome.

AIP ENR 1.1 - 11.8.4

36
Q

What aerodrome lighting is required for take-off and landing at night (PVT AWK and CHTR aircraft)?

A

a) RWY edge lighting; and
b) Threshold lighting; and
c) Windsock lighting; and
d) Obstacle lighting (when specified in local procedures)

AIP ENR 1.1 - 11.9.1

37
Q

When non-PAL operated lighting is used, what time period must the lights be on for, for take-off and landing?

A

a) Departure - 10 mins before departure until 30 mins after take-off; and
b) Arrival - 30 mins before arrival until landing and taxiing has been completed.

AIP ENR 1.1 - 11.9.3.1

38
Q

How should a pilot conduct a missed approach from visual circling?

A

a) Make a climbing turn towards the runway and intercept the missed approach track

AIP ENR 1.5 - 1.10.3

39
Q

What is the validity period for an IPC?

A

a) IPC is valid for 12 months commencing from the date of the test to the end of the same month in the following year.
b) You may do an IPC up to 3 months prior to the expiration date. In this case the period of validity will extend 12 months from the original expiration date (total validity period is then 15 months)

CASR 61.880

40
Q

What endorsements can you get on your CIR?

A

a) Single Engine
b) Multi-engine
c) 2D approaches
d) 3D approaches

CASR 61.890

41
Q

What are the recent experience requirements for a CIR?

A

a) 3 instrument approaches in the last 90 days (aircraft or approved Sim), 1 of which must be in the same category of aeroplane you intend to fly.
b) Must not fly a 2D Approach unless you have flown a 2D Approach in the last 90 days
c) Must not fly a 3D Approach unless you have flown a 3D Approach in the last 90 days
d) Must not fly an azimuth Approach unless you have flown an azimuth Approach in the last 90 days
e) Must not fly a CDI Approach unless you have flown a CDI Approach in the last 90 days
f) Must not fly a visual circling Approach unless your previous IPC included a visual circling approach OR you passed CIR flight test that included a circling approach in the last 12 months.

CASR 61.870

42
Q

What are the Single Pilot IFR recent experience requirements?

A

a) Must have flown at least 1 hour of single pilot IFR, including at least 1 instrument approach in the last 6 months.
Can be in a sim

CASR 61.875

43
Q

What are the requirements for utilising special alternate minima?

A

a) Aircraft must be fitted with dual ILS/VOR approach capability.
ie. 2x LOC, G/P, marker, and VOR receivers.
* *Note 1x marker receiver and 1x DME satisfies the requirement for dual marker receivers

AIP ENR 1.5 - 6.2

44
Q

What are the vertical and horizontal tracking tolerances on an ILS/GLS approach?

A

a) Pilot should maintain aircraft tracking and altitude WI half scale deflection.
b) If the LOC or Glideslope reach full scale deflection after the FAF, conduct a MAP

AIP ENR 1.5 - 7.3.1

45
Q

What are the flight instruments required for a pax carrying IFR CHTR aircraft (<5700kg)?

A

a) Airspeed Indicator
b) 2x Altimeter
c) VSI
* * NOTE: above items must be connected to alternate static source or to dual flush mounted static source.
d) Direct reading magnetic compass
e) Accurate timepiece indicating hours, mins, seconds. Pilots watch not accepted.
f) OAT
g) A means of monitoring power supply to gyro instruments
h) Pitot heat
i) Assigned altitude indicator
j) Mode C XPDR
k) Autopilot with heading and altitude hold (dual controls and 2x pilots negates the need for autopilot).

Items below require a duplicated power source unless the turn and slip indicator is powered by a source independent of the other two:

i) 2x Attitude Indicators
j) Directional Gyro
k) Turn and slip indicator

CAO 20.18

46
Q

What is the validity period required for a destination TAF or TTF?

A

a) Destination TAF period of validity must cover a period of 30 mins before and 60 mins after the planned ETA
b) Planned ETA must fall within the 3 hour validity period of the TTF.
AIP ENR 1.10 - 1.2.5

47
Q

What is the LSALT tolerance area applied to IFR routes marked on a TAC/ERC?

A

a) RNP 2
= 5NM either side of track + a 5NM semi-circle around the departure and destination aerodrome.

AIP GEN 3.3 - 4.7

48
Q

What are the aircraft lighting requirements for conducting and IFR flight at night?

A

a) Instrument illumination
- Must be fixed installation
- Instruments must be readable
- Lights must not be directed at pilots eyes
- Must have alternative power supply immediately available.
- Must have intensity control
b) Pilot Compartment Lights
- cockpit must be illuminated to allow for the study of maps and flight docs
c) Passenger Compartment Lights
d) 2x Landing Lights
e) Position and Anti-collision Lights
- Nav Lights (Red left wing, Green right wing, White tailplane facing rearwards)
- Anti-collision lights (1x flashing red light visible in all directions, or flashing white light visible in all directions [strobes])
f) Emergency lighting and a torch for each crew member.

CAO 20.18 and CAR 196

49
Q

What are the privileges of a CIR?

A

a) Holder of a CIR is authorised to pilot and aircraft:
- under the IFR
- at night under the VFR

CASR 61.855

50
Q

What are the limitations of a CIR?

A

The holder of a CIR is authorised to:
a) conduct an instrument approach only if the aircraft is suitably equipped for that kind of operation; and
b) Pilot an aircraft in a single-pilot operation provided the holder has passed a CIR flight test in a single pilot aircraft OR completed an IPC in a single-pilot aircraft; and
c) conduct a circling approach only if:
- The holder has passed a flight test in the last 12 months that included a circling approach; or
- the holders most recent IPC included a circling approach; or
- the holder is participating in an operators check and training system that includes circling approaches.
d) conduct an instrument approach only if the holder has received training on that type of approach and has demonstrated proficiency to CASA or an examiner.
e) Recent experience:
- 3 approaches in last 90 days, 1 of which must be in the same category of aircraft
- 1 2D approach in the last 90 days
- 1 3D approach in the last 90 days
- 1 Azimuth approach in the last 90 days
- 1 CDI approach in the last 90 days
OR
Operator IFR proficiency check in the last 3 months
OR
Participating in operator training and checking system
- Conduct a single-pilot flight under the IFR within the past 6 months. Duration must be at least 1 hour and include at least 1 approach. May be conducted in an approved simulator.

51
Q

What are the IFR XPDR codes?

A

a) IFR OCTA = 2000
b) IFR Class A, C, D, E = 3000

ENR 1.6 - 7.1.4

52
Q

What is the difference between RAIM loss and RAIM warning?

A

a) RAIM loss = RAIM system is unable to monitor compliance with horizontal integrity limits
b) RAIM warning = system has detected an anomaly causing positional uncertainty to exceed the horizontal integrity limits.

53
Q

What are the RNP values for enroute, terminal, approach, and missed approach?

A

a) Enroute = RNP 2 (2nm tolerance)
b) Terminal = RNP 1
c) Approach = RNP 0.3
d) Missed Approach = RNP 1

54
Q

What is the required sleep opportunity before an FDP or STBY period?

A

a) Away from home base = 8 hours sleep opportunity in the 10 hours prior to FDP
b) Home Base = 8 hours sleep op in the 12 hours prior to the FDP.

55
Q

What should you do if you have a RAIM loss or RAIM warning during an instrument approach?

A

a) RAIM loss/warning - conduct a missed approach.
If the RAIM WARNING ceases when the missed approach procedure is selected on the GPS, then the GPS May be used for tracking.
If the RAIM WARNING remains, use navaids or dead reckoning to complete the missed approach procedure.
AIP ENR 1.5 - 1.12

56
Q

Can you circle below the circling MDA?

A

a) Yes - but you can’t plan to do it.
ie. you can descend to DA/MSA on an approach (often lower than circling minima) and find that you cannot effect a landing from the SI approach. In which case you would break off the approach and begin to circle.

57
Q

What equipment is required for NVFR?

A
  • ASI
  • Altimeter
  • compass
  • timepiece
  • VSI
  • OAT
  • AH
  • DI
  • Turn and slip
  • Means of indicating if the power supply to the gyroscopic instruments is working
  • Alternate static source for ALT, ASI, VSI
  • duplicated source of power supply for AH, DI, turn coordinator

Appendix IV CAO 20.18

58
Q

What operations can you do NVFR?

A
  • AWK and PVT
  • Freight only CHTR
  • Pax carrying CHTR; BUT
  • only with CASA approval; and
  • Approved turbine engine aircraft
    CAR 174B
59
Q

What operations can you do single engine IFR?

A

a) PVT
b) AWK
c) Freight only CHTR
d) Pax carrying CHTR/RPT; BUT
- only with CASA approval
- approved turbine powered aircraft

60
Q

What are the autopilot requirements for flight under the IFR?

A

For RPT; CHTR; and Air ambulance/flying doctor operations:
Require and autopilot with the following capabilities:
a) roll and pitch axis
b) heading hold
c) altitude hold
EXCEPTION: Do not need an autopilot if the aircraft has:
a) Dual controls
b) second qualified pilot onboard.
If the autopilot suffers a failure of any of the capabilities listed, IFR ops can continue for 3 days (RPT EXCLUDED)

CAO 20.18

61
Q

What are the speed limitations for a CAT B aircraft?

A

VAT = 91 - 120

Initial & intermediate approach point = 120 - 180

Reversal procedure = 140

FAF = 85 - 130

Visual circling = 135

Missed approach = 150

AIP ENR 1.5 - 14

62
Q

What are the general aircraft equipment requirements (excluding nav aids and instruments) for IFR ops?

A

a) autopilot (roll, pitch, heading, altitude hold) for CHTR, RPT, and Air Ambo/Flying Doctor ops
UNLESS equipped with dual controls and two pilots

b) Assigned altitude indicator for aircraft in CTA
c) altitude alerting system for piston engine and unpressurised turbine aircraft about 15,000 ft

SERVICEABILITY
RPT & CHTR: All equipment must be serviceable prior to takeoff unless it is approved by CASA, part of an MEL, or a pax comfort item only.
CAO 20.18

63
Q

What are the radio navigation equipment requirements for AWK?

A

a) 1x GNSS certified to TSO 129 or higher; and
b) 1x ADF or VOR

OR

c) 1x GNSS certified to TSO 145, 146, or 196a

OR

c) Multi sensor navigation system including GNSS

64
Q

What are the IFR landing minima for AD’s without an instrument approach procedure (day and night)?

A

IFR Day - visual approach requirements

IFR Night - VMC from LSALT WI 3 nm

AIP ENR 1.5 para 4.7.1

65
Q

What are the max FDP’s for 0500 - 0559 start, and;
0600 - 0659 start; and
0700 - 1159 start?

(Appendix 5)

A

11 hours
11.5 hours
12 hours

66
Q

How many days off required under Appendix 5?
14 day period
21 day period

A

1 day and 2 local nights per 14 days

3 days and 3 local nights per 21 days

67
Q

How many FDP extensions can you make per 7 day period?

Appendix 5

A

2 extended FDP’s per 7 days

68
Q

What is the maximum FDP extension you can make, and how must you adjust the subsequent ODP (Off Duty Period)?

A

Max 2 hour extension

Add 1 hour to ODP for every 30 mins worked beyond the 12 hour FDP limit.

69
Q

What is the definition of an early start and how many early starts can you make in a 7 day period?

A

Early FDP is start time between midnight and 0459

No more than 4 early starts per 7 day period

70
Q

What are the required Off Duty Periods for a normal FDP?

And for extended FDP?

(Appendix 5)

A

If encompassing 2300 and 0559
= 8 hours
If not encompassing 2300 and 0559 = 10 hours

If FDP extended, the ODP before and after the extended FDP must be 12 hours.

71
Q

What are the cumulative flight time limits under Appendix 5

A

50 hours / 7 days
170 hours / 28 days
450 / 90 days
1200 / 365 days

72
Q

What errors could a VOR experience?

A

AVGAS

Airborne equipment errors
Vertical polarisation error - antenna banked outside horizontal plane
Ground station errors 
Aggregate errors - sum of all errors
Site error - surrounding terrain
73
Q

What are the requirements for departure reports?

A

When departing CTAF:
and expecting to be identified
- Location reference the departure AD, level passing, level climbing to, estimate for first waypoint
And NOT expecting to be identified
- Departed (location), time, tracking, level climbing to, estimate for first waypoint

Departing Class D AD:
- Tracking (from), SID, level climbing to

74
Q

What are the equipment requirements for an AWK aircraft?

A
  • ASI
  • ALT
  • Direct reading magnetic compass (or an RMI with a direct reading magnetic compass as a backup)
  • Timepiece (watch acceptable)
  • VSI
  • OAT
  • AI
  • DI
  • Turn and slip indicator
  • Means of indicating whether the power supply for the gyroscopic instruments is working sufficiently
  • Pitot heat
  • Alternate static source or balanced pair of flush mounted static vents
75
Q

What are the requirements for a multi-engine aircraft instrument endorsement?

A
  • Multi-engine aeroplane class rating
  • 10 hours dual instrument time in a multi-engine aircraft/approved sim
  • 5 hours aeronautical experience at night in an aircraft of sim, including at least one hour of dual flight and one hour of night circuits
76
Q

What errors can an NDB experience?

A
  • MINTCHAT*
  • Mountains = reflections from terrain
  • Interference = co-channel interference
  • Night error = reflections from ionosphere
  • Thunderstorms = emit similar signals
  • Coastal refraction
  • Height effect = lower altitude can reduce range
  • Airborne equipment errors
  • Terrain = the medium through which the signal is transmitted (eg sand vs. water)
77
Q

What are the requirements for calculating LSALT for unpublished routes?

A
  • Where the highest obstacle is more than 360 feet above the height determined for terrain, the LSALT must be 1000 above the highest obstacle
  • Where the highest obstacle is less than 360 feet above the terrain, or there is no charted obstacle, the LSALT must be 1360 feet above the elevation determined for terrain
  • Where the highest obstacle is less than 500 feet, the min LSALT is 1500 feet
78
Q

What are the landing minima for AD’s with an approved non-precision approach?

A
  • The minima specified on the instrument approach chart
    HOWEVER if HIAL is installed at the runway but not available, must add 900m to the LOC visibility requirements

AIP ENR 1.5 4.7.2

AU IPC (1 decks)

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