Hand Fingertip Amputations, Dupuytren's, Vascular Flashcards
A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department after sustaining amputation of the right long finger involving an avulsion mechanism. The patient is taken to surgery for replantation. During surgery, extensive vascular injury is seen, and an approximately 2-cm vascular gap of the digital arteries and veins results following excision of injured vessels. Which of the following interventions is most likely to increase the probability of functional digit replantation?
A) Bone shortening
B) Medicinal leech therapy
C) Postoperative warming
D) Systemic heparin
E) Vein grafts
The correct response is Option E.
In patients who sustain digital amputation as a result of an avulsion mechanism, there is often an extensive zone of injury that precludes primary vascular anastomosis. Vein grafts permit vascular anastomosis outside of the zone of injury.
Bone shortening can sometimes allow excision of the injured vasculature and primary anastomosis. However, in this case, bone shortening is unlikely to make up for a 2-cm vascular gap.
Longer vascular gaps can be addressed with vein grafts. Despite the fact that vein grafts involve an additional anastomosis per vessel compared to primary anastomosis, they have been found to exhibit similar rates of thrombosis and replantation survival.
Medicinal leech therapy can help address venous congestion, but is typically considered when venous congestion occurs after attempt at surgical replantation, or if no suitable veins can be found for anastomosis.
While postoperative warming and systemic heparin are often used adjunctively in patients undergoing replantation, they have not been demonstrated to increase the likelihood of survival of the replanted part, and would most likely not have as significant an effect as restoring perfusion to the amputated part using vein grafts.
2018
An otherwise healthy, nonsmoking 30-year-old mechanic has the long, ring, and little fingers amputated sharply through Zone II of the right hand. The amputated digits are stored appropriately, and he is rushed to surgery within 2 hours of the accident. Which of the following sequences is the best method of replantation?
A) Digit by digit: bone, tendons, arteries, nerves, veins
B) Digit by digit: bone, tendons, arteries, veins, nerves
C) Structure by structure: bone, nerves, tendons, arteries, veins
D) Structure by structure: bone, tendons, arteries, nerves, veins
E) Structure by structure: tendons, bones, veins, arteries, nerves
The correct response is Option D.
The most efficient sequence to perform the replantation is structure by structure: bone, tendons, arteries, nerves, and then veins. It has been shown that the time to complete the procedure is significantly shorter if the same anatomic structure on each severed digit is fixed before repairing the next structures, as opposed to completing all aspects of the replantation one digit at a time. With respect to the sequence of repair of the severed structures, the general thought is to have a stable construct prior to starting the delicate microscopic repairs. However, the technical sequence used by microsurgeons varies greatly.
The only consistent agreement is starting with bony shortening and fixation. The traditional sequence that follows is extensor and flexor tendon repair, and then vessel/nerve repair. However, individual surgeon preference and patient circumstances dictate the usual sequence thereafter. Some surgeons like to start dorsally and complete the extensor tendon, venous, and skin repair first, and then complete the volar structures next. On the volar side, some surgeons repair the tendon first, followed by the artery and nerve, while others fix the artery and nerve first, followed by the tendon. There are those who believe that the nerve is better repaired in a bloodless field, so that should be done first. Others feel that repairing the vein first reduces blood loss and keeps a bloodless field more reliably for better vision. In patients who present with long ischemia time, it may be beneficial to anastomose the artery first, because this provides the advantages of earlier revascularization and allows easier detection of the most functional veins by their spurting backflow. In short, any of these sequences is fine, as long as it follows the bony fixation.
The other options are incorrect sequences for the above reasons.
2018
A 56-year-old woman with a history of systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) is evaluated for intractable pain and progressive ulceration to the right index and middle fingers despite medical management. Duplex ultrasonography shows no identifiable vascular occlusion in the affected digits. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?
A) Interposition bypass grafting
B) Intra-arterial TPA
C) Sympathectomy
D) Thrombectomy
E) Venous arterialization
The correct response is Option C.
For patients who have patent arterial inflow on imaging, spasm is likely to be responsible for their ischemia. Spasm is most common in those with autoimmune disease. Digital sympathectomy involves stripping the adventitia from the radial, ulnar, and digital arteries in an effort to decrease sympathetic input that is the presumed cause of pathologic vasoconstriction. Vascular occlusion with a satisfactory distal target may require an interposition bypass. Occlusion without a distal target for bypass may require venous arterialization. In the absence of evidence of occlusion, there is no indication for thrombolytic therapy.
2018
A 25-year-old man sustained traumatic amputation of the nondominant index finger 3 hours ago and requests replantation. Which of the following factors has the greatest influence on survival of the injured digit after replantation?
A) Mechanism of injury
B) Number of vessels repaired
C) Patient’s smoking status
D) Time from injury to replantation
E) Use of anticoagulation
The correct response is Option A.
The mechanism of injury has the greatest influence on survival of replanted digits. Injuries from sharp devices that leave a clean cut with little or no crush component are the most amenable to replantation. The more the tissue is crushed or avulsed, resulting in greater vessel injury, the less likely the digit will survive. No studies have shown that the use of anticoagulants changes survival rates. Smoking decreases blood flow in digits, but has not been widely studied in replantation. Fingers have no muscle, which is the tissue most susceptible to ischemia, so digits can tolerate long delays as long as they are treated correctly. At least two veins per artery have been shown to help prevent venous congestion.
2018
A 58-year-old man is to undergo excision of a painful ulnar artery aneurysm of the palm, which has been causing ulnar nerve compression. Preoperative examination shows a digital/brachial index (DBI) of 0.5 in the small finger. After excision of the diseased segment, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Arterial reconstruction
B) Botulinum toxin type A injection
C) Extended periarterial sympathectomy
D) Periarterial injection of 2% lidocaine
E) Postoperative anticoagulation
The correct response is Option A.
Ulnar artery aneurysms may cause symptoms because of local mass effect, distal embolization, and/or episodic vasospasm. Ligation of the ulnar artery to exclude the aneurysm from hand circulation can effectively eliminate risk for embolism, but may rob the digits of necessary blood flow if there is not enough collateral circulation from the deep arch or other sources. Measuring the digital-brachial index (DBI) is an effective way to assess whether or not there is sufficient blood flow to the digits. A normal DBI is between 0.75 and 0.97. Values equal to or less than 0.7 indicate inadequate perfusion. Below a DBI of 0.5, tissue loss is inevitable. Following ulnar artery ligation, if the DBI is below 0.7, then reconstruction of the ulnar artery is recommended rather than simple aneurysm excision or ligation. This is typically accomplished with a reversed vein graft or an arterial graft (e.g., from the lateral femoral circumflex system).
Anticoagulation alone, or anti-vasospastic drugs, such as botulinum toxin type A or lidocaine, are not sufficient in this clinical situation, where blood flow is limited because of blockage of flow. While sympathectomy could improve circulation in cases of vasospasm, this patient had no history of this, and sympathectomy alone would not be a substitute for arterial reconstruction.
2018
A 53-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of an avulsion degloving injury to the left nondominant thumb sustained 3 hours ago. The amputated part is not retrievable. Physical examination shows loss of skin from the interphalangeal joint distally on both volar and dorsal surfaces. The distal phalanx and flexor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis longus tendons are intact. He has no other associated injuries. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of reconstruction of the thumb?
A) Amputation revision at the mid-proximal phalanx
B) Great toe wraparound flap
C) Radial forearm osteocutaneous flap
D) Second toe-to-thumb transfer
E) Volar neurovascular advancement flap
The correct response is Option B.
Thumb reconstruction remains a difficult challenge for hand surgeons. Amputations of the skin distally may be covered with palmar advancement flaps; however, this technique is only limited to wounds less than 50% of the palmar surface of the thumb distal to the interphalangeal joint. In order to preserve length and function in more proximal amputations, either a regional or distant flap is required. The toe-to-thumb wraparound flap requires a microvascular anastomosis of digital vessels and nerves, providing excellent sensation and cosmetic results. The toe donor site can be covered with a skin graft in order to preserve length.
The volar neurovascular advancement flap would not adequately cover a defect this size. Amputation at the mid-proximal phalanx would result in a very short thumb with loss of function. The radial forearm flap may be utilized to cover the above defect; however, it would lack adequate sensation. Any osteocutaneous radial forearm flap would not be indicated since there is preservation of the bone. Similarly, a second toe-to-thumb transfer would not be indicated since there is preservation of bone in this patient.
2018
A 21-year-old man sustains traumatic amputation of the right thumb at the level of the metacarpal base. Pollicization should include osteosynthesis of which of the following?
A) Index metacarpal base to trapezium
B) Index metacarpal to thumb metacarpal
C) Index middle phalanx to thumb metacarpal
D) Index proximal phalanx to thumb metacarpal
E) Index proximal phalanx to trapezium
The correct response is Option D.
Transfer of the index finger to the thumb position on the hand (pollicization) typically transfers the proximal phalanx to the thumb metacarpal, as long as the base of the thumb metacarpal is preserved. Transfer of the middle phalanx or metacarpal of the index would create a neo-thumb that is too short or too large, respectively. Obliterating an intact carpometacarpal joint by transferring the index metacarpal to the trapezium would eliminate palmar and ulnar abduction of the thumb and compromise global hand function.
2018
A 27-year-old man is brought to emergency department because of a thumb avulsion injury measuring 3 × 3 cm. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the best option for sensate, soft-tissue coverage?
A) Cross-finger flap
B) First dorsal metacarpal artery flap
C) Moberg flap
D) Pedicled groin flap
E) Skin grafting

The correct response is Option B.
There are several sensate options for thumb pulp deformities. These include neurovascular island flaps, Moberg flaps, free toe pulp flaps, and the first dorsal metacarpal artery flap (FDMA). Cross finger flaps, skin grafts, and pedicle groin flaps do not have innate innervation. The defect in the question involves the entire pulp of the thumb overlying the distal phalanx and is too large for a Moberg advancement flap.
The FDMA flap is supplied by its eponymous artery, which travels in the fascia overlying the index metacarpal and supplies the skin overlying the dorsum of the proximal phalanx. The vessel is accompanied superficially by a branch of the radial nerve that provides neural activation to the skin overlying the proximal phalanx of the index finger. The flap can be transposed to provide sensate coverage of the tip of the thumb, and can provide sufficient size to resurface relatively large defects.
Cortical reorientation is the fact that the brain recognizes a stimulus from the flap area as a stimulus from the thumb, and not from the index finger. This process takes some time, but is usually complete after 2 years. Average static two-point discrimination in these flaps utilized for thumb resurfacing is 10 to 11 mm.
Use of the FDMA flap for resurfacing of the thumb pulp has been compared to heterodigital island flaps in several studies. Both remain options to be considered, but the ease of elevation, limited dissection, and acceptable donor site morbidity make the FDMA flap a common primary option for thumb tip resurfacing.
2018
A 45-year-old woman with systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) has severe Raynaud phenomenon. A photograph is shown. Periarterial injection of botulinum toxin type A is being considered for treatment in this patient. This treatment is believed to relieve vasospasm in Raynaud phenomenon by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Blocking fast sodium channels in axonal gap junctions
B) Increasing the activity of chronically down-regulated group C nerve fiber nociceptors
C) Inhibiting Rho/Rho kinase activity
D) Obstructing myofibroblast contractile activity in vascular smooth muscle
E) Promoting substance P secretion/receptor sensitivity

The correct response is Option C.
Several mechanisms have been proposed to explain the effect of botulinum toxin type A (Botox) to inhibit Raynaud phenomenon in patients with scleroderma. Studies have demonstrated inhibition of Rho/Rho kinase activity, inhibition of substance P secretion and receptor sensitivity, and decreasing the activity of chronically up-regulated C-fiber nociceptors all to occur in models of Raynaud phenomenon that responded to Botox treatment. Fast sodium channels conduct axonal signals AT in gap junctions, but have not been shown to be affected by Botox. Myofibroblasts may be involved in late fibrosis of scleroderma patients but do not exist within the vascular smooth muscle.
2018
A 23-year-old woodworker sustains an injury to the dominant left thumb that involves the loss of less than 2 cm of the distal pulp with exposed bone from a planing machine. Which of the following reconstruction methods is most likely to provide normal sensation to the volar pulp of this patient’s thumb?
A) Cross-finger flap from the long finger
B) Islandized Moberg flap
C) Flag flap
D) Thenar flap
E) Venous flow-through flap
The correct response is Option B.
The venous flow-through flap was described for small defects of the dorsum of a digit or hand where end-to-end anastomoses of the included veins on the proximal and distal edges of the flap can provide venous outflow for the digit and supply the flap. A defect from the distal, volar surface of the thumb would not have any veins large enough to use. A cross-finger flap is a classical solution to cover the volar aspect of a digit. The other mentioned flaps are also excellent options for volar thumb coverage, except for the thenar flap. The thenar flap is used for distal pulp defects of the fingers in children. The only flap that maintains the normal sensation of the thumb pulp is the Moberg flap, which advances the volar aspect of the thumb on its neurovascular pedicles. The islandized (O’Brien) modification was to make a transverse incision at the base of the thumb and dissect the neurovascular bundles to allow the flap to travel further distally, and then placing a skin graft over the proximal defect.
2018
A 30-year-old man is scheduled to undergo transhumeral amputation after unsalvageable brachial artery occlusion. A photograph is shown. Use of targeted muscle reinnervation may allow improved functional recovery by which of the following means?
A) Better bulk and durability by preventing denervation atrophy of muscles at the amputation stump
B) Better prosthesis control by input from median and ulnar nerve signals
C) Better sensory detection in the prosthesis by positioning amputated nerve stumps closer to the skin closure
D) More precise control of an osseointegrated body-powered prosthesis
E) Preservation of greater bony length in the amputation stump

The correct response is Option B.
A body-powered prosthesis uses motion of remaining joints, such as the gleno-humeral and scapulo-thoracic joints, to control an upper extremity prosthesis.
Targeted muscle reinnervation (TMR) would not affect function of a body-powered prosthesis. TMR positions amputated nerve stumps well within the remaining muscle and far from the cutaneous closure. Current prosthetics are not yet able to detect sensation and transmit this to the patient. Having nerve stumps near the amputation closure site increases the risk for neuroma pain.
TMR has not been shown to decrease denervation atrophy of residual upper extremity muscles. TMR has gained increasing acceptance in the treatment of patients who have undergone or will undergo upper extremity amputation. Resected nerves, such as the median and ulnar nerves, can be coapted to nerve branches to remaining muscles, such as the pectoralis and deltoid. Transcutaneous EMG detectors are positioned over these reinnervation sites to detect nerve signal, which a myoelectric prosthesis can then use to better control distal joints.
TMR does not affect the amount of bony length that can be preserved in an amputation.
2018
A 54-year-old man comes to the office because of an injury to the long finger of the dominant right hand sustained when it was pinched in a machine at work. Physical examination shows a 1.3-cm loss of pulp tissue with no exposed bone. To preserve function and sensation in the digit, which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
A) Amputation at the distal interphalangeal joint
B) Cross-finger flap
C) Moist dressings
D) Thenar flap
E) Volar V-to-Y advancement flap
The correct response is Option C.
Fingertip injuries are one of the most common problems encountered in hand surgery. The long finger is the most common finger involved. The patient’s age, occupation, and compliance with treatment should be considered when determining treatment. When possible, if the patient has no exposed bone or only a small area of exposed bone, treatment with dressing changes offers excellent results. There is no donor site morbidity, scarring is often minimal, and return of sensation is generally excellent. Patients, however, need to be cautioned that a prolonged period of dressing changes is required, often lasting 3 to 6 weeks.
Amputation at the distal interphalangeal joint would result in loss of function of the profundus tendon and grip weakness. Neurovascular island flaps and V-to-Y advancement flaps offer excellent closure options when digital length needs to be preserved and there is significant exposure of bone. However, with these flaps there is a donor defect and decreased sensation. Care must be taken when using a cross-finger flap or thenar flap in older patients to avoid contractures and stiffness of the digits.
2018
A 45-year-old woman with scleroderma is evaluated because of a 2-year history of severe resting pain in both hands. She does not smoke cigarettes. Despite appropriate medication therapy, she has had no relief of her symptoms. Injection of botulinum toxin type A into which of the following locations is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s Raynaud phenomenon?
A) Around the stellate ganglion
B) Intradermal at the wrist
C) Intradermal in the palm
D) Perivascular at the wrist
E) Perivascular in the palm
The correct response is Option E.
Injection of botulinum toxin around the digital vessels in the palm has been shown to decrease pain associated with vasospastic disorders like Raynaud phenomenon. This is a relatively quick, easy, and low-risk method of treating a patient with incapacitating ischemic pain of the hand. The exact mechanism by which botulinum toxin works in this clinical scenario is still under investigation, but some theories suggest an effect on the vessels and/or nerves of the hand through inhibition of sympathetic nerves, sensory nerves (c-fibers), substance P, and/or other signal transduction pathways. Studies show a 75 to 100% reduction in pain and up to 50% healing of chronic ulcers. Approximately 10 units of botulinum toxin is bathed around each of the digital neurovascular bundles in the palm. The most common side effect reported is temporary minor intrinsic hand weakness.
Injecting botulinum toxin in the skin or too proximally in the wrist has not shown the same response as around the digital neurovascular bundles in the palm. Surgical sympathectomies by stripping the adventitia of the digital and wrist vessels have also shown some success in symptom control. Stellate ganglion blocks have also been used for this purpose among others (complex regional pain syndrome); however, local anesthetics, not botulinum toxin, are used to block the ganglion.
2017
A 27-year-old man who is right-hand–dominant and works as a manual laborer comes to the emergency department for evaluation 6 hours after inadvertently incurring a high-pressure latex paint injection to the volar aspect of his left index finger. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Admission to the hospital and intravenous administration of antibiotics
B) Operative exploration
C) Radial gutter splint with follow-up in 3 days
D) Topical application of acetone
E) Warm compresses, elevation, and observation
The correct response is Option B.
Emergent incision and drainage is mandatory for high-pressure paint gun injuries. Although clinically these may appear benign and/or superficial, there is often significant underlying injury. Even small amounts of material can lead to compartment syndrome, poor perfusion, and closed space infections resulting in tissue necrosis and ultimately, amputation. History is critical, but plain films may be used to confirm the diagnosis, as both latex and the less common oil-based paints are easily seen. Grease may be radiolucent or radiopaque, depending on lead content. The most commonly injected materials are paint and grease but can also include paint solvents and fuel oil.
Nearly all reported cases involved male occupational injuries and injury to the non-dominant second or third digit, as in this case. These machines can generate pressures of 2,000 to 12,000 pounds per square inch (psi), which far exceeds the 100 psi needed to break the skin. These extreme pressures can propel injected material through the skin and subcutaneous tissues down to the bone or along fascial planes, tendon sheaths, and neurovascular bundles.
The overall rate of amputation was 30% and particularly related to the location of injury and type of material injected. Optimal time for wide surgical debridement was within 6 hours of injury. Other studies have documented an amputation rate of approximately 40% when surgery is performed within 6 hours, and an amputation rate of 57% when surgery is delayed beyond 6 hours. The amputation risk is as high as 87% without treatment or if treatment is further delayed.
None of the other interventions listed are appropriate for this type of emergent injury.
2017

A 28-year-old, right-hand–dominant woman is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a severe crush injury to the right upper extremity during a rollover motor vehicle collision. Examination shows multiple digit amputations and comminuted fractures of the distal radius and ulna. After multiple debridements, the limb is unsalvageable. Which of the following is the shortest stump length distal to the elbow that is required when fitting a prosthesis to maintain native elbow motion?
A) 3 cm
B) 8 cm
C) 13 cm
D) 18 cm
E) 23 cm

The correct response is Option B.
The minimum stump length required for prosthesis fitting is 5 to 10 cm distal to the elbow. Major upper extremity amputations are defined as amputations at or proximal to the wrist joint. Data from 2005 estimate that upper extremity amputations account for 34% of the 1.6 million people living in the US with limb loss, and 41,000 of these were considered major amputations. Limb salvage is always the goal of the initial surgical management; however, the decision to amputate is made when limb salvage will result in a less functional outcome for the patient.
The ideal stump has adequate length, durable soft tissue, minimal edema, and a tapered shape with minimal scar tissue that is not directly over the bony prominence. Muscle preservation is important for the potential use of a myoelectric prosthesis.
In order to preserve elbow function and allow for fitting of a prosthesis, at least 5 cm of a bony stump is required. Although shorter transradial stumps do not allow for pronation and supination, preservation of elbow function is felt to be worthwhile functionally. Transfer of the biceps tendon to the ulna should be considered in shorter transradial stumps to decrease the risk of developing a flexion contracture at the elbow.
Amputations at least 10 cm proximal to the wrist or at the junction of the middle and distal 1/3 are felt to be ideal in terms of muscle coverage, stability of prosthesis fit, and forearm rotation, but not required. More distal stumps can be problematic in terms of soft-tissue coverage over bone and limb-length discrepancy to accommodate the wrist unit of the prosthesis.
2017
A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of ring avulsion of the right ring finger with complete amputation through the proximal phalanx. Which of the following factors is most likely to influence survival of the replanted finger in this patient?
A) Associated fracture of the middle phalanx
B) Level of amputation
C) Need for skin graft
D) Number of dorsal veins repaired/grafted
E) Patient history of cigarette smoking
The correct response is Option D.
The only factor that correlated with survival in the reported series and reviews is the repair and/or grafting of two or more dorsal veins. Reports that did not compare groups recommend repairing at least two dorsal veins of replanted digits.
Smoking, level of amputation, need for skin grafting, and associated fractures were not found to have any effect on survival of digits that had ring avulsion injuries.
2017
A 45-year-old woman comes to the office because of a split in the nail plate following a previous crush injury to the left index finger. The patient desires improvement in the appearance of the nail. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Application of topical phenol
B) Excision/repair of the nail bed
C) Nail plate avulsion
D) Oral antifungal therapy
E) Split-thickness skin grafting

The correct response is Option B.
The most appropriate method of treatment is excision and repair of the nail bed.
The anatomy of the nail consists of a nail plate, nail fold, and a nail bed. The nail bed is the soft tissue beneath the nail plate, which is composed of the germinal matrix proximally and the sterile matrix distally. Most nail plate growth (90%) is provided by the germinal matrix. In cases of trauma, adherence between the nail fold dorsally and nail bed volarly can result in synechiae, interfering with nail growth and resulting in a longitudinal split in the nail. It is important to prevent adherence of dorsal and palmar elements by splinting the nail fold open during the healing phase. This can be accomplished by replacement of the nail plate if available, or using a piece of foil from the suture packet. This patient presents with a split nail deformity after previous trauma. There is scarring between the nail fold and the nail bed, resulting in a longitudinal split with inability to allow for growth of the nail plate in the central portion. Proper treatment consists of excision of the nail bed scar, with repair of the nail bed. Splinting of the nail fold during the healing period will prevent recurrent scarring of the dorsal fold to the palmar surface. In cases where there is significant scar tissue and inability to close the resultant defect after excision, grafting of the nail bed may be required. A split graft of the sterile matrix can be performed if the deficit is only present distally. If the germinal matrix is involved, a full-thickness graft is needed.
Avulsion of the nail plate alone will not eliminate the scarring at the proximal nail fold.
Oral antifungal therapy is useful in treatment of fungal onychomycosis.
Complete excision of the nail bed and split-thickness skin grafting can be used in nail ablation, but would result in absence of the nail and not yield a more cosmetic appearance.
Topical phenol application has been used for nail matricectomy, but can produce irregular tissue destruction and would result in loss of the nail.
2017

A 32-year-old, right-hand–dominant man is brought to the emergency department 3 hours after sustaining an avulsion injury to the left thumb. The avulsed digit was immediately placed on ice and transported with the patient. Photographs are shown. Replantation fails; the necrotic digit is removed and the wound closed. The carpometacarpal (CMC) joint is disarticulated. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of reconstruction in this patient?
A) Great toe to thumb transfer
B) Metacarpal lengthening
C) Osteoplastic reconstruction
D) Pollicization of index finger
E) Web deepening

The correct response is Option D.
This patient has a proximal thumb avulsion with disruption of the carpometacarpal (CMC) joint. In this scenario, the best reconstructive option (besides successful replantation) is pollicization of the index finger. Reconstruction after thumb amputation, as with congenital deficiencies, depends largely on the length of the remaining skeletal structure. One can lose most of the distal phalanx and still retain good overall thumb function. Amputations that involve the proximal phalanx or the metacarpal suffer from deficient bone length and procedures that add length, like distraction, toe to thumb, or osteoplastic reconstruction. When the entire metacarpal is absent, the aforementioned procedures will not be effective. Pollicization will restore thumb length and provide very good function.
2017
A 55-year-old, right-hand–dominant man who is a machinist comes to the office because of inability to fully extend the right ring finger. Photographs are shown. The patient reports that his symptom began 5 years ago and has worsened progressively. Examination shows a 45-degree flexion contracture of the right ring finger (PIP) joint during attempts at full extension. All other joints demonstrate full extension, and the patient can create a complete fist during flexion. Regarding treatment options for this patient, which of the following interventions is most likely to provide the longest relief of his symptom prior to recurrence?
A) Collagenase injection and manipulation
B) Limited fasciectomy
C) Percutaneous aponeurotomy with lipografting
D) Percutaneous needle fasciotomy
E) Radiation therapy and splinting

The correct response is Option B.
Radiotherapy has been proposed as a potential treatment to slow or stop progression of Dupuytren contractures (palmar fibromatosis). A prospective study of radiotherapy revealed no greater efficacy than observation as an intervention for slowing the disease process. There is no evidence to suggest radiotherapy for correction of an established contracture.
Rijssen and colleagues established quantitative criteria for recurrence, using an increase of total passive flexion contracture of 30 or greater, compared to the 6-week follow-up values in previously treated joints. After 5 years, their recurrence rate following percutaneous needle fasciotomy was 85%; 21% for limited fasciectomy; and 32% of joints successfully treated with Clostridial collagenase. Percutaneous aponeurotomy with lipografting is an experimental technique which has shown some promise with correction of contractures and prevention of recurrence, but the evidence is level 4, with no controlled studies looking at this technique, in comparison to other established techniques.
Although limited fasciectomy provides the greatest degree of initial correction for Dupuytren contractures, as well as the longest period prior to recurrence, the costs associated with the procedure are by far the highest. When comparing the QALY costs of three interventions (limited fasciectomy, percutaneous needle fasciotomy, and collagenase injection), limited fasciectomy yielded the highest cost per QALY. The authors emphasize that this does not indicate limited fasciectomy is an inappropriate intervention—only that it is relatively the most expensive.
2017
A 19-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of pain and swelling of the left lower extremity after it was pinned beneath a large granite stone for 2 hours. On physical examination, the left leg is swollen, tense, and erythematous; a palpable pulse is noted. X-ray studies are negative for fracture. The patient reports marked pain that is uncontrolled by increasing doses of narcotics. Pain on passive movement of the ankle and toes is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Angiography
B) Compression wrap
C) CT scan
D) Duplex ultrasonography
E) Fasciotomy
The correct response is Option E.
The most appropriate next step is fasciotomy.
The patient is exhibiting signs of compartment syndrome after sustaining a significant crush injury to the lower extremity. Signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include pain with passive stretch, increased pressure on palpation, paresthesias, paralysis, pallor, and pulselessness.
Early recognition and treatment are necessary to prevent permanent damage. The pressure within the muscles increases, and prevents blood flow to the area and capillary exchange of nutrients. Fasciotomy is recommended if compartment pressure exceeds 30 mm Hg, or if the difference between intracompartmental pressure and diastolic blood pressure is less than 30 mm Hg. If left untreated, ischemic necrosis to the muscles can result, causing permanent disability.
Compartment pressures can be measured by a handheld manometer, or the method of Whitesides with an arterial line setup. Operative fasciotomy is indicated to release the compartment pressures and prevent tissue loss and muscle necrosis. Loss of pulse typically occurs later in the spectrum of findings.
Angiography would be useful in evaluating vasculature and blood flow to the lower extremity. Typically pain with passive stretch does not occur in cases of arterial insufficiency.
Duplex ultrasound is used to look for deep venous thrombosis, which can be a source of pain and swelling in the lower extremity. This is more typical in the postoperative period or after prolonged immobilization. In this case, the mechanism of injury would prompt urgent fasciotomy.
Compression wrap and elevation are used in treatment of venous stasis and lymphedema, which is unlikely to be the cause of swelling in this case of acute trauma.
CT scan can provide better detailed imaging, but would not be indicated in this situation and would delay treatment.
2017
A 24-year-old, right-hand–dominant man is brought to the emergency department after sharp amputation of the index, long, and ring fingers of the left hand at the middle phalanx level sustained in a rollover motor vehicle collision. The digits are appropriately preserved. Before replantation surgery is performed, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Administer aspirin orally
B) Administer subcutaneous heparin
C) Obtain cervical spine x-ray
D) Obtain x-rays of the hand and digits
E) Predissection of the amputated digits
The correct response is Option C.
The NEXUS Criteria were developed to help physicians determine whether cervical spine imaging could be safely avoided in appropriate patients. The NEXUS literature defines a distracting injury as “a condition thought by the clinician to be producing pain sufficient to distract the patient from a second (neck) injury.” Similarly, the Canadian C-spine rule describes distracting injuries as “injuries […] that are so severely painful that the neck examination is unreliable.” It also must be recognized that the surgeon and ER staff can be “distracted” by what appears to be the overwhelming injury. Trauma evaluation algorithms strictly apply.
A patient involved in a rollover motor vehicle accident has significant mechanism of injury to warrant a complete trauma evaluation.
All other answers here are appropriate to prepare for the operating room AFTER the initial trauma clearance is obtained.
2017
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a crush injury to the index finger of his right dominant hand, resulting in amputation through the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. X-ray study shows a comminuted fracture of the proximal phalanx. Which of the following is the most significant CONTRAINDICATION to replantation in this patient?
A) Children have a difficult time adapting to functional deficits
B) The index finger is expendable
C) The mechanism and multiple-level nature of the injury preclude a functional result
D) Microvascular anastomosis is unlikely to be successful in a child of this age
E) Replantation will adversely affect epiphyseal growth
The correct response is Option C.
In the patient described, the most significant contraindication to replantation is the mechanism (crush injury) and multiple-level nature of the injury. It is highly unlikely that replantation will be successful with a crush mechanism due to the zone of injury. In addition, the multiple-level injury including the proximal phalanx and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint precludes a functional result.
Replantation in children does not adversely affect epiphyseal growth. Children adapt quite well to functional deficits of the hand. Microvascular surgery in children, while challenging, has been shown to have a very high success rate when performed by skilled microsurgeons. The index finger can be considered expendable; however, children tend to have more favorable results than adults when it comes to replantation and, therefore, whenever feasible, replantation should be attempted, even if it is an isolated index finger injury. The mechanism of injury plays a greater role than the type of digit in determining the feasibility of replantation in the pediatric population.
2016
A 40-year-old woman has an extravasation injury following a CT scan. An automated power injector was used to inject 100 mL of nonionic contrast medium into an intravenous cannula on the dorsum of the hand approximately 60 minutes ago. On examination, the hand appears edematous with mild erythema and is moderately tender. The skin is intact with no blistering. Capillary refill time is normal, and there is no neurologic deficit. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Administration of a corticosteroid
B) Bedside exploration of the intravenous cannula site
C) Elevation of the extremity
D) Surgical exploration with dorsal fasciotomy and carpal tunnel release
E) Surgical exploration with dorsal fasciotomy only
The correct response is Option C.
In a patient with an intravenous extravasation, if the symptoms are mild (pain, swelling, or erythema), elevation and cold compresses will usually lead to complete resolution. Patients who have more severe symptoms, such as neurovascular compromise, may need additional evaluation of compartment pressures and potentially surgical exploration for decompression; however, the first step in treatment is still elevation of the extremity.
Extravasation injury was once a difficult problem. The extravasation of ionic contrast at high osmolality had increased risk for soft-tissue complications, and plastic surgery consultation was often necessary. The switch to nonionic, low-osmolality contrast over the past decade has resulted in a significant decrease in complications. In a recent study of 69,657 patients undergoing a CT scan, the rate of extravasation was 0.7% (476 patients), and only one patient required operative intervention and decompressive fasciotomy.
Corticosteroids do not have a role in extravasation injuries.
2016
A 67-year-old man with a history of Dupuytren contracture of the right small finger comes for evaluation one week after noticing numbness and paresthesias of the outer aspect of the right small finger. Two days prior to the onset of the numbness and paresthesias, he underwent injection of collagenase Clostridium histolyticum to the finger. On physical examination today, there is mild edema of the finger. Extension of the finger has significantly improved, and there is good flexor tendon function. However, there is no sensation in the ulnar digital nerve distribution; two-point discrimination is greater than 10 mm. Nerve function was intact prior to the injection. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Electromyography and nerve conduction velocities
B) Immediate surgical exploration and direct repair of the ulnar digital nerve
C) Immediate surgical exploration and repair of the ulnar digital nerve with nerve conduit
D) Observation only
The correct response is Option D.
The use of collagenase Clostridium histolyticum for Duypuytren contracture has been well studied. Reports of its efficacy and safety have been published in numerous papers in peer-reviewed journals. Though postulated, there have been no cases reported in the literature of digital nerve rupture during cord rupture with collagenase Clostridium histolyticum. Pulley rupture and flexor tendon rupture have been reported. In this case, observation would be the most appropriate next step. It is more likely that there is a neuropraxia rather than a frank rupture of the nerve. Electromyography and nerve conduction velocities will not elucidate whether the nerve has been severed. Exploration and repair is not indicated only 1 week after injury; exploration of a neurapraxia injury is indicated 8 weeks after injury. The best option is to observe the patient’s injury.
2016













