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ARRL Practice Exam > HAM Review > Flashcards

HAM Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?

A

To interrupt power in case of overload

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2
Q

T0A02. What health hazard is presented by electrical current flowing through the body?

A

It may cause injury by heating tissue
It may disrupt the electrical functions of cells
It may cause involuntary muscle contractions

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3
Q

T0A03. In the United States, what is connected to the green wire in a three-wire electrical AC plug?

A

Equipment ground

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4
Q

T0A05. Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?

A

Excessive current could cause a fire

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5
Q

T0A06. What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?

A

Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment
Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground
Use a circuit protected by a ground-fault interrupter

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6
Q

T0A07. Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial cable feed line?

A

Mount all of the protectors on a metal plate that is in turn connected to an external ground rod

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7
Q

T0A08. What safety equipment should always be included in home-built equipment that is powered from 120V AC power circuits?

A

A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the AC hot conductor

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8
Q

T0A09. What should be done to all external ground rods or earth connections?

A

Bond them together with heavy wire or conductive strap

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9
Q

T0A10. What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is charged or discharged too quickly?

A

The battery could overheat, give off flammable gas, or explode

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10
Q

T0A11. What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected?

A

You might receive an electric shock from the charge stored in large capacitors

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11
Q

T0B01. When should members of a tower work team wear a hard hat and safety glasses?

A

At all times when any work is being done on the tower

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12
Q

T0B02. What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an antenna tower?

A

Put on a carefully inspected climbing harness (fall arrester) and safety glasses

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13
Q

T0B03. Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?

A

Never

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14
Q

T0B04. Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?

A

Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires

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15
Q

T0B05. What is the purpose of a gin pole?

A

To lift tower sections or antennas

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16
Q

T0B06. What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?

A

Enough so that if the antenna falls unexpectedly, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires

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17
Q

T0B07. Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?

A

This type of tower must not be climbed unless retracted or mechanical safety locking devices have been installed

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18
Q

T0B08. What is considered to be a proper grounding method for a tower?

A

Separate eight-foot long ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other

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19
Q

T0B09. Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?

A

The antenna could contact high-voltage power lines

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20
Q

T0B10. Which of the following is true when installing grounding conductors used for lightning protection?

A

Sharp bends must be avoided

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21
Q

T0B11. Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?

A

Local electrical codes

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22
Q

T0B12. Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection?

A

Ensure that connections are short and direct

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23
Q

T0B13. What is the purpose of a safety wire through a turnbuckle used to tension guy lines?

A

Prevent loosening of the guy line from vibration

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24
Q

T0C01. What type of radiation are VHF and UHF radio signals?

A

Non-ionizing radiation

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25
Q

T0C02. Which of the following frequencies has the lowest value for Maximum Permissible Exposure limit?

A

50 MHz

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26
Q

T0C03. What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station may use at VHF frequencies before an RF exposure evaluation is required?

A

50 watts PEP at the antenna

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27
Q

T0C04. What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?

A

All of these choices are correct

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28
Q

T0C05. Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?

A

D. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others

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29
Q

T0C06. Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

A

All of these choices are correct

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30
Q

T0C07. What could happen if a person accidentally touched your antenna while you were transmitting?

A

They might receive a painful RF burn

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31
Q

T0C08. Which of the following actions might amateur operators take to prevent exposure to RF radiation in excess of FCC-supplied limits?

A

Relocate antennas

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32
Q

T0C09. How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?

A

By re-evaluating the station whenever an item of equipment is changed

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33
Q

T0C10. Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?

A

It affects the average exposure of people to radiation

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34
Q

T0C11. What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?

A

The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting

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35
Q

T0C12. How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?

A

RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to cause genetic damage

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36
Q

T0C13. If the averaging time for exposure is 6 minutes, how much power density is permitted if the signal is present for 3 minutes and absent for 3 minutes rather than being present for the entire 6 minutes?

A

2 times as much

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37
Q

T1A01. Which of the following is a purpose of the Amateur Radio Service as stated in the FCC rules and regulations?

A

Advancing skills in the technical and communication phases of the radio art

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38
Q

T1A02. Which agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?

A

The FCC

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39
Q

T1A03. What are the FCC rules regarding the use of a phonetic alphabet for station identification in the Amateur Radio Service?

A

It is encouraged

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40
Q

T1A04. How many operator/primary station license grants may be held by any one person?

A

One

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41
Q

T1A05. What is proof of possession of an FCC-issued operator/primary license grant?

A

The control operator’s operator/primary station license must appear in the FCC ULS consolidated licensee database

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42
Q

T1A06. What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a ‘beacon’?

A

An amateur station transmitting communications for the purposes of observing propagation or related experimental activities

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43
Q

T1A07. What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a ‘space station’?

A

An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth’s surface

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44
Q

T1A08. Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?

A

Volunteer Frequency Coordinator recognized by local amateurs

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45
Q

T1A09. Who selects a Frequency Coordinator?

A

Amateur operators in a local or regional area whose stations are eligible to be repeater or auxiliary stations

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46
Q

T1A10. Which of the following describes the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?

A

A radio service using amateur frequencies for emergency management or civil defense communications
A radio service using amateur stations for emergency management or civil defense communications
An emergency service using amateur operators certified by a civil defense organization as being enrolled in that organization

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47
Q

T1A11. When is willful interference to other amateur radio stations permitted?

A

At no time

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48
Q

T1B01. What is the International Telecommunications Union (ITU)?

A

A United Nations agency for information and communication technology issues

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49
Q

T1B02. Which amateur radio stations may make contact with an amateur radio station on the International Space Station (ISS) using 2 meter and 70 cm band frequencies?

A

Any amateur holding a Technician or higher-class license

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50
Q

T1B03. Which frequency is within the 6 meter amateur band?

A

52.525 MHz

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51
Q

T1B04. Which amateur band are you using when your station is transmitting on 146.52 MHz?

A

2 meter band

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52
Q

T1B05. What is the limitation for emissions on the frequencies between 219 and 220 MHz?

A

Fixed digital message forwarding systems only

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53
Q

T1B06. On which HF bands does a Technician class operator have phone privileges?

A

10 meter band only

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54
Q

T1B07. Which of the following VHF/UHF frequency ranges are limited to CW only?

A

50.0 MHz to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 MHz to 144.1 MHz

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55
Q

T1B08. Which of the following is a result of the fact that the Amateur Radio Service is secondary in all or portions of some amateur bands (such as portions of the 70 cm band)?

A

U.S. amateurs may find non-amateur stations in those portions, and must avoid interfering with them

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56
Q

T1B09. Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?

A

To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display
So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge
To allow for transmitter frequency drift

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57
Q

T1B10. Which of the following HF bands have frequencies available to the Technician class operator for RTTY and data transmissions?

A

10 meter band only

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58
Q

T1B11. What is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators using their assigned portions of the HF bands?

A

200 watts

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59
Q

T1B12. Except for some specific restrictions, what is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators using frequencies above 30 MHz?

A

1500 watts

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60
Q

T1C01. For which license classes are new licenses currently available from the FCC?

A

Technician, General, Amateur Extra

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61
Q

T1C02. Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?

A

Any licensed amateur

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62
Q

T1C03. What types of international communications is an FCC-licensed amateur radio station permitted to make?

A

Communications incidental to the purposes of the Amateur Radio Service and remarks of a personal character

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63
Q

T1C04. When are you allowed to operate your amateur station in a foreign country?

A

When the foreign country authorizes it

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64
Q

T1C05. Which of the following is a valid call sign for a Technician class amateur radio station?

A

K1XXX

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65
Q

T1C06. From which of the following locations may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit?

A

From any vessel or craft located in international waters and documented or registered in the United States

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66
Q

T1C07. What may result when correspondence from the FCC is returned as undeliverable because the grantee failed to provide and maintain a correct mailing address with the FCC?

A

Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license

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67
Q

T1C08. What is the normal term for an FCC-issued primary station/operator amateur radio license grant?

A

Ten years

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68
Q

T1C09. What is the grace period following the expiration of an amateur license within which the license may be renewed?

A

Two years

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69
Q

T1C10. How soon after passing the examination for your first amateur radio license may you operate a transmitter on an Amateur Radio Service frequency?

A

As soon as your operator/station license grant appears in the FCC’s license database

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70
Q

T1C11. If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to operate a transmitter on Amateur Radio Service frequencies?

A

No, transmitting is not allowed until the FCC license database shows that the license has been renewed

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71
Q

T1D01. With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur radio stations prohibited from exchanging communications?

A

Any country whose administration has notified the International Telecommunications Union (ITU) that it objects to such communications

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72
Q

T1D02. Under which of the following circumstances may an amateur radio station make one-way transmissions?

A

When transmitting code practice, information bulletins, or transmissions necessary to provide emergency communications

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73
Q

T1D03. When is it permissible to transmit messages encoded to hide their meaning?

A

Only when transmitting control commands to space stations or radio control craft

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74
Q

T1D04. Under what conditions is an amateur station authorized to transmit music using a phone emission?

A

When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications

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75
Q

T1D05. When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?

A

When the equipment is normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not conducted on a regular basis

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76
Q

T1D06. What, if any, are the restrictions concerning transmission of language that may be considered indecent or obscene?

A

Any such language is prohibited

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77
Q

T1D07. What types of amateur stations can automatically retransmit the signals of other amateur stations?

A

Repeater, auxiliary, or space stations

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78
Q

T1D08. In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating that station?

A

When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution

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79
Q

T1D09. Under which of the following circumstances are amateur stations authorized to transmit signals related to broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available?

A

Only where such communications directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property

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80
Q

T1D10. What is the meaning of the term ‘broadcasting’ in the FCC rules for the Amateur Radio Service?

A

Transmissions intended for reception by the general public

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81
Q

T1D11. When may an amateur station transmit without on-the-air identification?

A

When transmitting signals to control model craft

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82
Q

T1E01. When is an amateur station permitted to transmit without a control operator?

A

Never

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83
Q

T1E02. Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?

A

Any amateur whose license privileges allow them to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency

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84
Q

T1E03. Who must designate the station control operator?

A

The station licensee

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85
Q

T1E04. What determines the transmitting privileges of an amateur station?

A

The class of operator license held by the control operator

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86
Q

T1E05. What is an amateur station control point?

A

The location at which the control operator function is performed

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87
Q

T1E06. When, under normal circumstances, may a Technician class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an exclusive Amateur Extra class operator segment of the amateur bands?

A

At no time

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88
Q

T1E07. When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?

A

The control operator and the station licensee are equally responsible

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89
Q

T1E08. Which of the following is an example of automatic control?

A

Repeater operation

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90
Q

T1E09. Which of the following is true of remote control operation?

A

The control operator must be at the control point
A control operator is required at all times
The control operator indirectly manipulates the controls

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91
Q

T1E10. Which of the following is an example of remote control as defined in Part 97?

A

Operating the station over the internet

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92
Q

T1E11. Who does the FCC presume to be the control operator of an amateur station, unless documentation to the contrary is in the station records?

A

The station licensee

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93
Q

T1F01. When must the station licensee make the station and its records available for FCC inspection?

A

At any time upon request by an FCC representative

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94
Q

T1F02. When using tactical identifiers such as ‘Race Headquarters’ during a community service net operation, how often must your station transmit the station’s FCC-assigned call sign?

A

At the end of each communication and every ten minutes during a communication

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95
Q

T1F03. When is an amateur station required to transmit its assigned call sign?

A

At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a communication

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96
Q

T1F04. Which of the following is an acceptable language to use for station identification when operating in a phone sub-band?

A

The English language

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97
Q

T1F05. What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?

A

Send the call sign using a CW or phone emission

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98
Q

T1F06. Which of the following formats of a self-assigned indicator is acceptable when identifying using a phone transmission?

A

KL7CC stroke W3
KL7CC slant W3
KL7CC slash W3

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99
Q

T1F07. Which of the following restrictions apply when a non-licensed person is allowed to speak to a foreign station using a station under the control of a Technician class control operator?

A

The foreign station must be one with which the U.S. has a third-party agreement

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100
Q

T1F08. What is meant by the term ‘Third Party Communications’?

A

A message from a control operator to another amateur station control operator on behalf of another person

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101
Q

T1F09. What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?

A

Repeater station

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102
Q

T1F10. Who is accountable should a repeater inadvertently retransmit communications that violate the FCC rules?

A

The control operator of the originating station

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103
Q

T1F11. Which of the following is a requirement for the issuance of a club station license grant?

A

The club must have at least four members

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104
Q

T2A01. Which of the following is a common repeater frequency offset in the 2 meter band?

A

Plus or minus 600 kHz

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105
Q

T2A02. What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex operations in the 2 meter band?

A

146.520 MHz

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106
Q

T2A03. What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70 cm band?

A

Plus or minus 5 MHz

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107
Q

T2A04. What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station’s call sign?

A

Say the station’s call sign, then identify with your call sign

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108
Q

T2A05. How should you respond to a station calling CQ?

A

Transmit the other station’s call sign followed by your call sign

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109
Q

T2A06. Which of the following is required when making on-the-air test transmissions?

A

Identify the transmitting station

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110
Q

T2A07. What is meant by ‘repeater offset?’

A

The difference between a repeater’s transmit frequency and its receive frequency

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111
Q

T2A08. What is the meaning of the procedural signal ‘CQ’?

A

Calling any station

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112
Q

T2A09. What brief statement indicates that you are listening on a repeater and looking for a contact?

A

Your call sign

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113
Q

T2A10. What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?

A

A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band

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114
Q

T2A11. What term describes an amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?

A

Simplex

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115
Q

T2A12. Which of the following is a guideline when choosing an operating frequency for calling CQ?

A

Listen first to be sure that no one else is using the frequency
Ask if the frequency is in use
Make sure you are in your assigned band

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116
Q

T2B01. What is the most common use of the ‘reverse split’ function of a VHF/UHF transceiver?

A

Listen on a repeater’s input frequency

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117
Q

T2B02. What term describes the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted along with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?

A

CTCSS

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118
Q

T2B03. If a station is not strong enough to keep a repeater’s receiver squelch open, which of the following might allow you to receive the station’s signal?

A

Listen on the repeater input frequency

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119
Q

T2B04. Which of the following could be the reason you are unable to access a repeater whose output you can hear?

A

Improper transceiver offset
The repeater may require a proper CTCSS tone from your transceiver
The repeater may require a proper DCS tone from your transceiver

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120
Q

T2B05. What might be the problem if a repeater user says your transmissions are breaking up on voice peaks?

A

You are talking too loudly

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121
Q

T2B06. What type of tones are used to control repeaters linked by the Internet Relay Linking Project (IRLP) protocol?

A

DTMF

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122
Q

T2B07. How can you join a digital repeater’s ‘talk group’?

A

Program your radio with the group’s ID or code

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123
Q

T2B08. Which of the following applies when two stations transmitting on the same frequency interfere with each other?

A

Common courtesy should prevail, but no one has absolute right to an amateur frequency

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124
Q

T2B09. What is a ‘talk group’ on a DMR digital repeater?

A

A way for groups of users to share a channel at different times without being heard by other users on the channel

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125
Q

T2B10. Which Q signal indicates that you are receiving interference from other stations?

A

QRM

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126
Q

T2B11. Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?

A

QSY

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127
Q

T2B12. Why are simplex channels designated in the VHF/UHF band plans?

A

So that stations within mutual communications range can communicate without tying up a repeater

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128
Q

T2B13. Where may SSB phone be used in amateur bands above 50 MHz?

A

In at least some portion of all these bands

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129
Q

T2B14. Which of the following describes a linked repeater network?

A

A network of repeaters where signals received by one repeater are repeated by all the repeaters

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130
Q

T2C01. When do the FCC rules NOT apply to the operation of an amateur station?

A

Never, FCC rules always apply

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131
Q

T2C02. What is meant by the term ‘NCS’ used in net operation?

A

Net Control Station

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132
Q

T2C03. What should be done when using voice modes to ensure that voice messages containing unusual words are received correctly?

A

Spell the words using a standard phonetic alphabet

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133
Q

T2C04. What do RACES and ARES have in common?

A

Both organizations may provide communications during emergencies

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134
Q

T2C05. What does the term ‘traffic’ refer to in net operation?

A

Formal messages exchanged by net stations

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135
Q

T2C06. Which of the following is an accepted practice to get the immediate attention of a net control station when reporting an emergency?

A

Begin your transmission by saying ‘Priority’ or ‘Emergency’ followed by your call sign

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136
Q

T2C07. Which of the following is an accepted practice for an amateur operator who has checked into a net?

A

Remain on frequency without transmitting until asked to do so by the net control station

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137
Q

T2C08. Which of the following is a characteristic of good traffic handling?

A

Passing messages exactly as received

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138
Q

T2C09. Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?

A

Yes, but only if necessary in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property

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139
Q

T2C10. What information is contained in the preamble of a formal traffic message?

A

The information needed to track the message

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140
Q

T2C11. What is meant by the term ‘check,’ in reference to a formal traffic message?

A

The number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message

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141
Q

T2C12. What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)?

A

Licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for communications duty in the public service

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142
Q

T3A01. What should you do if another operator reports that your station’s 2 meter signals were strong just a moment ago, but now they are weak or distorted?

A

Try moving a few feet or changing the direction of your antenna if possible, as reflections may be causing multi-path distortion

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143
Q

T3A02. Why might the range of VHF and UHF signals be greater in the winter?

A

Less absorption by vegetation

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144
Q

T3A03. What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands?

A

Horizontal

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145
Q

T3A04. What can happen if the antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same polarization?

A

Signals could be significantly weaker

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146
Q

T3A05. When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to access a distant

A

Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater

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147
Q

T3A06. What term is commonly used to describe the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations that are moving while transmitting?

A

Picket fencing

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148
Q

T3A07. What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?

A

Electromagnetic

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149
Q

T3A08. Which of the following is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals received by ionospheric reflection?

A

Random combining of signals arriving via different paths

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150
Q

T3A09. Which of the following results from the fact that skip signals refracted from the ionosphere are elliptically polarized?

A

Either vertically or horizontally polarized antennas may be used for transmission or reception

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151
Q

T3A10. What may occur if data signals arrive via multiple paths?

A

Error rates are likely to increase

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152
Q

T3A11. Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?

A

The ionosphere

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153
Q

T3A12. How might fog and light rain affect radio range on the 10 meter and 6 meter bands?

A

Fog and light rain will have little effect on these bands

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154
Q

T3A13. What weather condition would decrease range at microwave frequencies?

A

Precipitation

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155
Q

T3B01. What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle?

A

Wavelength

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156
Q

T3B02. What property of a radio wave is used to describe its polarization?

A

The orientation of the electric field

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157
Q

T3B03. What are the two components of a radio wave?

A

Electric and magnetic fields

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158
Q

T3B04. How fast does a radio wave travel through free space?

A

At the speed of light

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159
Q

T3B05. How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its frequency?

A

The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency increases

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160
Q

T3B06. What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?

A

Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz

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161
Q

T3B07. What property of radio waves is often used to identify the different frequency bands?

A

The approximate wavelength

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162
Q

T3B08. What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?

A

30 to 300 MHz

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163
Q

T3B09. What are the frequency limits of the UHF spectrum?

A

300 to 3000 MHz

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164
Q

T3B10. What frequency range is referred to as HF?

A

3 to 30 MHz

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165
Q

T3B10. What frequency range is referred to as HF?

A

3 to 30 MHz

166
Q

T3B11. What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave as it travels through free space?

A

300,000,000 meters per second

167
Q

T3C01. Why are direct (not via a repeater) UHF signals rarely heard from stations outside your local coverage area?

A

UHF signals are usually not reflected by the ionosphere

168
Q

T3C02. Which of the following is an advantage of HF vs VHF and higher frequencies?

A

Long distance ionospheric propagation is far more common on HF

169
Q

T3C03. What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral reflection?

A

The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and often sound distorted

170
Q

T3C04. Which of the following propagation types is most commonly associated with occasional strong over-the-horizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands?

A

Sporadic E

171
Q

T3C05. Which of the following effects might cause radio signals to be heard despite obstructions between the transmitting and receiving stations?

A

Knife-edge diffraction

172
Q

T3C06. What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?

A

Tropospheric ducting

173
Q

T3C07. What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?

A

6 meter band

174
Q

T3C08. What causes tropospheric ducting?

A

Temperature inversions in the atmosphere

175
Q

T3C09. What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation via the F layer?

A

From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of high sunspot activity

176
Q

T3C10. Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?

A

6 or 10 meter bands

177
Q

T3C11. Why do VHF and UHF radio signals usually travel somewhat farther than the visual line of sight distance between two stations?

A

The Earth seems less curved to radio waves than to light

178
Q

T4A01. What must be considered to determine the minimum current capacity needed for a transceiver power supply?

A

Efficiency of the transmitter at full power output
Receiver and control circuit power
Power supply regulation and heat dissipation

179
Q

T4A02. How might a computer be used as part of an amateur radio station?

A

For logging contacts and contact information
For sending and/or receiving CW
For generating and decoding digital signals

180
Q

T4A03. Why should wiring between the power source and radio be heavy-gauge wire and kept as short as possible?

A

To avoid voltage falling below that needed for proper operation

181
Q

T4A04. Which computer sound card port is connected to a transceiver’s headphone or speaker output for operating digital modes?

A

Microphone or line input

182
Q

T4A05. What is the proper location for an external SWR meter?

A

In series with the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna

183
Q

T4A06. Which of the following connections might be used between a voice transceiver and a computer for digital operation?

A

Receive audio, transmit audio, and push-to-talk (PTT)

184
Q

T4A07. How is a computer’s sound card used when conducting digital communications?

A

The sound card provides audio to the radio’s microphone input and converts received audio to digital form

185
Q

T4A08. Which of the following conductors provides the lowest impedance to RF signals?

A

Flat strap

186
Q

T4A09. Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current on the shield of a microphone cable?

A

Ferrite choke

187
Q

T4A10. What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver’s receive audio?

A

The alternator

188
Q

T4A11. Where should the negative return connection of a mobile transceiver’s power cable be connected?

A

At the battery or engine block ground strap

189
Q

T4B01. What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?

A

The output signal might become distorted

190
Q

T4B02. Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?

A

The keypad or VFO knob

191
Q

T4B03. What is the purpose of the squelch control on a transceiver?

A

To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being received

192
Q

T4B04. What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency on your transceiver?

A

Store the frequency in a memory channel

193
Q

T4B05. Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver?

A

Turn on the noise blanker

194
Q

T4B06. Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal seems too high or low?

A

The receiver RIT or clarifier

195
Q

T4B07. What does the term ‘RIT’ mean?

A

Receiver Incremental Tuning

196
Q

T4B08. What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?

A

Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode

197
Q

T4B09. Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth for minimizing noise and interference for SSB reception?

A

2400 Hz

198
Q

T4B10. Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth for minimizing noise and interference for CW reception?

A

500 Hz

199
Q

T4B11. What is the function of automatic gain control, or AGC?

A

To keep received audio relatively constant

200
Q

T4B12. Which of the following could be used to remove power line noise or ignition noise?

A

Noise blanker

201
Q

T4B13. Which of the following is a use for the scanning function of an FM transceiver?

A

To scan through a range of frequencies to check for activity

202
Q

T5A01. Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?

A

Amperes

203
Q

T5A02. Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?

A

Watts

204
Q

T5A03. What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?

A

Current

205
Q

T5A04. What is the name for a current that flows only in one direction?

A

Direct current

206
Q

T5A05. What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?

A

Voltage

207
Q

T5A06. How much voltage does a mobile transceiver typically require?

A

About 12 volts

208
Q

T5A07. Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?

A

Copper

209
Q

T5A08. Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?

A

Glass

210
Q

T5A09. What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?

A

Alternating current

211
Q

T5A10. Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?

A

Power

212
Q

T5A11. What is the unit of electromotive force?

A

The volt

213
Q

T5A13. In which type of circuit is current the same through all components?

A

Series

214
Q

T5A14. In which type of circuit is voltage the same across all components?

A

Parallel

215
Q

T5B01. How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?

A

1500 milliamperes

216
Q

T5B02. What is another way to specify a radio signal frequency of 1,500,000 hertz?

A

1500 kHz

217
Q

T5B03. How many volts are equal to one kilovolt?

A

One thousand volts

218
Q

T5B04. How many volts are equal to one microvolt?

A

One one-millionth of a volt

219
Q

T5B05. Which of the following is equal to 500 milliwatts?

A

0.5 watts

220
Q

T5B06. If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it show?

A

3 amperes

221
Q

T5B07. If a frequency display calibrated in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were calibrated in kilohertz?

A

3525 kHz

222
Q

T5B08. How many microfarads are equal to 1,000,000 picofarads?

A

1 microfarad

223
Q

T5B09. What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?

A

3 dB

224
Q

T5B10. What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?

A

-6 dB

225
Q

T5B11. What is the amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?

A

10 dB

226
Q

T5B12. Which of the following frequencies is equal to 28,400 kHz?

A

28.400 MHz

227
Q

T5B13. If a frequency display shows a reading of 2425 MHz, what frequency is that in GHz?

A

2.425 GHz

228
Q

T5C01. What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called?

A

Capacitance

229
Q

T5C02. What is the basic unit of capacitance?

A

The farad

230
Q

T5C03. What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?

A

Inductance

231
Q

T5C04. What is the basic unit of inductance?

A

The henry

232
Q

T5C05. What is the unit of frequency?

A

Hertz

233
Q

T5C06. What does the abbreviation ‘RF’ refer to?

A

Radio frequency signals of all types

234
Q

T5C07. A radio wave is made up of what type of energy?

A

Electromagnetic

235
Q

T5C08. What is the formula used to calculate electrical power in a DC circuit?

A

Power (P) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I)

236
Q

T5C09. How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts DC and the current is 10 amperes?

A

138 watts

237
Q

T5C10. How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the current is 2.5 amperes?

A

30 watts

238
Q

T5C11. How many amperes are flowing in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the load is 120 watts?

A

10 amperes

239
Q

T5C12. What is impedance?

A

A measure of the opposition to AC current flow in a circuit

240
Q

T5C13. What is a unit of impedance?

A

Ohms

241
Q

T5C14. What is the proper abbreviation for megahertz?

A

MHz

242
Q

T5D01. What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?

A

Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by resistance (R)

243
Q

T5D02. What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?

A

Voltage (E) equals current (I) multiplied by resistance (R)

244
Q

T5D03. What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?

A

Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I)

245
Q

T5D04. What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts?

A

30 ohms

246
Q

T5D05. What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?

A

8 ohms

247
Q

T5D06. What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?

A

3 ohms

248
Q

T5D07. What is the current in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?

A

1.5 amperes

249
Q

T5D08. What is the current through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?

A

2 amperes

250
Q

T5D09. What is the current through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?

A

10 amperes

251
Q

T5D10. What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?

A

1 volt

252
Q

T5D11. What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?

A

T5D11. What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?

253
Q

T5D12. What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?

A

20 volts

254
Q

T5D13. What happens to current at the junction of two components in series?

A

It is unchanged

255
Q

T5D14. What happens to current at the junction of two components in parallel?

A

It divides between them dependent on the value of the components

256
Q

T5D15. What is the voltage across each of two components in series with a voltage source?

A

It is determined by the type and value of the components

257
Q

T5D16. What is the voltage across each of two components in parallel with a voltage source?

A

The same voltage as the source

258
Q

T6A01. What electrical component opposes the flow of current in a DC circuit?

A

Resistor

259
Q

T6A02. What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?

A

Potentiometer

260
Q

T6A03. What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?

A

Resistance

261
Q

T6A04. What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?

A

Capacitor

262
Q

T6A05. What type of electrical component consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?

A

Capacitor

263
Q

T6A06. What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?

A

Inductor

264
Q

T6A07. What electrical component usually is constructed as a coil of wire?

A

Inductor

265
Q

T6A08. What electrical component is used to connect or disconnect electrical circuits?

A

Switch

266
Q

T6A09. What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads?

A

Fuse

267
Q

T6A10. Which of the following battery types is rechargeable?

A

Nickel-metal hydride
Lithium-ion
Lead-acid gel-cell

268
Q

T6A11. Which of the following battery types is not rechargeable?

A

Carbon-zinc

269
Q

T6B01. What class of electronic components uses a voltage or current signal to control current flow?

A

Transistors

270
Q

T6B02. What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?

A

Diode

271
Q

T6B03. Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch or amplifier?

A

Transistor

272
Q

T6B04. Which of the following components can consist of three layers of semiconductor material?

A

Transistor

273
Q

T6B05. Which of the following electronic components can amplify signals?

A

Transistor

274
Q

T6B06. How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode often marked on the package?

A

With a stripe

275
Q

T6B07. What does the abbreviation LED stand for?

A

Light Emitting Diode

276
Q

T6B08. What does the abbreviation FET stand for?

A

Field Effect Transistor

277
Q

T6B08. What does the abbreviation FET stand for?

A

Field Effect Transistor

278
Q

T6B09. What are the names of the two electrodes of a diode?

A

Anode and cathode

279
Q

T6B10. Which of the following could be the primary gain-producing component in an RF power amplifier?

A

Transistor

280
Q

T6B11. What is the term that describes a device’s ability to amplify a signal?

A

Gain

281
Q

T6C01. What is the name of an electrical wiring diagram that uses standard component symbols?

A

Schematic

282
Q

T6C12. What do the symbols on an electrical schematic represent?

A

Electrical components

283
Q

T6C13. Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical schematics?

A

The way components are interconnected

284
Q

T6D01. Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?

A

Rectifier

285
Q

T6D02. What is a relay?

A

An electrically-controlled switch

286
Q

T6D04. Which of the following displays an electrical quantity as a numeric value?

A

Meter

287
Q

T6D05. What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?

A

Regulator

288
Q

T6D06. What component is commonly used to change 120V AC house current to a lower AC voltage for other uses?

A

Transformer

289
Q

T6D07. Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?

A

LED

290
Q

T6D08. Which of the following is combined with an inductor to make a tuned circuit?

A

Capacitor

291
Q

T6D09. What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?

A

Integrated circuit

292
Q

T6D11. Which of the following is a resonant or tuned circuit?

A

An inductor and a capacitor connected in series or parallel to form a filter

293
Q

T6D12. Which of the following is a common reason to use shielded wire?

A

To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from the wire

294
Q

T7A01. Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?

A

Sensitivity

295
Q

T7A02. What is a transceiver?

A

A unit combining the functions of a transmitter and a receiver

296
Q

T7A03. Which of the following is used to convert a radio signal from one frequency to another?

A

Mixer

297
Q

T7A04. Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?

A

Selectivity

298
Q

T7A05. What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal at a specific frequency?

A

Oscillator

299
Q

T7A06. What device converts the RF input and output of a transceiver to another band?

A

Transverter

300
Q

T7A07. What is meant by ‘PTT’?

A

The push-to-talk function that switches between receive and transmit

301
Q

T7A08. Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?

A

Modulation

302
Q

T7A09. What is the function of the SSB/CW-FM switch on a VHF power amplifier?

A

Set the amplifier for proper operation in the selected mode

303
Q

T7A10. What device increases the low-power output from a handheld transceiver?

A

An RF power amplifier

304
Q

T7A11. Where is an RF preamplifier installed?

A

Between the antenna and receiver

305
Q

T7B01. What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?

A

Talk farther away from the microphone

306
Q

T7B02. What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?

A

The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside the AM or FM band

307
Q

T7B03. Which of the following can cause radio frequency interference?

A

Fundamental overload
Harmonics
Spurious emissions

308
Q

T7B04. Which of the following is a way to reduce or eliminate interference from an amateur transmitter to a nearby telephone?

A

Put an RF filter on the telephone

309
Q

T7B05. How can overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?

A

Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver

310
Q

T7B06. Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station’s transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?

A

Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel

311
Q

T7B07. Which of the following can reduce overload to a VHF transceiver from a nearby FM broadcast station?

A

Band-reject filter

312
Q

T7B08. What should you do if something in a neighbor’s home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?

A

Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device
Politely inform your neighbor about the rules that prohibit the use of devices that cause interference
Check your station and make sure it meets the standards of good amateur practice

313
Q

T7B09. What is a Part 15 device?

A

An unlicensed device that may emit low-powered radio signals on frequencies used by a licensed service

314
Q

T7B10. What might be a problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through the repeater is distorted or unintelligible?

A

Your transmitter is slightly off frequency
Your batteries are running low
You are in a bad location

315
Q

T7B11. What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver?

A

Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible voice transmissions

316
Q

T7B12. What should be the first step to resolve cable TV interference from your ham radio transmission?

A

Be sure all TV coaxial connectors are installed properly

317
Q

T7C01. What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?

A

To prevent transmitting signals over the air when making tests

318
Q

T7C02. Which of the following instruments can be used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?

A

An antenna analyzer

319
Q

T7C03. What, in general terms, is standing wave ratio (SWR)?

A

A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line

320
Q

T7C04. What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?

A

1 to 1

321
Q

T7C05. Why do most solid-state amateur radio transmitters reduce output power as SWR increases?

A

To protect the output amplifier transistors

322
Q

T7C06. What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?

A

T7C08. What instrument other than an SWR meter could you use to determine if a feed line and antenna are properly matched?

323
Q

T7C08. What instrument other than an SWR meter could you use to determine if a feed line and antenna are properly matched?

A

Directional wattmeter

324
Q

T7C09. Which of the following is the most common cause for failure of coaxial cables?

A

Moisture contamination

325
Q

T7C10. Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?

A

Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable

326
Q

T7C11. What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?

A

It requires special techniques to prevent water absorption

327
Q

T7C12. What does a dummy load consist of?

A

A non-inductive resistor and a heat sink

328
Q

T7D01. Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force?

A

A voltmeter

329
Q

T7D02. What is the correct way to connect a voltmeter to a circuit?

A

In parallel with the circuit

330
Q

T7D03. How is a simple ammeter connected to a circuit?

A

In series with the circuit

331
Q

T7D04. Which instrument is used to measure electric current?

A

An ammeter

332
Q

T7D05. What instrument is used to measure resistance?

A

An ohmmeter

333
Q

T7D06. Which of the following might damage a multimeter?

A

Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting

334
Q

T7D07. Which of the following measurements are commonly made using a multimeter?

A

Voltage and resistance

335
Q

T7D08. Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use?

A

Rosin-core solder

336
Q

T7D09. What is the characteristic appearance of a cold solder joint?

A

A grainy or dull surface

337
Q

T7D10. What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across an unpowered circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time?

A

The circuit contains a large capacitor

338
Q

T7D11. Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?

A

Ensure that the circuit is not powered

339
Q

T7D12. Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring high voltages with a voltmeter?

A

Ensure that the voltmeter and leads are rated for use at the voltages to be measured

340
Q

T8A01. Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?

A

Single sideband

341
Q

T8A02. What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?

A

FM

342
Q

T8A03. Which type of voice mode is most often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?

A

SSB

343
Q

T8A04. Which type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?

A

FM

344
Q

T8A05. Which of the following types of emission has the narrowest bandwidth?

A

CW

345
Q

T8A06. Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF, and UHF single-sideband communications?

A

Upper sideband

346
Q

T8A07. What is an advantage of single sideband (SSB) over FM for voice transmissions?

A

SSB signals have narrower bandwidth

347
Q

T8A08. What is the approximate bandwidth of a single sideband (SSB) voice signal?

A

3 kHz

348
Q

T8A09. What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM phone signal?

A

Between 10 and 15 kHz

349
Q

T8A10. What is the typical bandwidth of analog fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70 centimeter band?

A

About 6 MHz

350
Q

T8A11. What is the approximate maximum bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?

A

150 Hz

351
Q

T8B01. What telemetry information is typically transmitted by satellite beacons?

A

Health and status of the satellite

352
Q

T8B02. What is the impact of using too much effective radiated power on a satellite uplink?

A

Blocking access by other users

353
Q

T8B03. Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?

A

Maps showing the real-time position of the satellite track over the earth
The time, azimuth, and elevation of the start, maximum altitude, and end of a pass
The apparent frequency of the satellite transmission, including effects of Doppler shift

354
Q

T8B04. What mode of transmission is used by amateur radio satellites?

A

SSB
FM
CW/data

355
Q

T8B05. What is a satellite beacon?

A

A transmission from a satellite that contains status information

356
Q

T8B06. Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?

A

The Keplerian elements

357
Q

T8B07. With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler shift?

A

An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and the earth station

358
Q

T8B08. What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in mode U/V?

A

The satellite uplink is in the 70 centimeter band and the downlink is in the 2 meter band

359
Q

T8B09. What causes spin fading of satellite signals?

A

Rotation of the satellite and its antennas

360
Q

T8B10. What do the initials LEO tell you about an amateur satellite?

A

The satellite is in a Low Earth Orbit

361
Q

T8B11. Who may receive telemetry from a space station?

A

Anyone who can receive the telemetry signal

362
Q

T8B12. Which of the following is a good way to judge whether your uplink power is neither too low nor too high?

A

Your signal strength on the downlink should be about the same as the beacon

363
Q

T8C01. Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?

A

Radio direction finding

364
Q

T8C02. Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?

A

A directional antenna

365
Q

T8C03. What operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period?

A

Contesting

366
Q

T8C04. Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a radio contest?

A

Send only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange

367
Q

T8C05. What is a grid locator?

A

A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location

368
Q

T8C06. How is access to some IRLP nodes accomplished?

A

By using DTMF signals

369
Q

T8C08. What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?

A

A technique to connect amateur radio systems, such as repeaters, via the internet using Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)

370
Q

T8C09. How might you obtain a list of active nodes that use VoIP?

A

By subscribing to an on line service
From on line repeater lists maintained by the local repeater frequency coordinator
From a repeater directory

371
Q

T8C10. What must be done before you may use the EchoLink system to communicate using a repeater?

A

You must register your call sign and provide proof of license

372
Q

T8C11. What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the internet?

A

A gateway

373
Q

T8D01. Which of the following is a digital communications mode?

A

Packet radio
IEEE 802.11
JT65

374
Q

T8D02. What does the term ‘APRS’ mean?

A

Automatic Packet Reporting System

375
Q

T8D03. Which of the following devices is used to provide data to the transmitter when sending automatic position reports from a mobile amateur radio station?

A

A Global Positioning System receiver

376
Q

T8D04. What type of transmission is indicated by the term ‘NTSC?’

A

An analog fast scan color TV signal

377
Q

T8D05. Which of the following is an application of APRS (Automatic Packet Reporting System)?

A

Providing real-time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations of stations

378
Q

T8D06. What does the abbreviation ‘PSK’ mean?

A

Phase Shift Keying

379
Q

T8D07. Which of the following best describes DMR (Digital Mobile Radio)?

A

A technique for time-multiplexing two digital voice signals on a single 12.5 kHz repeater channel

380
Q

T8D07. Which of the following best describes DMR (Digital Mobile Radio)?

A

A technique for time-multiplexing two digital voice signals on a single 12.5 kHz repeater channel

381
Q

T8D08. Which of the following may be included in packet transmissions?

A

A check sum that permits error detection
A header that contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent
Automatic repeat request in case of error

382
Q

T8D09. What code is used when sending CW in the amateur bands?

A

International Morse

383
Q

T8D10. Which of the following operating activities is supported by digital mode software in the WSJT suite?

A

Moonbounce or Earth-Moon-Earth
Weak-signal propagation beacons
Meteor scatter

384
Q

T8D11. What is an ARQ transmission system?

A

A digital scheme whereby the receiving station detects errors and sends a request to the sending station to retransmit the information

385
Q

T8D12. Which of the following best describes Broadband-Hamnet™, also referred to as a high-speed multi-media network?

A

An amateur-radio-based data network using commercial Wi-Fi gear with modified firmware

386
Q

T8D13. What is FT8?

A

A digital mode capable of operating in low signal-to-noise conditions that transmits on 15-second intervals

387
Q

T8D14. What is an electronic keyer?

A

A device that assists in manual sending of Morse code

388
Q

T9A01. What is a beam antenna?

A

An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction

389
Q

T9A02. Which of the following describes a type of antenna loading?

A

Inserting an inductor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it electrically longer

390
Q

T9A03. Which of the following describes a simple dipole oriented parallel to the Earth’s surface?

A

A horizontally polarized antenna

391
Q

T9A04. What is a disadvantage of the ‘rubber duck’ antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers when compared to a full-sized quarter-wave antenna?

A

It does not transmit or receive as effectively

392
Q

T9A05. How would you change a dipole antenna to make it resonant on a higher frequency?

A

Shorten it

393
Q

T9A06. What type of antennas are the quad, Yagi, and dish?

A

Directional antennas

394
Q

T9A07. What is a disadvantage of using a handheld VHF transceiver, with its integral antenna, inside a vehicle?

A

Signals might not propagate well due to the shielding effect of the vehicle

395
Q

T9A08. What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?

A

19

396
Q

T9A09. What is the approximate length, in inches, of a half-wavelength 6 meter dipole antenna?

A

112

397
Q

T9A10. In which direction does a half-wave dipole antenna radiate the strongest signal?

A

Broadside to the antenna

398
Q

T9A11. What is the gain of an antenna?

A

The increase in signal strength in a specified direction compared to a reference antenna

399
Q

T9A12. What is an advantage of using a properly mounted 5/8 wavelength antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service?

A

It has a lower radiation angle and more gain than a 1/4 wavelength antenna

400
Q

T9B01. Why is it important to have low SWR when using coaxial cable feed line?

A

To reduce signal loss

401
Q

T9B02. What is the impedance of most coaxial cables used in amateur radio installations?

A

50 ohms

402
Q

T9B03. Why is coaxial cable the most common feed line selected for amateur radio antenna systems?

A

It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations

403
Q

T9B04. What is the major function of an antenna tuner (antenna coupler)?

A

It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver’s output impedance

404
Q

T9B05. In general, what happens as the frequency of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased?

A

The loss increases

405
Q

T9B06. Which of the following connectors is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?

A

A Type N connector

406
Q

T9B07. Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?

A

They are commonly used at HF frequencies

407
Q

T9B08. Why should coax connectors exposed to the weather be sealed against water intrusion?

A

To prevent an increase in feed line loss

408
Q

T9B09. What can cause erratic changes in SWR readings?

A

A loose connection in an antenna or a feed line

409
Q

T9B10. What is the electrical difference between RG-58 and RG-8 coaxial cable?

A

RG-8 cable has less loss at a given frequency

410
Q

T9B11. Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?

A

Air-insulated hard line

ARRL Practice Exam (1 decks)

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