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Ham Radio General 01 29 24 > Ham Radio General 01 29 24 > Flashcards

Ham Radio General 01 29 24 Flashcards

Ham Radio General 01 29 24

1
Q

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

A

C. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

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2
Q

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

A

B. 30 meters

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3
Q

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

A

B. 30 meters

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4
Q

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

A

D. 60 meters

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5
Q

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

A

A. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

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6
Q

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

A

C. Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

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7
Q

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

A

D. The entire band

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8
Q

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

A

B. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters

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9
Q

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

A

C. 21300 kHz

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10
Q

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

A

D. The portion above 29.5 MHz

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11
Q

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

A

B. The upper frequency portion

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12
Q

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

A

C. 200 feet

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13
Q

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

A

A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

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14
Q

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

A

A. Observation of propagation and reception

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15
Q

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

A

C. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations

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16
Q

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

A

B. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

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17
Q

G1B06 (D) [97.15(b), PRB-1, 101 FCC 2d 952 (1985)]

A

D. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

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18
Q

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

A

B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

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19
Q

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

A

B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

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20
Q

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

A

D. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

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21
Q

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

A

C. 100 watts PEP output

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22
Q

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

A

A. The FCC

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23
Q

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

A

A. 200 watts PEP output

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24
Q

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

A

C. 1500 watts PEP output

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25
Q

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

A

A. 2.8 kHz

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26
Q

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

A

A. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

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27
Q

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

A

C. 1500 watts PEP output

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28
Q

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

A

D. 1500 watts PEP output

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29
Q

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

A

C. Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol

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30
Q

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

A

D. 300 baud

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31
Q

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

A

C. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

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32
Q

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

A

C. 1200 baud

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33
Q

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

A

D. PEP output from the transmitter

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34
Q

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

A

A. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

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35
Q

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

A

C. Technician only

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36
Q

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

A

C. On any General or Technician class band segment

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37
Q

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

A

A. At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

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38
Q

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

A

A. A US operator/primary station license

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39
Q

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

A

A. Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges

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40
Q

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

A

C. FCC A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator VEC

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41
Q

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

A

B. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

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42
Q

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

A

C. 365 days

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43
Q

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

A

B. 18 years

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44
Q

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

A

D. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

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45
Q

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

A

C. Only those of the remote station’s country

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46
Q

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

A

A. The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

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47
Q

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

A

D. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

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48
Q

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

A

A. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

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49
Q

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

A

D. All these choices are correct

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50
Q

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

A

C. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

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51
Q

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

A

C. Region 2

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52
Q

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

A

D. No part

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53
Q

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

A

B. 10 watts

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54
Q

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

A

A. Under no circumstances

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55
Q

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

A

A. A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

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56
Q

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

A

D. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

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57
Q

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

A

A. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

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58
Q

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

A

A. Upper sideband

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59
Q

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

A

B. Lower sideband

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60
Q

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

A

A. Upper sideband

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61
Q

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

A

A. Upper sideband

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62
Q

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

A

C. Single sideband

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63
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

A

D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

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64
Q

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

A

B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

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65
Q

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

A

B. Say your call sign once

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66
Q

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

A

D. It is commonly accepted amateur practice

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67
Q

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

A

B. It allows “hands free” operation

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68
Q

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

A

C. Any stations outside the lower 48 states

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69
Q

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

A

B. Transmit audio or microphone gain

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70
Q

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

A

C. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

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71
Q

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

A

B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

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72
Q

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

A

C. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

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73
Q

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

A

B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz

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74
Q

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

A

C. 2 kHz to 3 kHz

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75
Q

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

A

A. Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

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76
Q

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

A

C. Follow the voluntary band plan

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77
Q

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

A

A. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

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78
Q

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

A

A. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

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79
Q

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

A

B. Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

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80
Q

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

A

C. No more than 1 hour per week

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81
Q

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

A

D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

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82
Q

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

A

A. Send slower

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83
Q

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

A

C. Listening only for a specific station or stations

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84
Q

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

A

D. “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

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85
Q

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

A

B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

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86
Q

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

A

D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

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87
Q

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

A

A. Chirpy or unstable signal

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88
Q

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

A

C. AR

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89
Q

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

A

C. I have received and understood

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90
Q

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

A

D. I am troubled by static

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91
Q

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

A

D. I am ready to receive

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92
Q

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

A

A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

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93
Q

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

A

D. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

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94
Q

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

A

B. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer

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95
Q

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

A

B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location

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96
Q

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

A

C. Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary

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97
Q

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

A

C. 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

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98
Q

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

A

D. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

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99
Q

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

A

D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station

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100
Q

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

A

C. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

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101
Q

What is QRP operation?

A

B. Low-power transmit operation

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102
Q

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

A

A. To allow each station to operate according to conditions

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103
Q

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

A

D. LSB

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104
Q

What is VARA?

A

B. A digital protocol used with Winlink

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105
Q

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

A

D. All these choices are correct

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106
Q

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

A

D. Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

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107
Q

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

A

B. USB

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108
Q

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A

B. 170 Hz

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109
Q

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

A

B. Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

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110
Q

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

A

D. Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

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111
Q

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

A

C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

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112
Q

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

A

D. Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

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113
Q

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

A

C. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event

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114
Q

Which of the following describes Winlink?

A

D. All of the above

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115
Q

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

A

B. Gateway

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116
Q

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

A

D. All these choices are correct

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117
Q

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

A

C. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

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118
Q

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

A

A. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

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119
Q

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

A

B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

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120
Q

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

A

C. 8 minutes

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121
Q

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

A

D. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

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122
Q

What is the solar flux index?

A

D. A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters

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123
Q

What is a geomagnetic storm?

A

D. A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

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124
Q

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

A

D. At any point

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125
Q

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

A

D. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

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126
Q

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

A

A. Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals

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127
Q

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

A

C. Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis

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128
Q

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

A

D. 15 hours to several days

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129
Q

What does the K-index measure?

A

B. The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

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130
Q

What does the A-index measure?

A

C. The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

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131
Q

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

A

B. HF communication is disturbed

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132
Q

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

A

D. A slightly delayed echo might be heard

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133
Q

What factors affect the MUF?

A

D. All these choices are correct

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134
Q

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

A

A. Just below the MUF

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135
Q

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

A

A. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received

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136
Q

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

A

A. They are refracted back to Earth

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137
Q

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

A

C. They are attenuated before reaching the destination

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138
Q

What does LUF stand for?

A

A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points

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139
Q

What does MUF stand for?

A

B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

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140
Q

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

A

C. 2,500 miles

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141
Q

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

A

B. 1,200 miles

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142
Q

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

A

A. Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

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143
Q

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

A

D. High levels of atmospheric noise or static

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144
Q

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

A

A. The D region

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145
Q

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

A

A. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

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146
Q

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

A

C. Because it is the highest

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147
Q

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

A

D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

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148
Q

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

A

C. The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

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149
Q

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

A

B. Signals have a fluttering sound

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150
Q

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

A

D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths

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151
Q

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

A

A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

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152
Q

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

A

B. Scatter

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153
Q

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

A

B. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

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154
Q

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

A

D. The D region

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155
Q

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

A

B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

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156
Q

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

A

B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband

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157
Q

How does a noise blanker work?

A

C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

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158
Q

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

A

B. A pronounced dip

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159
Q

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

A

C. To prevent excessive drive

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160
Q

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

A

C. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line

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161
Q

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

A

A. Received signals may become distorted

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162
Q

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

A

D. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

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163
Q

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

A

C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output

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164
Q

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

A

B. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

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165
Q

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

A

B. The ALC action distorts the signal

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166
Q

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

A

C. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

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167
Q

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

A

A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals

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168
Q

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

A

D. An oscilloscope

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169
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

A

D. Complex waveforms can be measured

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170
Q

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A

A. An oscilloscope

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171
Q

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

A

D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

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172
Q

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

A

D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

173
Q

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

A

C. Higher precision

174
Q

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

A

B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals

175
Q

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

A

A. Linearity

176
Q

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

A

D. When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values

177
Q

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

A

A. Standing wave ratio

178
Q

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

A

C. Antenna and feed line

179
Q

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

A

B. Received power that interferes with SWR readings

180
Q

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

A

C. Impedance of coaxial cable

181
Q

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

A

B. Bypass capacitor

182
Q

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

A

C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection

183
Q

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

A

C. Distorted speech

184
Q

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

A

A. On-and-off humming or clicking

185
Q

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

A

D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

186
Q

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

A

C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

187
Q

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

A

A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

188
Q

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

A

A. Place a ferrite choke on the cable

189
Q

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

A

D. Bond equipment enclosures together

190
Q

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

A

A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

191
Q

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

A

C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together

192
Q

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

A

D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

193
Q

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

A

A. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

194
Q

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

A

B. It increases average power

195
Q

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

A

D. All these choices are correct

196
Q

What does an S meter measure?

A

C. Received signal strength

197
Q

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

A

D. It is 100 times more powerful

198
Q

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

A

A. 6 dB

199
Q

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

A

C. Approximately 4 times

200
Q

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

A

7.175 to 7.178 MHz

201
Q

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz? A. 14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz

A

B. 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

202
Q

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

A

A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

203
Q

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

A

B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

204
Q

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

A

C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

205
Q

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

A

D. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

206
Q

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

A

A. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

207
Q

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

A

B. The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

208
Q

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

A

C. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

209
Q

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

A

C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited

210
Q

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

A

D. All these choices are correct

211
Q

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

A

A. Series-parallel

212
Q

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

A

B. 0.5 VDC

213
Q

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

A

B. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination

214
Q

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

A

D. The solar panel must have a charge controller

215
Q

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

A

C. Resonance causes impedance to be very low

216
Q

What is reactance?

A

B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

217
Q

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

A

D. Reactance

218
Q

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

A

C. Reactance

219
Q

How does an inductor react to AC?

A

D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

220
Q

How does a capacitor react to AC?

A

A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

221
Q

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

A

D. Admittance

222
Q

What is impedance?

A

C. The ratio of voltage to current

223
Q

What unit is used to measure reactance?

A

B. Ohm

224
Q

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

A

D. All these choices are correct

225
Q

What letter is used to represent reactance?

A

B. X

226
Q

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

A

D. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

227
Q

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

A

B. Approximately 3 dB

228
Q

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

A

C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

229
Q

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

A

B. 200 watts

230
Q

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

A

A. 2.4 watts

231
Q

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

A

A. Approximately 61 milliwatts

232
Q

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

A

B. 100 watts

233
Q

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

A

C. The RMS value

234
Q

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

A

D. 339.4 volts

235
Q

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

A

B. 12 volts

236
Q

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

A

C. 20.6 percent

237
Q

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

A

B. 1.00

238
Q

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

A

B. 245 volts

239
Q

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

A

B. 1060 watts

240
Q

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

A

B. 625 watts

241
Q

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

A

C. Mutual inductance

242
Q

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

A

A. The input voltage is multiplied by 4

243
Q

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

A

A. 5.9 ohms

244
Q

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

A

D. 67 ohms

245
Q

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

A

B. To accommodate the higher current of the primary

246
Q

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

A

A. 360 volts

247
Q

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

A

A. 3.5 to 1

248
Q

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

A

D. 10.750 nanofarads

249
Q

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

A

C. 33.3 microfarads

250
Q

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

A

C. 3.3 millihenries

251
Q

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

A

C. 70 millihenries

252
Q

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

A

B. 14.3 microfarads

253
Q

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

A

C. A capacitor in parallel

254
Q

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

A

D. An inductor in series

255
Q

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

A

C. 10.5 volts

256
Q

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

A

B. High discharge current

257
Q

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

A

B. 0.3 volts

258
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

A

C. High capacitance for a given volume

259
Q

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

A

C. 0.7 volts

260
Q

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

A

B. The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

261
Q

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

A

A. Saturation and cutoff

262
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

A

D. Comparatively low cost

263
Q

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

A

B. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

264
Q

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

A

A. Control grid

265
Q

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

A

C. It becomes capacitive

266
Q

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

A

A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance

267
Q

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

A

C. The composition, or “mix,” of materials used

268
Q

What is meant by the term MMIC?

A

B. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

269
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

A

A. Low power consumption

270
Q

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

A

C. 4 GHz

271
Q

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

A

D. All these choices are correct

272
Q

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A

D. Analog

273
Q

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

A

A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

274
Q

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

A

D. Forward biased

275
Q

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

A

A. By creating an impedance in the current’s path

276
Q

What is an SMA connector?

A

B. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz

277
Q

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

A

C. RCA Phono

278
Q

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

A

B. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

279
Q

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

A

C. Capacitors and inductors

280
Q

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

A

A. Full-wave

281
Q

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

A

A. Only one diode is required

282
Q

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

A

B. 180 degrees

283
Q

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

A

D. 360 degrees

284
Q

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

A

A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

285
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

A

C. High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components

286
Q

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

A

C. Symbol 1

287
Q

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

A

D. Symbol 5

288
Q

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

A

B. Symbol 2

289
Q

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

A

C. Symbol 6

290
Q

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

A

A. Symbol 7

291
Q

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

A

B. To eliminate self-oscillations

292
Q

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

A

D. Class C

293
Q

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

A

B. Output is high only when both inputs are high

294
Q

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

A

A. 100%

295
Q

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

A

C. 8

296
Q

What is a shift register?

A

A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

297
Q

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

A

D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

298
Q

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

A

B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

299
Q

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

A

C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

300
Q

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

A

B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

301
Q

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

A

B. FM

302
Q

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

A

B. Filter

303
Q

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

A

D. Double-sideband modulated RF

304
Q

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

A

B. To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line

305
Q

How is a product detector used?

A

D. Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

306
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

A

D. Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

307
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

A

A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

308
Q

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

A

A. Insertion loss

309
Q

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

A

D. All these choices are correct

310
Q

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

A

B. 90 degrees

311
Q

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

A

B. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

312
Q

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

A

D. All these choices are correct

313
Q

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

A

C. Cutoff frequency

314
Q

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

A

D. Ultimate rejection

315
Q

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

A

A. Upper and lower half-power

316
Q

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

A

B. By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

317
Q

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

A

B. Phase modulation

318
Q

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

A

D. Frequency modulation

319
Q

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

A

B. Phase modulation

320
Q

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

A

D. Amplitude modulation

321
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

A

D. All these choices are correct

322
Q

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

A

A. Single sideband

323
Q

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

A

D. Excessive bandwidth

324
Q

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

A

A. 8-tone frequency shift keying

325
Q

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

A

C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

326
Q

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

A

A. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

327
Q

What is QPSK modulation?

A

D. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

328
Q

What is a link budget?

A

C. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver

329
Q

What is link margin?

A

B. The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

330
Q

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency

A

B. Local oscillator

331
Q

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

A

B. Image response

332
Q

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

A

A. Heterodyning

333
Q

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

A

D. Multiplier

334
Q

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

A

C. Odd-order

335
Q

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

A

D. 16 kHz

336
Q

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

A

B. 416.7 Hz

337
Q

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

A

B. Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating

338
Q

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

A

D. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

339
Q

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

A

B. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

340
Q

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

A

C. The sum and difference

341
Q

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

A

A. Intermodulation

342
Q

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

A

C. 2F1-F2

343
Q

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

A

C. 2.4 GHz

344
Q

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

A

A. WSPR

345
Q

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

A

C. Header

346
Q

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

A

C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

347
Q

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

A

A. Request retransmission of the packet

348
Q

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

A

B. The connection is dropped

349
Q

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

A

B. FT8

350
Q

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

A

B. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission

351
Q

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

A

B. If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node

352
Q

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

A

C. By transmitting redundant information with the data

353
Q

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

A

D. Mark and space

354
Q

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

A

A. Varicode

355
Q

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

A

D. Overmodulation

356
Q

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

A

C. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

357
Q

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

A

C. The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth

358
Q

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

A

D. DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

359
Q

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

A

A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

360
Q

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

A

B. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line

361
Q

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

A

D. 450 ohms

362
Q

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

A

C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

363
Q

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

A

B. Attenuation increases

364
Q

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

A

D. Decibels per 100 feet

365
Q

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

A

D. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

366
Q

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

A

B. 5:1

367
Q

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

A

A. 4:1

368
Q

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load? A. 2:1

A

D. 5:1

369
Q

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

A

A. Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line

370
Q

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

A

B. Station equipment may carry significant RF current

371
Q

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

A

B. Slope the radials downward

372
Q

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

A

D. Omnidirectional in azimuth

373
Q

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

A

A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

374
Q

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

A

C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

375
Q

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

A

C. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground

376
Q

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

A

B. It steadily decreases

377
Q

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

A

A. It steadily increases

378
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

A

A. Lower ground losses

379
Q

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

A

D. 33 feet

380
Q

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

A

C. 132 feet

381
Q

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

A

A. 8 feet

382
Q

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

A

A. Larger-diameter elements

383
Q

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

A

B. 1/2 wavelength

384
Q

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

A

A. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

385
Q

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

A

B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher

386
Q

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

A

A. Gain increases

387
Q

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

A

C. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

388
Q

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

A

D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

389
Q

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

A

B. Approximately 3 dB higher

390
Q

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

A

D. All these choices are correct

391
Q

What is a beta or hairpin match?

A

A. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

392
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

A

A. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

393
Q

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

A

A. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

394
Q

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

A

D. Very high

395
Q

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

A

C. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo

396
Q

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

A

A. To enable multiband operation

397
Q

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

A

D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation

398
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

A

A. Wide bandwidth

399
Q

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

A

A. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom

400
Q

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

A

B. By varying the base loading inductance

401
Q

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

A

A. Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands

402
Q

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

A

B. Broadside to the loop

403
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

A

D. They have poor harmonic rejection

404
Q

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

A

A. Inverted V

405
Q

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

A

A. It heats body tissue

406
Q

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

A

D. All these choices are correct

407
Q

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

A

D. All these choices are correct

408
Q

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

A

D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

409
Q

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

A

A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

410
Q

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

A

A. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

411
Q

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

A

A. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

412
Q

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

A

C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas

413
Q

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

A

B. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

414
Q

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

A

C. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present

415
Q

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

A

C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas

416
Q

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

A

D. All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

417
Q

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

A

A. Only the hot wires

418
Q

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

A

C. AWG number 12

419
Q

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

A

D. 15 amperes

420
Q

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

A

B. Outside the building

421
Q

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

A

B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

422
Q

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

A

C. Electrical safety of the station

423
Q

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

A

B. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

424
Q

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

A

B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

425
Q

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

A

A. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

426
Q

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

A

A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

427
Q

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

A

D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds

428
Q

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

A

C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

429
Q

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

A

A. Where the feed lines enter the building

Ham Radio General 01 29 24 (1 decks)

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