Haemoptysis Flashcards

1
Q

What other symptoms can be mistaken by the patient for haemoptysis? (3)

A

Haematemesis
Epistaxis (can be posterior in the nose without much visible bleeding out the front of the nose)
Oral bleeding (explore dental health)

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2
Q

What are two vascular causes of haemoptysis?

A

Pulmonary emboli
Arteriovenous malformations

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3
Q

What age group does vasculitis commonly affect?

A

Adults over 50 (also more common in women than men).

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4
Q

What are the two broad divisions of lung cancer?

A

Small cell (15-20%) and non-small-cell (80-85%).

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5
Q

What are the main subtypes of non-small-cell lung cancer? (3)

A

Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell
Large cell

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6
Q

Describe adenocarcinoma lung cancer.

A

Adenocarcinoma originates in the glandular cells which secrete mucus, and tend to develop in small airways, hence are more peripheral on imaging and can resemble pneumonia.

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7
Q

Describe squamous cell lung cancer.

A

Squamous cell cancer originates from the transformation of the squamous cells lining the airways, and therefore tend to be more central. They can often form a cavity and are smoking related.

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8
Q

Describe large cell lung cancer.

A

Large cell lung cancer can appear anywhere within the lung and often grow and spread quicker than the other subtypes.

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9
Q

What are the differences in prognosis between small cell and non-small-cell lung cancer?

A

Small cell lung cancer tends to grow and spread faster than non-small-cell, and commonly presents with stage 4 disease at the outset. It tends to be more chemotherapy responsive, however generally has a poorer prognosis than non-small-cell cancer.

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10
Q

What are the NICE guideline indications for a suspected lung cancer referral? (2)

A

Chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer OR patient is aged 40 or over and has unexplained haemoptysis.

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11
Q

What do rapid access lung cancer clinics usually involve?

A

Straight to CT scan from referral, followed by a timely radiology report, and then a physician review.

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12
Q

Name four paraneoplastic syndromes which can manifest as a result of lung cancer.

A

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
SIADH
Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
Cushings Syndrome

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13
Q

In the TNM cancer staging system, what are each of the categories used?

A

T = tumour characteristics
N = nodal disease (involvement of lymph nodes)
M = any sites of metastatic disease

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14
Q

What is involved in measuring ‘shuttle walk distance’?

A

Patient walks back and forth between two markers, typically 10m apart, with increasing speed in a graded fashion - the number of shuttles that can be completed before becoming too breathless or cannot keep up with the pace is indicative of cardiopulmonary exercise capacity.

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15
Q

What is the ECOG Performance Status Scale?

A

A scale of grades 0 (fully active) to 5 (deceased), used to assess a patient’s level of daily functioning and fitness for treatment, based on activities of daily living, mobility and independence.

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16
Q

Briefly describe how PET scans work.

A

A radiotracer (fluorodeoxyglucose [FDG]) is injected into the patient - this is similar to naturally occurring glucose and so is treated similarly by the body. A PET scan then analyses where the radiotracer does and does not build up in the body.

17
Q

What is varenicline?

A

A drug treatment for smoking cessation which is both a nicotine receptor agonist and antagonist, releasing dopamine via its agonist action which alleviates cravings, and preventing dopamine release from nicotine in cigarettes which prevents the positive impact from smoking.

18
Q

When does immunotherapy related pneumonitis classically present?

A

Within the first 3 months after starting immunotherapy.

19
Q

What symptoms does immunotherapy related pneumonitis classically present with?

A

Variable degree of symptoms including cough and shortness of breath, and in some cases significant respiratory failure.

20
Q

How is immunotherapy related pneumonitis treated?

A

Steroids: intravenous methylprednisolone in more severe disease, or oral prednisolone in milder disease.

21
Q

What are the causes of pleural effusion broadly divided into? (2)

A

Transudates - effusions caused by factors that alter hydrostatic pressure, pleural permeability and oncotic pressure.
Exudates - effusions caused by changes to the local factors that influence the formation and absorption of pleural fluid.

22
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for identifying whether a pleural effusion is transudate or exudate?

A

Transudate: pleural fluid protein < 30g/L
Exudate: pleural fluid protein > 30g/L

(In patients with normal serum protein level)

23
Q

What is Light’s Criteria?

A

A highly sensitive set of three diagnostic criteria used to identify exudative pleural effusions; if any of the three criteria are met, the effusion is defined as an exudate.

24
Q

What are some common conditions associated with transudative pleural effusions? (4)

A

Congestive heart failure
Liver cirrhosis
Severe hypoalbuminemia
Nephrotic syndrome

25
Q

What are some common conditions associated with exudative pleural effusions? (5)

A

Malignancy
Infection
Trauma
Pulmonary infarction
Pulmonary embolism

26
Q

What is mesothelioma?

A

A malignant tumour of the mesothelium.

27
Q

What type of cancer is asbestos exposure strongly related to?

A

Mesothelioma

28
Q

What is the classic presentation of mesothelioma of the lung pleura?

A

Shortness of breath, chest pain and a pleural effusion.

29
Q

Name the three main subtypes of mesothelioma.

A

Epithelioid
Sarcomatoid
Mixed

30
Q

What are the three main pathophysiological mechanisms that result in hypercalcaemia of malignancy?

A

Secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP)
Osteolytic metastases
Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol)