Haemopoiesis and Anaemia Flashcards

1
Q

Where does production of blood cells occur?

A

RBCs, platelets and most white blood cells in the bone marrow - extensive throughout infant, but more limited distribution in adulthood with predominantly the pelvis, sternum, skull, ribs and vertebrae.

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2
Q

When looking at disorders of bone marrow, how is a sample obtained?

A

You can do a Trepline biopsy or more specifically look at particles from a bone marrow aspirate (iliac crest of pelvis).

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3
Q

Haemopoiesis is controlled by hormones, how are lymphocytes derived?

A

Multipotential haematopoietic stem cells (Hemocytoblast) –> common lymphoid progenitor (+ common myeloid progenitor) –> small lymphocytes –> B and T

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4
Q

How are platelets derived?

A

Multipotential haematopoietic stem cells (Hemocytoblast) –> (common lymphoid progenitor) + common myeloid progenitor –> Megakaryocyte (+ erythrocyte + myebolast) –> thrombocytes.

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5
Q

How are erythrocytes derived?

A

Multipotential haematopoietic stem cells (Hemocytoblast) –> (common lymphoid progenitor) + common myeloid progenitor –> erythrocyte (+ Megakaryocyte + myebolast).

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6
Q

How are white blood cells other than lymphocytes derived?

A

Multipotential haematopoietic stem cells (Hemocytoblast) –> (common lymphoid progenitor) + common myeloid progenitor –> (Megakaryocyte + erythrocyte) myebolasts –> monocytes, eosinophils, neutrophils, basophils.

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7
Q

Haemopoiesis is controlled by cytokines, which ones trigger the production/release of which blood cells?

A

Megakaryocyte - TPO and GM-CSF, Granulocytes - G-CSF and GM-CSF, Lymphocytes - ILs and TNFs play a major role.

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8
Q

Control and removal of blood cells is via the ______________________ system, a network in _______ and tissues, part of the immune system containing ___________ cells: kupffer cells, monocytes, neutrophils, tissue history test and ________ cells in the CNS. Cells of the RES can identify and mount an appropriate response to foreign _________.

A
Reticuloendothelial
Blood
Phagocytic
Microglial
Antigens
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9
Q

What are the major organs and their roles in the Reticuloendothelial system?

A

The spleen and the liver. All blood cells pass through the spleen and RE cells can dispose of them (particularly damaged/old RBCs). Extracellular fluid travels via the lymph to the lymph nodes.

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10
Q

Measuring peripheral blood counts, you want to know how many, how effective me how large the cells are. Ranges can vary between populations and laboratories, but roughly what do you want?

A

Hb adult male - 130-180g/L, female - 115-165g/L,
RBC (count) m - 4.5-6.5x10(power of 12) and f - 39-5.6/L,
MCV (mean cell volume) - 80-100fL,
WBC - 4-11 x10(power of 9)/L,
Platelet count - 150-400x10(power of 9)/L.

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11
Q

What are the functions of red cells?

A

Deliver oxygen to tissues, carry Hb, maintain Hb in reduced (ferrous) state, generate ATP (to maintain membrane) and maintain osmotic equilibrium.

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12
Q

RBCs should last ___ days, are _______ in shape, a flexible disc ___micrometers in diameter, have a lipid bilayer with membrane ________. The shape facilitates passage through the _____________, which had a minimum diameter of ___micrometers. Changes in components of the cell membrane (congenital/__________), will Chang the RBC ________.

A
120
Biconcave 
8
Proteins
Microcirculation 
3.5
Acquired
Shape
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13
Q

Haemoglobin is a tetramer of 2 pairs of _______ _______, each with their own ____ group (containing __) - they may exist in 2 ___________. There are globin gene clusters of chromosomes ___ and ___ expressed at different stages of _____. Globin chains are synthesised independently and then ________.

A
Globin chains
Haem 
Fe
Configurations 
10 and 16
Life
Combine
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14
Q

When does the switch from foetal to adult haemoglobin occur and why does it matter?

A

The switch occurs at 3-6 months and the variants have different peptides and therefore properties.

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15
Q

What do haem molecules do?

A

Haem molecules combine reversibly with oxygen and carbon dioxide to carry the former from the lungs to the tissues and do the opposite for the latter.

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16
Q

What do the globin chains on Hb do?

A

Protect the haem from oxidation, confer solubility and permits variation in oxygen affinity (and shape).

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17
Q

What is the shape of the oxygen binding curve and what is it influenced by?

A

Sigmoid, facilitated by the change in shape of Hb - position of curve shifted under certain conditions.

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18
Q

What happens to the haemoglobin components in its catabolism?

A

The globin chains are split into amino acids that are recycled. The haem goes into Fe reused and bilirubin in a negative feedback loop of RE cells, with excess RBC destruction causing excessive bilirubin formation (should be excreted in bile from gall bladder), leading to jaundice.

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19
Q

How is erythropoiesis specifically controlled?

A

Reduced pO2 is detected in interstitial peritubular cells in the kidney, so increased production of erythropoietin (hormone), which stimulates the maturation and release of red cells from the bone marrow - Hb rises, pO2 rises, so erythropoietin production falls.

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20
Q

What are the 2 metabolic pathways in red cells?

A

Glycolysis - glucose –> lactate (ATP generated).

Pentose phosphate pathway - G-6-P metabolised (produces NADPH).

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21
Q

Iron - an essential element in all living cells, transports and ______ oxygen and is an integral part of many ________ (for energy metabolism, neurotransmitter production, collagen formation and immune system function). There is no mechanism of ________ Fe and the quantity of ______ Fe is carefully controlled. __________ is very common and a major cause of global health problems.

A
Stores
Enzymes
Excreting 
Blood
Deficiency
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22
Q

What are the different types of available and stored Fe?

A

Available: Hb (2000mg), myoglobin (oxygen reserve in muscles), tissue Fe (enzyme systems e.g. Cytochromes) and transported/serum Fe (3mg).
Stored: Ferritin (soluble, can do a biochemistry test), Haemosiderin - macrophage Fe (can be stained for, insoluble, 1000mg).

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23
Q

More iron is used during pregnancy, where does most of the active iron come from?

A

80% of active iron comes from recycling within the body, not gut absorption.

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24
Q

Macrophages consume old, senescent RBCs, there are mainly splenic macrophages and Kupffer cells of the liver, where is most of the stored Fe in the liver?

A

95% of stored Fe in the liver is as ferritin in hepatocytes. Haemosiderrin makes up the remaining 5% in the Kupffer cells.

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25
Q

1-2mg of Fe enters and leaves the body each day, how?

A

A small amount of iron is lost each day e.g. Skin and gut cells. In the diet, haem Fe is a better source than non-Haem. 10-15mg per day is needed in the diet and there is Fe supplementation for instance in cereals.

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26
Q

What are the differences in initial absorption of haem and non haem Fe?

A

When haem enters enterocytes, the iron released is ferrous, but in non haem it mainly exists as ferric. This needs to be reduced before it is transported across the intestinal epithelium. Different proteins are involved in absorbing different types. Stomach acid may reduce ferric iron for absorption on the apical surfaces of the duodenum and upper jejunum.

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27
Q

What happens once Fe is absorbed in the intestine?

A

It is either stored as ferritin or transported in the bloodstream. Iron is transported out of the cell by ferroportin - fatal enterocytes have receptors for lactoferrin, the primary source of Fe in infants.

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28
Q

What are transferrin receptors and which type of cell has the most?

A

Fe is taken into cells by the binding of the iron-transferrin complex to the TfR. Erythroid cells have the highest number of transferrin receptors.

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29
Q

What aids and what diminishes iron absorption?

A

Vitamin C enhances Fe absorption (better when acidic - orange juice), whereas precipitation/chelation of Fe by tea, chapatis and antacids inhibit absorption.

30
Q

What is the regulation of Fe absorption dependent on?

A

Dietary factors, body iron stores and erythropoiesis.

Dietary Fe levels are sensed by villi of enterocytes.

31
Q

What are the control mechanisms of regulating iron absorption?

A

Regulation of transporters, expression of receptors (HFE and TfR), Hepcidin and cytokines, cross talk between epithelial cells and others (e.g. Macrophages).

32
Q

What is Hepcidin in relation to Fe absorption?

A

It’s a negative regulator of Fe absorption. It is secreted by the liver and excreted by the kidneys. Synthesis is increased when there’s Fe overload and decreased by high erythropoietic activity. It degrades ferroportin (a protein that moves Fe out of cells), so inhibits absorption form the gut and release from stores e.g. In macrophages (regulated by HFE, TfR and inflammatory cytokines).

33
Q

Importance of Fe:
The most common _________ disorder worldwide is Fe deficiency, with a ________ of the world anaemic and at least ______ of them Fe deficient. As well as that, ______ Fe is harmful. But, Fe deficiency is a symptom and not a ____________.

A
Nutritional
Third
Half
Excess
Diagnosis
34
Q

How does a person become Fe deficient?

A

Insufficient intake/poor absorption or increased use - physiological e.g. Pregnancy or pathological e.g. Bleeding.

35
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of Fe deficiency?

A

Symptoms include the physiological effects of anaemia: tiredness, reduced oxygen carrying and cardiac symptoms.
Signs are pallor, tachycardia, increased respiratory rate and epithelial changes.

36
Q

How may blood parameters and blood film features point to iron deficiency?

A

Hypochromic shows low Hb content, Microcytic means small RBCs so low MCV, Anisopoikylocytosis means a change in shape/size of cells, perhaps pencil or target cells, low serum ferritin and low reticulocyte haemoglobin content (CHR).

37
Q

What substances may be tested to gauge Fe deficiency, and what will the show?

A

Ferritin is a commonly used measure of Fe status (but is an acute phase protein, so reduced levels may show deficiency, but raised/normal doesn’t exclude it), so CHR is used to identify a functional Fe deficiency (shows how much is getting into erythroid cells) - it remains low during the inflammatory response, but is low when a patient has Thalassaemia. Then further tests to confirm/investigate causes: inadequate intake (vegetarian), increased loss (check GI for bleed), or excessive use (pregnancy).

38
Q

How is Fe deficiency treated and what response is aimed for?

A

Treat with dietary advice, oral supplements, intramuscular injections, IV Fe or transfusion - only if severe anaemia with imminent cardiac arrest. Desired response: improve in symptoms and 20g/L rise in Hb within 3 weeks.

39
Q

In general, what is the danger of excess Fe?

A

Free Fe is bad, because it exceeds the binding capacity of transferrin, so reduced Fe reacts to produce highly reactive hydroxyl and lipid radicals, which damage lipid membranes, nucleic acids and proteins - excess Fe is deposited in tissues.

40
Q

Haemochromatosis:
Disorder of Fe ______ resulting in end organ damage due to Fe _________, leading to liver ________, diabetes _________, hypogonadism, cardiomyopathy, arthropathy and skin pigmentation. The 2 types are: ____________ haemochromatosis or transfusion-associated _______________.

A
Excess
Deposition
Cirrhosis
Mellitus
Hereditary
Haemosiderosis
41
Q

What is hereditary haemochromatosis?

A

An autosomal recessive mutation in the HFE gene on chromosome 6. Normally the proteins complete with transferrin for binding to TfR, but mutated HFE can’t bind, so too much Fe enters the cells. Treat with venesection.

42
Q

What is transfusion-associated haemosiderosis?

A

An acquired type of haemochromatosis. 400ml of blood = 200mg Fe. May be seen in cases of transfusion dependent anaemias e.g. Thalassaemias, myelodysplasia, where the transfusions lead to gradual accumulation of Fe. Fe cheating agents delay, but don’t stop the inevitable effects of the overload, so transfusion should be limited as far as possible.

43
Q

What is the physiological life cycle of a RBC and what is anaemia?

A

Bone marrow –> peripheral RBC –> removal.

Anaemia is a haemoglobin concentration lower than the normal range.

44
Q

How can chronic kidney disease cause anaemia?

A

Usually hypoxia triggers the kidneys to release erythropoietin, but if the kidneys stop making it (as in chronic kidney disease), there’s a lack of response to the haemostatic loop.

45
Q

How can problems with the bone marrow cause anaemia?

A

It may not be able to respond to erythropoietin after chemotherapy/toxic insult e.g. Parvovirus. Or, the marrow may be infiltrated by cancer cells/fibrous tissue (from myelofibrosis), meaning normal haematopoietic cells are reduced.

46
Q

Dyserythropoiesis (defective development of RBCs) leading to anaemia may be a result of chronic disease, give some examples.

A

Inflammatory conditions, chronic infections and bronchiectasis.

47
Q

What are the features of anaemia of chronic disease and how is it treated?

A

Iron storednin macrophages is not released for use in the bone marrow, circulating red cells have a reduced life span, marrow shows a lack of response to erythropoietin and the anaemia may be microcytic, normocytic or macrocytic.
Treat the underlying cause (clinical clue is often raised CRP and ferritin).

48
Q

What are myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) and how are they treated?

A

Usually seen in the elderly, production of abnormal clones of bone marrow cells (genetic change), producing red cells that are defective and large (macrocytic anaemia), that are prematurely destroyed by the RES. This may lead to progressive anaemia or pancytopenia/acute leukaemia may develop. It’s treated by chronic transfusions of RBCs.

49
Q

Anaemia may otherwise result as a result of faults in haemoglobin synthesis, which components may be involved?

A

Lack of Fe may lead to anaemia (deficiency or functional lack of Fe from chronic disease), as do the building blocks for DNA synthesis: vitamin B12 and folate (leading to Megaloblastic anaemia), or mutations in the genes coding for globin - Thalassaemia or Sickle cell disease.

50
Q

What are vitamin B12 and folate used for and what may be the result of a deficiency?

A

They are necessary for nuclear divisions and maturations. When deficient, it lags behind the cytoplasm, resulting in large red cell precursors with large nuclei and open chromatin - macrocytic anaemia.

51
Q

How does Vitamin B12 get from outside the body to the bone marrow and tissues?

A

It is synthesised from microorganisms and humans get it by eating animal origin foods. B12+ intrinsic factor (glycoproteins) from stomach’s parietal cells –> IF-B12 complex, which binds to the ileum - B12 is absorbed and IF destroyed. In the portal blood, B12 is bound to the plasma protein transcobalamin, which delivers it to the bone marrow and other tissues.

52
Q

How might a B12 deficiency progress?

A

It may be dietary (in vegans), from a lack of intrinsic factor (autoantibodies against parietal cells), disease of the terminal ileum (e.g. Crohn’s) or a congenital deficiency in transcobalamin. B12 is stored in the body for years, so a deficiency takes time.

53
Q

Folate is needed everywhere for DNA synthesis, how does it get to the cells?

A

Folate is present in most foods (yeast, liver, leafy greens) and is absorbed in the duodenum and the jejunum. Dietary folate are all converted into methyl-THF, which circulates throughout the plasma and is needed for DNA synthesis.

54
Q

How does folate deficiency occur?

A

Through dietary deficiency, proximal small bowel disease, alcoholism, certain drugs (that inhibit the dihydrofolate reductase enzyme) and as a result of increased use in: pregnancy, increased erythropoiesis (haemolytic anaemia).

55
Q

Folate or B12 deficiency mean a deficiency in the building blocks for DNA synthesis, what effects can they have on the blood cells?

A

Macrocytic RBCs, hypersegmented neutrophils and pancytopenia may develop. Vitamin B12 (not folate) is associated with neurological disease (demyelination).

56
Q

What is Thalassaemia and what are the different types?

A

Reduced rate of synthesis of normal alpha or beta globin chains - a heterozygous of genetic disorders leading to low levels of intracellular Hb (high prevalence in S. Asians, the Mediterranean and the Far East). Beta Thalassaemia can be major (homozygous), intermedia or mild. Alpha can be a silent carrier, trait, HbH disease or Hydrops fetalis (depending on the number of genes affected).

57
Q

What are the effects of Thalassaemia or the cells and how does the body try to compensate?

A

Low levels of intracellular Hb lead to hypochromic, microcytic RBCs, with a relative excess of the other globin chain contributing to the defective nature, meaning more defective cells are destroyed in the spleen and bone marrow. Extramedullary haemopoiesis attempts to compensate (so a large spleen, liver and skeletal abnormalities) and death may be from iron overload.

58
Q

How is Thalassaemia treated?

A

Transfusions, iron chelation, folic acid, holistic care (and stem cell transplant for some).

59
Q

What is Sickle cell disease?

A

The synthesis of abnormal haemoglobin. A point mutation leading to glu–>val in a beta globin chain. HbSS is homozygous, but can also be coinherited. HbS readily gives up oxygen to HbA.

60
Q

What’s the clinical pattern of Sickle cell disease?

A

The HbS carrier state causes mild, asymptomatic anaemia (30% West Africans), but other than that the clinical pattern is very variable. A Sickle cell crisis involves: vaso occlusion (painful and organs like spleen and liver involved), aplastic, haemolytic, other organ damage.

61
Q

Anaemia may also develop from the structure of peripheral RBCs - abnormalities in the proteins making up the cell membrane may lead to which different types of cell?

A

Spherocytes, elliptocytes (rods), acanthocytes and target cells may be inherited.

62
Q

How may RBCs acquire mechanical damage?

A

Heart valves, vasculitis, MAHA (microangiopathies), DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulopathy), heart damage, burns or osmotic damage (drowning).

63
Q

Anaemia may also come from the metabolism of peripheral RBCs, what does that mean?

A

There might be enzyme defects, such as glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency or pyruvate kinase.

64
Q

How could anaemia develop from loss of red cells?

A

Acutely as a trauma/haemorrhage or chronic blood loss: gastric ulceration or cancer, colon cancer, excessive menstruation, bladder cancer. Chronic blood loss may be macroscopically invisible and present with microcytic anaemia from an Fe deficient state. It needs investigating.

65
Q

Anaemia may be the result of removal by the ____________________ system. 1 function of the _______ is to remove damaged/defective RBCs (does so in membrane/enzyme/____ disorders). Anaemia by increased red cell destruction is ___________ anaemia and can be intracellular or extra_________.

A
Reticuloendothelial
Spleen
Hb
Haemolytic
Vascular
66
Q

Haemolytic anaemia may have an auto immune cause, which antibodies are involved?

A

If the patient is warm, then IgG (best at 37 degrees) and if they’re cold, then IgM (best at 4 degrees). They are the broadly classified 2 types.

67
Q

What are they key features of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Increased reticulocytes (bone marrow compensates), raised bilirubin and LDH (red cells rich).

68
Q

The cause of anaemia may be multi factor although, explain how Myelofibrosis and Thalassaemia are examples of this.

A

Myelofibrosis has the RES and erythropoiesis affected, whereas Thalassaemia involves Hb synthesis, structure and RES.

69
Q

How is anaemia classed?

A

By the mechanism, size of cells and presence/absence of reticulocytosis.

70
Q

What sort of things can be problems with erythropoiesis?

A

Overproduction from myeloproliferative disorders (neoplasms), dysregulation at multipotent haematopoietic stem cells - hypercellular marrow/fibrosis or transformation to acute leukaemia e.g. Polycythaemia Vera (PV), leading to a high haematocrit (sticky blood so thrombosis).

71
Q

What is erythrocytosis?

A

Increase in the concentration of red blood cells - relative (normal red cell mass, but plasma volume drops) or absolute - from PV or driven by EPD production (may be physiologically appropriate - hypoxia in athletes).

72
Q

How is Polycythaemia Vera treated?

A

Venesection for a haematocrit > 0.45, aspirin, manage CVS risk factors, drugs considered if disease progression or poor venesection tolerance.