Haemopoiesis Flashcards

1
Q

Where are haemopoietic stem cells found? [1]

A

in the inner cell mass of bones (i.e. the bone marrow)

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2
Q

What are the sites of haemopoiesis in the foetus at:

a. 0-2 months [1]
b. 2-7 months [2]
c. 5-9 months [1]

A

a. yolk sac
b. liver and spleen (which will continue producing blood cells until 2 weeks after birth)
c. bone marrow

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3
Q

What is the site of haemopoiesis in infants? [2]

A

bone marrow in all bones

  • nearly all bones are haemopoietic in infants but there’s a progressive replacement of marrow by fat in the long bones
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4
Q

What is the site of haemopoiesis in adults? [2]

A

bone marrow in the central skeleton (vertebrae, ribs, sterum, skull, sacrum, pelvis) and ends of femurs

  • around 30% of bone marrow is still haemopoietically active
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5
Q

What are the characteristics of haemopoietic stem cells? [5]

A

self-renewal capacity

unspecialised

ability to differentiate and mature

rare

quiescent (not undergoing cell cycle, in G0) - only undergoes occasional cell division

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6
Q

Where are haemopoietic stem cells found? [3]

A

bone marrow

peripheral blood after treatment with G-CSF

umbilical cord blood

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7
Q

What is G-CSF? [1]

A

glycoprotein that stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes and stem cells and release them into the bloodstream

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8
Q

Why are HSCs referred to as having multipotent properties? [1]

A

due to the fact they produce several different cell types

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9
Q

Name the 3 types of stem cell division and explain the different effects that each has on stem cell numbers

A
  1. Symmetrical Division leading to contraction of stem cell numbers
  2. Symmetrical Division leading to expansion of stem cell numbers
  3. Asymmetrical Division leading to maintenance of stem cell numbers
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10
Q

What is the bone marrow microenvironment composed of? [2]

A

stromal cells

microvascular network (ECM)

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11
Q

Give 5 examples of stromal cells [5]

A

Macrophages

Fibroblasts

Endothelial cells

Fat cells

Reticulum cells

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12
Q

What do stromal cells secrete? [6]

A

Secrete extracellular molecules including growth factors and adhesion molecules, all of which are essential for stem cells to grow, divide and differentiate into mature blood cells

molecules: e.g.

  • laminin
  • proteoglycans
  • collagen
  • haemonectin
  • fibronectin
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13
Q

What are the 2 types of bone marrow and what are each composed of? [4]

A

Red - due to erythrocytes

Yellow - due to fat cells

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14
Q

Name the hereditary conditions that impair bone marrow function [8]

A
  1. Thalassaemia
  2. Sickle cell anaemia
  3. Fanconi anaemia
  4. Dyskeratosis congentia
  5. Schwachman-Diamond syndrome
  6. Diamond-Blackfan anaemia
  7. Thrombocytopenia with absent radii
  8. Hereditary leukaemia (very rare)
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15
Q

Name the acquired conditions impairing bone marrow function [10]

A
  1. aplastic anaemia
  2. leukaemia
  3. myelodysplasia
  4. myeloproliferative disorders
  5. myelofibrosis
  6. metastatic malignancy (e.g. breast, prostate)
  7. infections (e.g. TB/HIV)
  8. drugs and toxins
  9. chemotherapy
  10. haematinic deficiency
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16
Q

Describe the principles/pathogenesis of leukaemogenesis [4]

A

it’s a multistep process

the neoplastic cell is either a haemopoietic stem cell, lymphoid cell or an early myeloid cell

  1. dysregulation of cell growth & differentiation occurs (often associated with mutations)
  2. proliferation of the leukaemic clone with differentiation blocked at an early stage
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17
Q

Define clonal haemopoietic stem cell disorders [1]

A

haematological malignancies and pre-malignant conditions that arise from a single ancestral cell

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18
Q

What are the 3 criteria needed for evidence of clonality in haemopoietic stem cell disorder? [3]

A
  1. almost all lymphoproliferative disorders and some AMLs carry a unique rearrangement of either an immunoglobin or TcR gene
  2. X-chromosome inactivation studies in women with leukaemia show that the clonal proliferation carries either an active maternal or paternal X-chromosome
  3. acquired cytogenetic or molecular changes that arise during the development of a malignancy

AML: acute myeloid leukaemia/CML: chronic myeloid leukaemia

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19
Q

Define myeloproliferative disorders [1]

A

clonal disorders of haemopoiesis leading to increased numbers of one or more mature blood progeny

20
Q

Give examples of myeloproliferative disorders [6]

A
  1. polycytaemia rubra vera
  2. essential thrombocytosis
  3. myelofibrosis
  4. mastocytosis
  5. clonal hypereosinophilic syndromes
  6. chronic neutrophilic leukaemia
21
Q

What is the main risk associated with myeloproliferative disorders?

A

potential to transform to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

22
Q

Define essential thrombocytosis [1]

A

a primary myeloproliferative disorder with a platelet count (Plt) >600x109/L persistently

23
Q

Describe the genetic basis (associated mutations) of essential thrombocytosis [2]

A

approx. 50% of cases carry JAK2V617F
approx. 50% of cases carry calreticulin mutation

24
Q

What are the clinical features of essential thrombocytosis? [6]

A
  1. continuum with polycythaemia rubra vera (PRV)
  2. thrombotic complications
  3. haemorrhagic complications
  4. splenomegaly
  5. can transform into PRV or myelofibrosis
  6. leukaemia transformation in about 3%
25
Essential thrombocytosis can be stratified into risk groups to decide suitable management. Define each risk group [3] and state the suitable management plan for low and intermediate risk groups [2]
1. low risk = age \<40 with no high risk factors * give aspirin or anti-platelet agent 2. intermediate risk = aged 40-60 with no high risk factors * given aspirin +/- hydroxycarbamide 3. high risk = aged \>60 with 1 or more high risk factors
26
What are the high risk factors associated with essential thrombocytosis? [4]
plt \> 1500x109/L previous thrombosis thrombotic risk factors, e.g. diabetes and hypertension
27
Name the drugs used for management of high risk essential thrombocytosis under the following headings: a. first line therapy [2] b. second line therapy [2] c. what is used during pregnancy? [1] d. name 3 other drugs used [3]
a. hydroxycarbamide + aspirin b. anagrelide + aspirin c. IFN-alpha d. the other drugs: * busulphan * 32P * JAK2 inhibitors
28
What are the 3 features of hydroxycarbamide? [3]
1. very gentle form of chemotherapy 2. can**not** be used during pregnancy as it is teratogenic 3. ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor resulting in reduced production of deoxyribonucleotides
29
Describe the mechanism of action of anagrelide
inhibits megakaryocyte differentiation
30
What is JAK2 and what is its normal function? [2]
JAK2 is a cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase Function = it transduces signals, especially those triggered by haemopoietic growth factors such as erythropoietin, in normal and neoplastic cells
31
What does JAK mutations result in? [1]
continuous activation of the JAK receptor regardless of ligand binding
32
JAK inhibitor: a. drug name? [1] b. used to treat what condition? [1] c. main side effect? [1]
a. ruxolitinib b. myelofibrosis c. thrombocytopenia
33
Define thrombocytopenia [1]
an abnormal drop in blood platelet count
34
Define myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) [3]
group of acquired bone marrow disroders characterised by: * dysplasia [1] * ineffective haemopoiesis in 1 or more of the myeloid series (granulocytes/monocytes, red cells or platelets) [1] * may have increased myeloblasts [1]
35
Who commonly gets MDS? [1]
elderly people
36
How do myelodysplastic syndromes present? [3]
70-80% present with **fatigue due to anaemia** 20% present with **infections** or **bleeding** 20% incidental findings on full blood count
37
Describe the 7 methods of management of myelodysplastic syndromes [7]
1. **supportive care** - blood and platelet transfusion (may need to consider iron chelation in younger patients) 2. **growth factors** - erythropoietin +/- granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) 3. **immunosuppression** - anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG), which is partly successful in treating low-risk MDS 4. **lose dose chemotherapy** - e.g. hydroxycarbamide or low dose cytarabine 5. **demethylating agents** - e.g. azacytidine (an epigenetic therapy) 6. **intensive chemotherapy** - AML-type chemotherapy 7. **allogenic stem cell transplantation**
38
Define Fanconi anaemia [1]
type of anaplastic anaemia that results in bone marrow failure which can present from birth into adulthood
39
Define anaplastic anaemia [1]
autoimmune disease in which the body fails to produce blood cells in sufficient numbers
40
How is Fanconi anaemia inherited? [1]
autosomal recessive
41
List the characteristics of Fanconi anaemia [5]
1. causes somatic abnormalities 2. bone marrow failure 3. short telomeres (abnormal chromosomes) 4. malignancy (increased risk of skin cancer) 5. chromosome instability
42
How does Fanconi anaemia typically present? [7]
1. microphthalmia 2. GU malformations 3. GI malformations 4. mental retardation 5. hearing loss 6. CNS abnormalities (e.g. hydrocephalus) 7. short stature
43
Define microphthalmia
congenital reduction in eye size
44
What is the golden standard therapy for Fanconi anaemia [1] and what are the other options? [3]
gold standard: **allogenic stem cell transplant** other options: * supportive care * corticosteroids * androgens (oxymethalone)
45
Define autologous transplant
uses the patient's own blood stem cells
46
Define allogeneic transplant
any transplant in which the stem cells come from a donor
47
Name the 5 types of donors [5]
1. syngeneic transplant (between identical twins) 2. allogenic transplant (HLA identical) 3. haplotype identical (a half-matched family member: parent or sibling) 4. volunteer unrelated 5. umbilical cord blood