Haemolytic Anaemia Flashcards

1
Q

What are biochemical findings suggestive of intravascular haemolysis?

A

Evidence of RBC breakdown

  • ↑ bilirubin, LDH
  • ↓ haptoglobin (clean up the free Hb from haemolysis)
  • ↑ Urinary haemosiderin (takes ≥48 hours from onset before you see it)
  • ↑ Urinary / faecal urobilinogen

Evidence of compensatory erythropoiesis

  • Reticulocytosis
  • Polychromasia (↑ immature RBCs in the blood)

Evidence of RBC damage

  • Spherocytosis
  • Fragmented RBCs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the initial work up for Haemolysis?

A
  • Bilirubin: conjugated/unconjugated
  • Haptoglobin
  • LDH
  • Reticulocyte count
  • Blood film
  • Urinary haemosiderin
  • DAT
  • Others: B12, folate, iron studies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the major causes of haemolytic anaemia? (categories)

A

Think ADAM-TS

Autoimmune (warm/cold)

Drug-induced

Acquired Membrane abnormalities (cirrhosis, uraemia, PNH)

Mechanical (DIC, valvular HD, TTP, vasculitis)

Thalassaemia and other congenital conditions (HS, G6PD…etc)

Sepsis, including Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which drugs cause warm AIHA? (3)

A
  • Methyldopa (maybe DAT + but only minority develop haemolysis)
  • Penicillin
  • Quinidine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Blood film shows schistocytes (schizocyte) – DDx (4)?

A
  • DIC
  • TTP/HUS
  • Drug induced TMA
  • Mechanical heart valves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What clinical/biochemical findings would be consistent with TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopaenic purpura) or HUS (5)?

A

FAT RN

  • Fever
  • Anaemia (microangiopathic haemolytic)
  • Thrombocytopaenia
  • Renal failure
  • Neurological abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Differentials for +ve DAT? (3)

A
  • Warm AIHA
  • Cold AIHA
  • Drugs (methyldopa, quinine, penicillin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference in the test results (DAT) between the warm and cold agglutinin disease?

A
  • Warm AIHA: IgG +
  • Cold AIHA: IgG –ve, C3b+, IgM +
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Causes of warm and cold agglutinin disease?

A

Warm

Lymphoma, CLL, solid tumours

Connective tissue disease (especially SLE)

Drugs

Cold

Mycoplasma

Hep C

EBV (glandular fever)

Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If patient gets haemoglobinuria at night, pancytopaenic and DVT– what’s the diagnosis? – how would you investigate?

A

Dx = Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

Inv = Flow cytometry for CD59 and CD55

  • CD55 = DAF = decay-accelerating factors
  • CD59 = membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis

Mechanisms

  • There are proteins bound to RBC surface by anchor proteins called GPI
  • In PNH these are lost/faulty in myeloid stem cells → all will have a defect
  • When you sleep → breathing shallow → ↑CO2 → acidosis activates compliment → complement-mediated lysis (usually anchor protein protects RBCs but in PNH these are defective) → intravascular haemolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PNH Management options? Acute and Chronic.

A

Acute thrombotic episodes → anticoagulation with Heparin (warfarin) and start anti-C5 (Eculizumab)

Chronic disease

  • Eculizumab
  • Allogeneic HCT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Management of warm AIHA (2; including options for resistant disease – 3)?

A
  • Steroids – 1mg/kg/day → once Hb recovers, slow taper
  • Replace folate (as they are required for production)
  • Discontinue the drugs if drug-induced

•For those who do not respond to steroids consider…

  • Splenectomy
  • Immunosuppressive: AZA, Cyclophosphamide
  • IVIG
  • Rituximab (off label)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Would you transfuse a patient with warm AIHA?

A
  • Not unless Hb <80
  • It may exacerbate haemolysis because antibody in immune-mediated haemolysis will likely to react with donor RBCs
  • Laboratory testing – cross match - in such cases most often reveals a ‘pan agglutining’ autoantibody.
  • Occasionally the autoantibody has Rh antigen specificity and donor red cells lacking the antigen can be safely transfused under close observation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management of cold AIHA? (5)

A

Treat underlying condition

Maintain warm environment

Transfusion – through warmer

Plasmaparesis

Anti-B cell therapy for those with clonal production

  • Treat underlying malignancy
  • Rituximab + chemo (bendamustine) in those without underlying malignancy
  • Consider Bortezomib in those with MGUS
  • Eclulizumab under investigation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

TTP – pathophysiological mechanism?

A

An enzyme called ADAMS-TS13 is either deficient or inhibited by autoimmune Abs.

The enzyme is responsible for cleavage of vWF multimers into monomers. Thus, vWF remain as a large multimer, which causes excess platelet aggregation to it (recall that Gp Ib of platelet binds to vWF), leads to overconsumption of platelets.

This leads to MAHA, because platelet microthrombi forms in small blood vessels which shears or lyses RBCs when they go through it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

TTP – Mx?

A

This is a medical emergency

  • Plasmaphresis BD (reduces mortality rate 100% → 10%)
  • High dose steroids
  • FFP
  • Refractory → Rituximab + Cyclophosphamide + Vincristine
  • Avoid platelet transfusion (exacerbates thrombosis)
17
Q

What are the cause of DAT positivity in patient with CLL? (2)

A

Warm AIHA

Fludarabine (if combined with Rituximab the risk is less) often exacerbates AIHA

18
Q

What is the normal range of Reticulocyte count?

A

0.2 - 2.0% of the RBC count

19
Q

Comment on the following blood test result.

Blood film: moderate anisocytosis, numerous spherocytes, prominent polychromasia; nucleated red

cells, neutrophilia and band forms.

What test would you ask for?

A

There is normocytic anaemia.

Markedly elevated Reticulocyte, high bilirubin in absence of abnormal LFTs, raised LDH and low Haptoglobin suggest haemolytic anaemia.

Blood film shows prominent polychromasia & nucleated cells indicating marrow erythroid activity.

Numerous spherocytes suggests hereditary spherocytosis or immune haemolysis. Lack of fragmented cells indicate that mechanical haemolysis or MAHA is less likely.

I would ask for DAT (Coombs’ test) to distinguish between AIHA from HS.

20
Q

Sickle cell disease

Diagnostic test (1)

Mx (4)

A

Hb electrophoresis to diagnose

Mx:

Pain relief

O2

Erythrocyte exchange (for stroke and acute chest syndrome)

Hydroxyurea to increase HbF

21
Q
A
22
Q

3 things patients with G6PD deficiency should understand to avoid?

A

Sulphonamides (diuretics – lasix/HCT, HIV drugs, hep C drugs, bactrim)

Anti-malarials

Broad-beans

23
Q

What would you advise to this patient who is having a splenectomy?

A
  1. Vaccinate for pneumococcus, Haemophilus influenzae type B, group C meningococcus and influenza 2–3 weeks before splenectomy if possible. Booster doses every 5 years (annually for ‘flu’).
  2. Consider continuous prophylactic penicillin V 250 mg BD.
  3. Patients should wear an alert bracelet.
  4. Animal bites should be treated aggressively with local disinfection and systemic antibiotics.
  5. Patients with possible septicaemia should have antibiotics to cover encapsulated organisms

(pneumococcus, meningococcus and H. influenzae).

24
Q

What would you look for in Hb electrophoresis for a) alpha-Thalassaemia and b) beta-thalassaemia?

A

Both will have hypochromic microcytic anaemia

Alpha-thalassamia: look for HbS (B4) - seen in HbH disease (a0/a0/a0/aN), about 5-30% of Hb. May not be seen in carrier (a0/aN/aN/aN) or minor/trait (ao/ao/aN/aN)

Beta-thalassaemia: look for absent HbA (a2b2), raised HbF (a2g2), raised HbA2 (a2d2)

25
Q

What are the management problems of beta-thalassaemia in a long case? (5)

A
  1. Transfusion program: for major disease, 4 weekly transfusion (aim Hb >90 pre-transfusion)
  2. Iron overload: need iron-chelators. Problem is that Desferrioxamine is S/C, requires 4-5 nights/week, major psychosocial burden along with transfusions. Nor oral chelators are available (Deferasirox - aka Exjade)
  3. Infection - blood borne, must have Hepatitis, HIV vaccines. Yersinia infection is common, as they are iron-loving (siderophoric)
  4. Splenectomy - pain/anaemia. Infection prophylaxis issue.
  5. Genetic counseling.
26
Q

What are the side effects of desferrioxamine SC? (2) and oral Deferasirox PO (1)?

A

Ototoxicity

Opthalmic toxicity

For Deferasirox - renal impairment.