Haematuria and bladder cancer (module 1) Flashcards

1
Q

visible haematuria may be referred to as

A

frank or macroscopic haematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

non-visible heamaturia may be referred to as

A

microscopic haematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

non-visible blood in urine is detected by

A

microscopy or dipstick urinalysis
3 red blood cells per high power microscopic field indicates microscopic haematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

most common cause of frank haematuria in adults >50

A

bladder cancer
15-22% of pts with macroscopic haematuria have cancer in the urinary tract
5% of pts with microscopic haematuria have cancer in the urinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

haematuria with concurrent UTI

A

do not rule out bladder cancer just because a UTI is present.
bladder cancer is often associated with infected urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

does the presence of visible blood indicate more serious pathology than non-visible blood

A

yes
visible blood increases risk of more serious pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

heamaturia with pain may indicate:

A

Dysuria or irritative lower urinary tract symptoms may indicate cystitis
Severe abdominal or pelvic pain may suggest ureteric (or bladder) calculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

haematuria with blood clots

A

indicates high degree of haematuria and often means significant urological pathology and may need catheter and bladder washout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

DDx for haematuria

A
  • carcinoma (bladder, kidney, ureter, prostate)
  • infection
  • stone
  • trauma eg. catheterisation
  • renal eg. glomerular disease, polycystic kidney
  • benign prostatic hyperplasia
  • anticoagulation
  • papillary necrosis
  • bleeding disorders eg. haemophilia, sickle cell disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what to look for O/E

A

Palpable masses
pain (stones)
rectal exam - revealing enlarged prostate (hard and heterogenous may reveal prostate cancer)
weight loss
anaemia
signs of chronic renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

essential investigations for haematuria

A
  • cystoscopy
  • upper tract investigation (USS +/- IVU or CT urogram)
  • urine microscopy culture and sensitivity
  • urine cytology (selectively)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

more than 90% of bladder cancers are

A

transitional cell carcinomas
a few of the rest are squamous call carcinomas or adenocarcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

male to female ratio of bladder cancer is

A

male : female
2.5 : 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

risk factors for bladder cancer

A

age
male sex
smoking
family history
workers in industries exposed to carcinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

risk factors for bladder cancer

A

age
male sex
smoking
family history
workers in industries exposed to carcinogens such as beta napthylamine, benzidine a rubber, textile/dye industry including hair dressers, printing and metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

risk of smoking vs. risk of working in high risk industry

A

risk of working in high risk industries is negligible compared to increased risk with smoking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

gold standard for diagnosis of bladder cancer

A
  • flexible cystoscopy +/- biopsy for histology
  • urine cytology - very specific but has low sensitivity (negative result cannot exclude cancer)
18
Q

pathological classification of transitional cell carcinoma

A

often multifocal
growth pattern may be papillary, sessile (flat), or carcinoma-in-situ (CIS)

19
Q

how do high grade tumours behave

A

more aggressively
faster growth and more likely to spread than lower grade tumours

20
Q

grading system for bladder cancer

A

grade 1: well differentiated
grade 2: moderately differentiated
grade 3: poorly differentiated

21
Q

TNM staging system

A
22
Q

how to diagnose carcinoma in situ

A

by biopsy/transurethral resection

23
Q

how to treat carcinoma in situ

A

intravesical immunotherapy - BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guerin) with subsequent maintenance.
cystectomy if fails to respond to BCG

24
Q

why do you manage carcinoma situ of the bladder aggressively

A

high grade high risk form of urothelial cancer (unlike carcinoma in situ of other sites)
even when not showing invasion it is at high tsk of progression and should be aggressively managed

25
Q

how to treat carcinoma in situ of the bladder when BCG fails

A

cystectomy

26
Q

what is intravessical BCG

A

live attenuated bacillus calmette-guerin
instilled into the bladder and then drained away via catheter
performed weekly for 6 weeks and then mostly for one year
this is a form of immunotherapy and has been shown to decrease recurrence and progression of CIS and other high risk bladder cancers

27
Q

Ta and T1 bladder cancer define

A

Ta means the cancer is just in the innermost lining of the bladder
T1 means the cancer has begun growing into the connective tissue beneath the bladder lining

28
Q

treatment for Ta and T1 bladder cancer

A

TURBT (transurethral resection of bladder tumour)
Intravesical cytotoxics - using drugs such as mitomycin
intravesical immunotherapy - using drugs such as BCG (bacillus calmette-guerin)

29
Q

TURBT stands for

A

transurethral resection of bladder tumour

30
Q

how to treat muscle invasive bladder cancer

A

radical cystectomy
radiotherapy
combined treatments: chemotherapy followed by radical cystectomy or vice versa

31
Q

multi modal therapy

A

(when you combine chemotherapy/radiotherapy/surgery)
chemotherapy in addition to surgery - (either before surgery (neoadjuvant) or after surgery (adjuvant)) - is usually required.
if radiation is the prime modality, then cutting out as much of the tumour as possible via TURBT followed by concurrent chemo-radiation is the preferred approach

32
Q

cystectomy pre operative requirements

A

major surgery
requires thorough cardiovascular and respiratory system evaluation, bowel prep, blood cross-matched and stoma education pre-operatively

33
Q

cystectomy process

A

ileal segment is taken from the bowel and an end-to-end anastomosis is then performed to restore bowel continuity. (it’s mesentery is maintained)
this piece of bowel forms an ileal conduit and stoma.
both ureters are anastomosed to the piece of resected ileum to form the stoma.

34
Q

how to treat metastatic disease

A

systemic chemotherapy
palliative radiotherapy - to relieve symptoms and improve quality of life
palliative surgery - radical cystectomy and urinary diversion

35
Q

clinical presentation of renal cell carcinoma

A

often late presentation
triad of haematuria, flank pain and abdominal mass. usually asymptomatic
often detected as incidental finding during USS/CT abdo for other indications

36
Q

risk factors for renal cell carcinoma

A

smoking
family Hx
known kidney disorders requiring dialysis

37
Q

treatment for renal cell carcinoma

A

resistant to chemotherapy and radiotherapy
new drugs which target angiogenesis (eg. sutinib and sorafenib) are becoming available
treat with nephrectomy (partial or radical)

38
Q

neoadjuvant vs. adjuvant

A

neoadjuvant = before surgery
adjuvant = after surgery

39
Q

when should haematuria be investigated

A

it is a symptom of cancer and should always be investigated
in adults >50 bladder cancer is the most common cause

40
Q

what percentage of patients with frank haematuria who are investigated will be found to have urinary tract cancer

A

1/4
(25%)

41
Q

what should you do for patients with frank haematuria

A

refer to urologist for cytoscopy

42
Q
A