Haematopoiesis & Blood Cells Flashcards

1
Q

what is haematopoiesis?

A

production of mature blood cells from precursor stem cells

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2
Q

what are stem cells?

A

stable and quiescent cells of mesoderm origin that can self renew indefinitely and undergo differentiation and proliferation to produce a certain type of blood cell

*once a stem cell has started down a specific pathway, it cannot go back

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3
Q

what is the primary site of haematoiesis?

A

red bone marrow

  • when born, all bones have red marrow and are involved
  • as we age, amount of red marrow decreased and is replaced with yellow marrow
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4
Q

what is the main sites of haematoiesis in children vs adults?

A

children - long bones of limbs

adults - skull, ribs, sternum, pelvis, proximal ends of femur (axial skeleton)

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5
Q

what does the common myeloid precursor differentiate stem cells into?

A

B cells, T cells, NK cells

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6
Q

what does the common myeloid precursor differentiate stem cells into?

A

megakaryocyte / erytheroid precursor -> RBC and platelets

granulocyte / macrophage precursor -> macrophage, basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

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7
Q

what is the main stimulant for erythropoiesis?

A

reduced oxygen carrying capacity in blood - stimulates EPO production and release from the kidneys

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8
Q

cell lineage - what is polychromatic normoblast?

A

when Hb begins to be produced

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9
Q

cell lineage - what is orthochromatic normoblast?

A

when nucleus shrinks and all haemoglobin is present

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10
Q

cell lineage - what is reticulocyte?

A

orthochromatic normoblast becomes reticulocytes when nucleus extruded

these are the final precursors before mature RBCs

reticulocytes pass into the blood stream and circulate before becoming mature RBCs

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11
Q

how does reticulocytes differ from mature RBCs?

A

reticulocytes are larger and contain RNA (makes them polychromatic)

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12
Q

what are the features of a mature RBC?

A
biconcave shape
no nucleus (no DNA or RNA)
no mitochondria (only glycolysis)
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13
Q

what is the lifespan of a mature RBC and how are they removed?

A

120 days

removed by liver and spleen

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14
Q

what is haemoglobin composed of?

A

4 globin chains and a haem group

haem group: prophyrin ring / Fe2+ (ferrous)

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15
Q

there are multiple types of globin chain, with different combinations being seen at different stages of life, what chain is the only constant?

A

α chain

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16
Q

what globin chain is present in foetal haemoglobin (HbF)?

A

α2 Υ2

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17
Q

what are the three different forms of adult haemoglobin?

A

HbA: α2 β2 (97%)

HbA2: α2 δ2 (2.5%)

HbF: α2 Υ2 (0.5%)

18
Q

what do RBCs rely on for energy?

A

glycolysis

19
Q

what is the role of the NADH produced in glycolysis of RBC?

A

required to maintain iron in Fe2+ state (ferrous) - needs to be in this state to bind oxygen

20
Q

what is the name of the tripeptide structure which helps protect RBCs from reactive oxygen species which causes oxidative damage to cellular enzymes and Hb?

A

glutathione

  • functions as part of enzyme called glutathione reductase
  • in order for glutathione to function as part of GR, it needs to be in its reduced form
  • this is achieved via the activity of NADPH dependent glutathione reductase
21
Q

what cell is a precursor to platelets?

A

megakaryocyte (large cell with large lobulated nucleus)

*platelets are essentially buds of the megakaryocyte cytoplasm

22
Q

what is the lifespan of platelets?

A

7-10 days

23
Q

what are the key features of neutrophils?

A

multi segmented nucleus (polymorph)

expresses myeloperoxidase (peroxidase enzyme)

24
Q

what is the name of the process in which neutrophils leave the blood stream?

A

marginisation

25
Q

what are the functions of neutrophils?

A

phagocytosis

recruitment of other immune cells

26
Q

what causes neutrophilia (due to reducing marginisation)?

A

acute inflammation / infection
haemorrhage
pregnancy
drugs = steroids

27
Q

what causes neutropenia?

A

aplastic anaemia
pancytopenia
drugs = clozapine, carbimazole

28
Q

what are the key features of eosinophils?

A

red staining granules

bi lobed horse shoe shaped nucleus

29
Q

what are the functions of eosinophils?

A

allergy and defence against parasitic infections

30
Q

what conditions are eosinophils raised in?

A

churg strauss
atophy
parasitic infections
hodgkins

31
Q

what is the most infrequent granulocyte?

A

basophils

32
Q

what are the key features of basophils?

A

dark-staining granules that obscure nucleus

33
Q

what is the function of basophils?

A

thought to be circulating version of mast cells but function not completely known

34
Q

in what conditions is there an increase in basophils?

A

CML

polycythemia rubra vera

35
Q

what are the key features of monocytes?

A

produced from same cell lineage as granulocytes

have large cytoplasm and pale, irregular nucleus (kidney shaped)

36
Q

what is the function of monocytes?

A

they circulate for a couple of days before entering tissues and becoming macrophages where they are involved in phagocytosis and antigen presentation

37
Q

in which conditions are monocytes increased?

A
chronic bacterial infections 
SLE
RA
lymphoma 
leukaemia
38
Q

what are the key features of lymphocytes?

A

small cells with a proportionally large nucleus, with only a small rim of cytoplasm

39
Q

in what conditions are lymphocytes increased in?

A

infection
malignancy
hyposplenism

40
Q

in what condition is atypical lymphocytes seen and what do these look like?

A

glandular fever

increase in cytoplasm and wrapping around red cells