Haematopoetic Stem Cells Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two hallmarks of the haematopoietic system

A
  • Blood has very high turnover and requires the production of billions of blood cells and immune cells daily
  • In the adult, all blood lineages are derived from SCs residing in the bone marrow which must respond rapidly to fluctuations in demand.
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2
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of HSCs?

A
  • Self renew to increase HSC numbers during fetal development, and maintain HSCs thoughout life → HSCs have some of the greatest capacity for self-renewal. Renew throughout the lifespan
  • Produce haematopietic progenitors with extensive proliferation (in the fetal state, in the adult are more quiescent) and differentiation capacity that ultimately gives rise to all the different blood lineages
  • Multipotent – regenerate multi-lineage hematopoeisis
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3
Q

Describe the assay to detect for the presence of myeloid progenitors

A

Colony Forming Cell (CFC) Assays for Myeloid Progenitors
Quantitive and qualitative assay:
• Perfomed in semi-solid media in the presence of cytokines required for proliferation and maturation of bloo cells
• Used to quantify progenitors through their ability to form colonies
• Allow the retrospective identification of biological potential – ie, multipotent vs restricted progenitors of myeloid lineage
• Cannot distinguish lymphoid progenitors present
• Cant distinguish stem cells from early progenitors, but can distinguish from late progenitors
• Cells cannot be recovered after the assay

  1. Colonies from a single cell formed after 1-2 weeks in GFs
  2. Cells slowy ‘drift’ from the centre of the colony
    − CFU-GEMM → if you get granulocytes, erythroid, monocyte and megakaryocyte cells, it tells you the original cell was a multipotent progenitor −Often called CFU mixed, as doesn’t always have megakaryocytes
    − CFU-GM → if you get only granulocytes and macrophages, it tells you the original cell was only bipotent
    − BFU-E → only have erythroid cells, tells you the original cell was unipotent
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4
Q

Describe an in vitro assay for determining the presence of lymphoid progenitors

A
  1. Lymphoid cells require feeder cells to develop (use a stromal cell line)
    − OP9 for B cells
    − OP9-DL1 for T cells
  2. Add exogenous cytokines such as IL-7 and Flt3 ligand. Culture for 1-2 weeks
  3. Then perform assays:
    − Thymic organ reconstitution assay to test for T cells
    − In vivo transplants (preferred, as have all the required cytokines)
    − In vitro asssays
    − Further expansion
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5
Q

Describe the CFU-S assay

A

Spleen Colony Forming Unit Assay (CFU-S)
• CFU-S cells are cells that, once injected into an irradiated recipient, home to the spleen and form macroscopic colonies that provide very short term (1-3 weeks) repopulation of the mouse
• These progenitors are actually more immature than CFCs but more mature than HSCs

Disadvantage:
• Requires mice

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6
Q

Describe the in vitro assays for HSC detection

A

Long-Term Culture Initiating Cells
1. Put test population into a dish with irradiated stromal feeder layer
2. Feeders produce cytokines needed for maintenance of HSCs as HSCs
3. Maintain them for a few weeks in culture
4. After a couple of weeks, even with the cytokines present, they will slowly begin to lineage commit
5. After 5 weeks, perform the CFC assay and analyse colonies.
• If all myeloid cells present, high chance that HSCs were initially present as other progenitors would have differentiated to the point that they would no longer be multipotent for the CFC assay

Cobblestone Area Forming Cells

  1. Again, put test population in dish with stromal feeder layer
  2. For unknown reasons, primitive cells migrate through the stromal layer and proliferative at time points defined by their primitiveness
  3. At sequential time points after initiation of the assay, individual wells are screened for the presence of absence of ‘cobblestone areas’
  4. Colonies that appear more later in time are derived form more primitive cell subsets

Advantages:
• Reflect a more primitive population than the CFC assay
• Correlate well with SC frequencies reported by the CFU-S

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7
Q

Describe the long-term reconstitution assay

A

• Reconstitutes all blood cell lineages when transplanted into an irradiated recipient
− Donor HPCs and mature cells present in the initial cell inoculum may be detectable in recipients up to 4 weeks post ransplant
− MPPs or short-term repopulating cells may produce transient haemopoesis for up to 4 months post transplant
− Long-term, multi-lineage donor-derived haematopoesisi should be detectable for > 4 months.

− However, originally people just used to see if the moust died at 4 months – if it did, there were no SCs in the inoculum
− This is letting the animals die uncessarily.

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8
Q

Describe the competetive repopulating assay and its limitations

A
  • Measures the functional potential of the unknown source of HSCs against a set known number of HSCs
  • Provides information about the capacity of the source of HSCs to repopulate compared with the competing bone marrow
  • Cant distinguish between the number of HSCs and their quality

The quantitative limiting dilution assay is a variant, often called competitive repopulating unit assay:
• Based on the ability of HSCs to produce both myeloid and lymphoid progeny when transplanted into a conditioned recipient
• Series of dilutions of test cells are competed against a set number of regulator bone marrow cells
− Minimal number of HSCs allows for the optimal detection of HSCs at the single level, but doesn’t allow for the quality of the HSCs to be compared against a known standard
− If you use a standard, sufficient number of HSCs, the test cells are therefore measured relative to their ability tp effectively compete against the standard. If the inoculum has fewer or more HSCs than the standard, this will be reflected in the results of the assay.
• Number of mice negative for reconstitution measured
• Frequency of HSCs estimated using Poisson statistics → relies on the frequency of mice considered to have negative engraftment
• Success of this assay therefore relies on survival of the mice

But how do you detect the progeny of the stem cell – need to distinguish test cells from the standards
• different CD45 isoforms
• Can use GFP, or male/female cells (put male cells in female mouse, look for Y chromosome)

Important Factors to Consider in Limiting Dilution Assays:
Competing cells:
• Source of competing cells is a variability that can lead to different results between labs

Test cells, Unknown HSC Potential
• eg) LKS+ CD34+ cells are enriched with short term repopulating HSCs, but devoid of long term
• Best source of donor cells is whole bone marrow cells

Donor cell percentage used to determine number of negative mice
• Poisson statistics relies on frequency of mice considered to have negative engraftment
• Orignal experiment could reliably detect 5% donor cells – so

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9
Q

Describe the SRC assay

A
  • Used for testing human HSCs retrospectively
  • Same concept as CRU, but can inject human cells into a SCID mouse without rejection
  • Identify human cell progeny based on human-specific markers
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10
Q

Describe the serial transplantation assay

A

• Most stringent
• LT-HSCs can self-renew for life (maybe longer, can be serially transplanted from mouse to mosue up to 7 times) but they do have a finite number of divisions in mice depending on strain. They are quiescent.
• ST-HSCs can be distinguished from LT-HSCs by CD34 expression, and they divide more frequently and thus have more limited self-renewal capacity
• MPPs are virtually indistinguishable from ST-HSCs except they are highly proliferative and give rise to lineage positive cells
➢ LT-HSCs will repopulate for more than 4 months, the rest wont

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11
Q

How can HSCs be isolated by flow?

A
  • Test population labeled with fluorescent antibodies that mark specific cell populations
  • Cells are run through the machine along with sheath fluid that passes the cells single file past a laser beam and fluorescent detector.
  • Cells sorted based on their immunophenotype uing a FACS machine → flow with the addition of a charge to cells, allows the cells to be sorted into separate populations using charged plates.
  • Lineage markers can all be in the same colour, as you are selecting against that
  • Stem cell markers selected for using a series of gates.
  • HSC → cKit + Sca-1 + Lin-
  • CMP → cKit+ Sca-1 - CD34+ FcyR –
  • GMP → cKit + Sca-1 - CD34+ FcyR hi
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12
Q

What is the frequency of LT repopulating cells generated from cell samples?

A

Unseparated bone marrow - 1 per 20,000

Sca-1 + cKit+ Lin- = 1 per 15

Thy-1 lo Sca-1 + cKit+ = 1 per5

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13
Q

Describe assays for cell cycle status

A

Stem cells have low Rhodamine 123 retention:
• Rh12 is a binding dye held in mitochondria
• More active cells have higher rention

Stem cells are in G0/G1:
• Hoechst 33342 DNA binding dye that can be used to distinguish between G0/G1 from cells in cycle
• Retained at low density in HSCs

→ SCs may therefore protect themselves through pumps and cell cycle inhibitors

Detection of Side Population Cells in the Bone Marrow
• SP cells exclude Hoechst 33342
• This is because they express high levels of the ABC transporter protein ABCG2
• Possible protection mechanism from toxins

P21 and quiescence:
• p21 encodes a cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor that prevents cell-cycle progression
• p21 expression is high in stem cells
• in p21 knockout animals, ability of cells to self-renew was impaired
• So if HSCs are cycling more frequently, they are losing self-renewal capcity → quiescence is an essential characteristic of HSCs

• HSCs get more proliferative as they differentiate

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14
Q

Describe the bone marrow microenvironment

A

• Contains haematopoetic and non-haematopoetic cells (stromal cells)
• Stromal cells = MSCs, fibroblasts, osteoblasts, fat cells, endothelial cells
• Trabecular region contains more LT-HSCs (sinusoidal and endosteal nice)
− Sinusoid – specialsied blood vessels allowing cells in and out of circulation
− Endosteum – interface between the bone and marrow
− Medullary cavity contains more ST-HSCs

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15
Q

What experiments suggested the presence of intrinsic and extrinsic factors?

A

Russel and Bernstein, 1960’s
• Mutant mouse (W) prone to anaemia and sensitive to radiation
• Had defects in HSC self renewal but could be cured by bone marrow transplant
− Normal bone marrow transplanted into W mouse → phenotype normal
− Bone marrow transplanted from W mouse into normal mouse → aneamia
• Demonstrates that W is a HSC instrinsic factor (expressed by HSCs)

Till and McCulloch, 1960’s
• Mutant mouse (S) had same phenotype but!
− Normal bone marrow transplanted into S mouse → anaemia
− Bone marrow transplanted from S mouse into normal mosue → normal
• Demonstrates that S is a HSC extrinsic factor (expressed by niche cells)

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16
Q

List HSC intrinsic factors

A
  • SCF-R → is the W gene. Receptor for SCF. Promotes self-renewal
  • MPL → receptor for thrombopoeitin
  • Tie1/Tie2 → RTKs that promote HSC quiescence – prevents proliferation by preventing cell division
  • CXCR4 → GPCR that keeps HSC in the niche
17
Q

List HSC extrinsic factors

A
  • SCF → The S gene. Loss of function results in fewer HSCs
  • Thrombopoeitin → Loss of function results in profound reduction in quiescent HSCs. Contributes to retention in the niche
  • Angiopoetin → Loss of function results in defects in post-natal HSCs
  • CXLC1 → ligand for CXCR4. Produced by niche reticular cells
  • TGF-b → one of the most potent inhibitors of HSC growth in vitro. Loss of TGF-b releases progenitors from quiescence – but it isn’t the necessary factor for inducing quiescence.
  • Osteopointin → Secreted by endosteal bone lining cells, negatively regulate HSC numbers.
18
Q

How do perivascular sites contribute to the HSC niche?

A

• Likely to maintain fetal HSCs in the placenta, liver and spleen.
• During adulthood, presence of HSCs around sinudoids in haematopoetic tissue and secretion of extrinsic factors by reticular cells and mesenchymal progenitors raises the possibility of perivascular niche
• If this niche exists, a wide variety of cells could contribute eg, megakaryocytes, endoethelial cells..
− Reticular cells secrete CXCL12
− Mesenchymal progenitors secrete angiopoetin, CXCL12
• Does the perivascular environment actually contribute to HSC maintenance, or are HSCs found around sinusoids in the processes of migrating elsewhere?

19
Q

How do the endosteal cells contribute to the niche?

A
  1. Direct cell-cell contact → Notch/jagged, Cadherins, ICAM, SCF-SCF-R
    − Endosterum could itself be a niche with HSCs that reside in direct contact with osteoblasts.
    − Favoured by the idea that HSCs are regulated by N-cadherin and Notch signals from osteoblasts
    − However, although osteoblasts are capable of supporting the maintenance of primitive HSCs in culture, ablating osteoblasts from adults did not observe an acute loss of HSCs.
  2. Release of soluble factors → CXCL12, Angiopoetin, thrombopoetin
    − Was suggested that osteoblasts are THE most important in secreting the soluble factors, however:
    − Megakaryoctyes secrete angiopoetin
    − Reticular cells secrete CXCL12
    − Thrombopoetin enters via circulation from the liver
    − Perivascular cells can reside near the endosteum, therefore there is not necessarily any dichotomy between the endosteal and sinusoidal niche → HSCs residing near the endosteal surface may be in niches that are created through the combined influence of endosteal, vascular and perivascular cells.
    − Perivascular cells could be the critical sources of CXCL12 for HSCs nearing the endosteal surfaces.
  3. Regulate function of intermediate cell → MSCs, CAR cells
    − Osteoblasts are known to regulate the recruitment of vasculature to the bone marrow
20
Q

Describe the effect of ageing on HSCs and their niche

A
  • Increased HSCs in HM of aged mice and humans
  • Have decreased regenerateive potential in CRU/SRC assays
  • Have skewed differentiation potential – lymphoiyd
21
Q

Describe how HSCs can be used in autologous transplants

A

• HSCs taken from the patient, and then given back to the same patient
• No chance of rejection
• Used in patients with myeloma:
− Bone marrow taken from patient in remission
− High doses of radiation given to kill any remaining cnacer cells
− BM sample returned to repopulate haematopoietic system
− Problem → the reinfused bone marrow may still contain cancer cells

22
Q

Describe how HSCs can be used in allogenic transplants

A

• HSCs taken from donor and given to patient
• Used in patients with CML:
− Samples must be closely HLA matched
− Any HLA mismatch results in rejection and GVH (opposite of rejection)
− Hard to find HLA match – only 25% chance of match between siblings
− Limited availability of donors
− Benefit – no chance of retransplanting cancer cells

23
Q

What is the transplantation time course for HSC transplants?

A
  • Initiall have high blood cell counts
  • Then have chemo to kill haematopoetic system
  • Cell counts begin to drop off rapidly – almost to zero (but don’t let it reach zero or else you will die) – right before this happens, you give HSC transplant
  • Recovery takes place over the next 10-20 days
  • Ideally, 100% of donor cells would be full chimerism, but in practice, not every one of the original cells dies and they could come back and give cancer again
24
Q

Describe GvHD and GvL

A

Graft vs Host Disease
• Descendants of donor HSCs give new blood cells, but mature cells from the donor can cause GvH.
• Engrafting donor cells see the host as foreign and attack
• Acute GvH occurs within 3 months and is likely to be due to T cells in the donor transplant material
• Chronic GvH occurs after 3 months and is likely to be due to T cells differentiating from the SCs.
• More severe with worse HLA match
• Treated with immunosuppressants

Graft vs Leukemia
• Donor cells could attack host leukemic cells

25
Q

Give some examples of HSCs and gene therapy

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency:
• ADA (-) SCID (adenosine deaminase)
• XSCID (IL-2 R-gamma)
• JAK3 SCID

Chronic granulomatous disease:
• Caused by lack of 1 of 5 subunits of NADPH in neutrophils, macrophages and eosinophils

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency:
• CD18 deficiency (integrin involved in leukocyte migration)

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome:
• Recurrent infections, microthrombocytopenia, autoimmunity and susceptibility to malignancies
• X-linked, causd by mutations in the WAS gene → key regulator of actin polymerization in heamatopoeitic cells
• Trial using a g-retroviral vector, 9 out of 10 patients showed sustained engraftment and correction of the WAS protein

• Problem! Viral integration can lead to mutations, and then leukemia!

Haematopoetic stem cell gene therapy with a lentiviral vector in X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy
• Severe brain demyelinating disease caused by deficiency in ALD protein, an ABC transporter
• ALD progression halted by allogeneic HSC transplant
• Long term benefits mediated by replacement of brain resident macrophages (macroglial cells)
• Trial for 2 patients with no matched donors

Protocol:
• Harvest CD34+ cells from patient
• Insert ALD gene using lentiviral vector
• Infuse back into patient after myeloablative treatment

Follow up up to 24-30 months
• Polyclonal reconstitution (more than one HSC targeted) → granulocytes, monocytes, T and B cells now expressing ALD
• 14 to 15 months after treatment, cerebral demyelination stopped

26
Q

Describe bone marrow as a source of HSCs

A

Bone marrow:
• >90 separate puncture sites in the hips
• ~2-4 hour operation
• 1 day hospitalization, post-operative pain

27
Q

Describe mobilised peripheral blood as a source of HSCs

A

• Donor given growth factors for ~ 1 week
• G-CSF is safe and specific
− Easily administered IV
− Stem cells enter circulation through sinusoids
− High proportion of the cells in G0/G1
− Cells express low levels of adhesion molecules such as VLA-4
− G-CSF receptors not required on HSC, other cells respond and mediate the release
• Apheresis selectively isolates HSCs
• 2-6 hour process, repeated 2-5 consecutive days
• HSCs from blood have decreased time to engraftment, easier to collect, lower problems with infection, improved survival

• 95% autologous and 25% allogeneic transplants done using this technique

Important indicators of success:
•	Time to engraftment → success correlated with number of CD34+ cells infused
•	Recovery of granulocytes and platelets
−	GCs >0.5 x109/L
−	PLs >20 x109/L
•	Disease free survival = 2-3 years
28
Q

Describe cord blood as a source of HSCs

A
  • Blood harvested from discarded cored and frozen in regulated banks
  • No donor discomfort
Advantages:
Works well across HLA matches
Few problems with viruses
Decreased occurrence of GvHD
Readily available
Banks set up
Disadvantages:
Works well across HLA matches
Few problems with viruses
Decreased occurrence of GvHD
Readily available
Banks set up
29
Q

Describe dual cord transplants as a source of HSCs

A

• 2 donors increases chance of success
• Although 2 donor HSCs injected, only one will engraft → blood is confined to that of one donr
• Maximises yield
• Improves ex-vivo expansion
− Culture in serum free media and cytokine cocktails (best combination SCF, Thrombopoeitin and Flt-3 ligand)
− Gives increased numbers of CD34+ cells
− Increased reconstitution in SCID mosue assays → but not improved engraftment time in patients!

Why don’t they engraft well?
• May have defects in homing ability
− Some SCID assays show good engraftment at 4 months but not at 3 weeks, suggests they aren’t efficiently migrating to the bone marrow
− Ex vivo expanded cord blood cells have alterations in expressions of VLA-4
• Cell cycling – cycling cells may have reduced engraftment
• Apoptosis – reports of increased FasL and caspase activation.