Haematology P2 Flashcards

1
Q

Transfusion thresholds and targets after transfusion red blood cells:

A
transfusion threshold:
-without ACS: 70g/L
-with ACS: 80g/L
target after transfusion:
-without ACS: 70-90g/L
-with ACS: 80-100g/L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How should RBC be stored before infusion and how quickly transfused?

A
  • stored at 4 degrees

- non urgent scenario, RBC transfused over 90-120 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is cryoglobulinaemia:

A
  • immunoglobulins which undergo reversible precipitation at 4 degrees
  • dissolve at 37 degrees
  • 1/3 idiopathic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Type I cryoglobulinaemia:

A
  • monoclonal - IgG or IgM

- associations: multiple myeloma, Waldenstrom macroglobulinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type II cryoglobulinaemia:

A
  • mixed monoclonal and polyclonal, usually with rheumatoid factor
  • associations: hep C, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s, lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type III cryoglobulinaemia:

A
  • polyclonal: usually rheumatoid factor

- associations: rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Symptoms cryoglobulinaemia:

A
  • Raynaud’s only type I
  • cutaneous: vascular purpura, distal ulceration, ulceration
  • arthralgia
  • renal involvement (diffuse glomerulonephritis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cryoglobulinaemia tests:

A
  • low complement (esp C4)

- high ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment of cryoglobulinaemia:

A
  • immunosuppression

- plasmapheresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is cryoprecipitate?

A
  • blood product made from plasma (factor VIII and fibrinogen)
  • usually transfuse as 6 unit pool
  • indications: massive haemorrhage and uncontrolled bleeding due to haemophilia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DIC

A
  • dysregulated coagulation and fibrinolysis
  • widespread clotting and bleeding
  • mediated by release of TF which triggers extrinsic pathway and subsequently intrinsic pathway
  • caused by sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications (HELLP), malignancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

haemolysis, elevated liver function tests, low platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Typical picture of DIC:

A
  • low platelets
  • prolonged APTT, prothrombin and bleeding time
  • fibrin degradation products raised
  • shistocytes due to microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Factor V Leiden

A
  • activated protein C resistance
  • most common inherited thrombophilia
  • mis-sense mutation activated by factor V is inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal
  • hetero: 4-5 fold risk VTE
  • homo: 10 fold risk VTE
  • screening not recommended
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fanconi anaemia:

A
  • autosomal recessive
  • haematological: aplastic anaemia, increased risk acute myeloid leukaemia
  • neurological
  • skeletal abnormalities: short, thumb/radius abnormalities
  • cafe au lait spots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

G6PD deficiency

A
  • commonest RBC enzyme defect
  • Mediterranean, Africa
  • x-linked recessive
  • reduces NADPH and glutathione which increases red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress
  • diagnose by checking levels 3 months after acute episode of haemolysis when RBCs with most severe reduced G6PD will have been haemolysed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Features of G6PD deficiency:

A
  • neonatal jaundice
  • intravascular haemolysis
  • gallstone
  • splenomegaly
  • Heinz bodies on blood film, bit and blister cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Drug causes of haemolysis:

A
  • antimalarials: primaquine
  • ciprofloxacin
  • sulph- group drugs: sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, sulfonylureas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is GVHD?

A
  • multi-system complication of allogenic bone marrow transplant or solid organ transplant or transfusion in immunocompromised
  • donor T cells mount immune response to host cells
  • not same as transplant rejection
  • poor prognosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Criteria for diagnosis of GVHD:

A
  • transplanted tissue has immunologically functioning cells
  • recipient and donor immunologically different
  • recipient immunocompromised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acute GVHD:

A
  • within 100 days of transplant
  • usually affects skin, liver and GI tract
  • multi-organ involvement - worse prognosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chronic GVHD:

A
  • following acute disease or de novo
  • after 100 days post tranplante
  • more varied picture: lung, eye, skin, GI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Signs/symptoms of acute GVHD:

A
  • painful maculopapular rash (often neck, palms and soles) which can progress to erythoderma or toxic epidermal necrolysis
  • jaundice
  • watery and blood diarrhoea
  • persistent n&v
  • culture negative fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Signs/symptoms of chronic GVHD:

A
  • skin: poikiloderma, scleroderma, vitiligo, lichen planus
  • eye: keratoconjunctivitis sicca, corneal ulcers, scleritis
  • GI: dysphagia, odynophagia, ulceration, ileus
  • lung
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Management of GVHD:
- immunosuppression (IV steroids) - supportive - anti-TNF, mTOR inhibitors and extracorpeal photopheresis
26
Granulocyte colony stimulant factors:
- used to increase neutrophil count in neutropenic patients - secondary to chemotherapy - e.g. filgrastim, perfilgrastim
27
Causes of hereditary haemolytic anaemia:
- membrane: hereditary spherocytosis/elliptocytosis - metabolism: G6PD deficiency - haemoglobinopathies: sickle cell, thalassaemia
28
Causes of acquired haemolytic anaemia:
``` immune causes: -automminue: warm/cold Ab -alloimune: transfusion, haemolytic disease newborn -drugs: methyldopa, penicillin non-immune: -microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia: TTP/HUS, DIC, malignancy, pre-eclampsia -prosthetic valves -paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria -malaria -dapsone ```
29
Haemophilia
- x-linked recessive disorder of coagulation - A - factor VIII def - B - factor IX def - causes haemoarthroses, haematomas, prolonged bleeding - prolonged APTT, normal bleeding time, thrombin time and PT
30
What is hereditary angioedema?
- autosomal dominant - low plasma C1 inhibitor protein - C1INH is serine protease inhibitor - uncontrolled release of bradykinin resulting in oedema of tissue
31
Investigations in hereditary angioedema:
- C1-INH low during attack | - low C2 and C4 (C4 most reliable and screening tool)
32
Symptoms of hereditary angioedema:
- attacks may be proceeded by painful macular rash - painless, non-pruritic swelling of subcutaneous/submucosal tissue - upper airways, skin or abdominal organs (occasionally abdominal pain due to visceral oedema) - urticaria not usually feature
33
Management of hereditary angioedema:
- acute: HAE does not respond to adrenaline, antihistamines or glucocorticoids - IV C1 inhibitor concentrate, FFP if not available - prophylaxis: anabolic steroid Danazol
34
What is hereditary spherocytosis?
- most common hereditary haemolytic anaemia in northern european - autosomal dominant defect of RBC cytoskeleton - sphere shaped - survival reduced as destroyed by spleen
35
Presentation of hereditary spherocytosis:
- failure to thrive - jaundice, gallstones - splenomegaly - aplastic crisis precipitated by parvovirus infection - degree of haemolysis variable - MCHC elevated
36
Diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis:
- EMA binding test and cryohaemolysis test | - atypical presentations electrophoresis analysis of erythrocyte membranes
37
Management of acute haemolytic crisis:
- generally supportive | - transfusion if necessary
38
Long term treatment of hereditary spherocytosis:
- folate replacement | - splenectomy
39
Causes and features of hyposplenism:
- splenectomy - sickle cell - coeliac disease, dermatitis herpetiformis - Graves' - SLE - amyloid features: Howel-Jolly bodies, siderocytes
40
What is ITP?
- immune mediated reduction in platelet count - AB against GPIIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex - children have acute thrombocytopenia that may follow infection or vaccination - adults more chronic condition - more common in older females
41
Presentation of ITP:
- incidentally following routine bloods - petechiae, purpura - bleeding - catastrophic bleeding uncommon
42
Management of ITP:
- first line treatment for ITP is oral prednisone | - pooled normal human Ig (IVIG) may be used
43
What is Evan's syndrome?
ITP associated with AIHA
44
Symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia:
- fatigue, SOB on exertion - palpitations - pallor - nail changes (koilonychia) - hair loss - atrophic glossitis - post-cricoid webs - angular stomatitis
45
Investigations for iron deficiency anaemia:
- FBC: hypochromic microcytic anaemia - low serum ferritin - TIBC high - transferrin sats low - blodo film: anisopoikilocytosis (RBC different sizes and shapes), target cells, pencil poikilocytes
46
Management of iron deficiency anaemia:
- oral ferrous sulphate: take for 3 months after correction to replenish stores - iron rich diet
47
ADR of iron supplementation:
- nausea - abdo pain - constipation - diarrhoea
48
Iron def anaemia vs anaemia of chronic disease:
``` iron def anaemia: -serum iron <8 -high TIBC -low transferrin saturation -low ferritin anaemia of chronic disease: -serum iron <15 -low TIBC -low transferrin saturation -high ferritin ```
49
What does a decrease in haptoglobin suggest?
intravascular haemolysis
50
What does an increase in MCHC suggest?
- hereditary spherocytosis | - autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
51
What does a decrease in MCHC suggest?
mircrocytic anaemia e.g. iron deficiency
52
What does lead poisoning cause and what are the features?
``` -defective ferrochelastase and ALA dehydrates function -absominal pain -peripheral neuropathy -fatigue -constipation -blue lines on gum margin ```
53
Investigations with lead poisoning:
- blood lead >10mcg/dL - microcytic anaemia - basophilic stippling and clover leaf morphology - sometimes raised serum and uric delta aminolaevulinic acid (distinguish from AIP) - increased urinary coprophorphyrin - in children, lead can accumulate in metaphysis of bones
54
Management of lead poisoning:
- dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) - D-penicillamine - EDTA - dimercaprol
55
Macrocytic anaemia causes:
``` megaloblastic causes: -vit B12 def -folate def normoblastic causes: -alcohol -liver disease -hypothyroidism -pregnancy -reticulocytosis -myelodysplasia -drugs: cytotoxics ```
56
What is MGUS?
-monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (benign paraproteinaemia and monoclonal gammopathy) -eventually develop myeloma
57
Features of MGUS:
- usually asymptomatic - no bone pain or increased risk of infections - 10-30% demyelinating neuropathy
58
Differentiating features of MGUS from myeloma:
- normal immune function - normal beta 2 microglobulin levels - lower level of paraproteinaemia than myeloma - stable level of paraproteinaemia - no clinical features of myeloma e.g. lytic lesions or renal disease
59
Causes of microcytic anaemia:
- iron def anaemia - thalassaemia - congenital sideroblastic anaemia - anaemia of chronic disease - lead poisoning
60
What is myelodysplastic syndrome and what are the features:
- acquired neoplastic disorder of haematopoietic stem cells - pre-leukaemia may progress to AML - more common with age - presents with bone marrow failure (anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia)
61
Myelofibrosis:
- myeloproliferative disorder - hyperplasia of abnormal megakaryocytes - resultant disease of platelet derived growth factor though to stimulate fibroblasts - haematopoiesis in liver and spleen
62
Features of myelofibrosis:
- elderly with anaemia symptoms - massive splenomegaly - hypermetabolic symptoms: weight loss, night sweats
63
Lab findings of myelofibrosis:
- anaemia - high WBC and platelet count early in disease - tear drop poikilocytes on blood film - unobtainable bone marrow biopsy (dry tap) so trephine biopsy needed - high urate and LDH (reflect increased cell turnover)
64
What do bite and blister cells indicate:
G6PD deficiency