Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What happens in antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

APL antibodies against plasma proteins bound to phospholipids

Second event needed for syndrome to develop

Complement activation by APL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Symptoms and signs of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Recurrent miscarriages
Arterial and venous thrombosis

Livedo reticularis - mottled reticulated vascular pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Investigations for antiphospholipid syndrome?

A
  • Anticardiolipin antibodies - ELISA
  • Lupus anticoagulant assay

• Bloods - low platelets, high APTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does aplastic anaemia involve?

A

Diminished haematopoietic precursors in bone marrow

Deficiency of all blood cell elements (pancytopaenia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Onset of aplastic anaemia?

A

Rapid-onset (days) or slow-onset (months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Investigations for aplastic anaemia?

A
  • Bloods - pancytopaenia, normal MCV, ABSENT RETICULOCYTES
  • Bone Marrow Trephine biopsy - HYPOCELLULAR (not abnormal)

• Check chromosomal breakage in lymphocytes for Fanconi’s anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 2 forms of disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

Acute overt form - bleeding/endothelial damage => explosive thrombin generation - depletion of platelets + clotting factors

Chronic non-overt form - same, but time for compensatory mechanisms => hypercoagulable states and thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In whom does DIC usually occur?

A
  • Gram-negative sepsis
  • Obstetric - missed micarriage, pre-eclampsia etc.
  • Malignancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Signs of acute and chronic DIC?

A

Acute
• Petechiae, purpura
• Epistaxis
• Oliguria - renal failure

Chronic
• Deep vein and arterial thrombosis or embolism
• Superficial venous thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Investigations for DIC?

A
  • Bloods - low platelets, low Hb, high APTT, LOW FIBRINOGEN, high D-dimer
  • Peripheral blood film - schistocyctes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is haemolytic anaemia?

A

Shortened erythrocyte life span - premature breakdown (< 120 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common inherited haemolytic anaemia in northern europe?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Presentation of haemolytic anaemia (4)

A
  • Jaundice
  • Anaemia
  • Haematuria
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Investigations for haemolytic anaemia?

• Including what Direct Coomb’s test, osmotic fragility, Ham’s test is?

A
  • FBC - high reticulocytes, high MCV, low haptoglobin
  • Blood film - many abnormal cells
  • Urine - high urobilinogen, haemosiderin
  • Direct Coombs’ test - autoimmune
  • Osmotic fragility/spectrin mutation - membrane abnormalities
  • Ham’s test - lysis in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which 2 disorders have similar characterisations of haemolysis and thrombocytopaenia?

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome and Thrombotic Thrombocytopaenic purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do HUS and TTP have in common and difference?

A

In common: triad
• Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA)
• Acute renal failure
• Thrombocytopaenia

TTP also has:
• Fever
• Fluctuating CNS signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 2 forms of HUS?

A

D- = no prodromal illness

D+ = diarrhoea-associated form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Outline cause of HUS?

A
  • Endothelial injury
  • Small vessel thrombosis
  • Fibrinoid necrosis in glomerular-afferent arteriole (vulnerable)
  • Renal ischaemia and acute renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Infective cause of HUS?

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who does D+ HUS and TTP mainly affect?

A

D+ HUS - young children

TTP - adult females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Outline cause of TTP?

A
  • Multimers of vWF clumping

* Deficiency of metalloprotease (ADAMST13) which normally cleaves this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is immune thrombocytic purpura (ITP)?

A

Syndrome characterised by immune destruction of platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

2 types of ITP and when are they seen?

A
  • Acute - after viral infections in children

* Chronic - female adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why should you do a blood film in ITP?

A

Excluse pseudothrombocytopaenia - platelets clumping together to give falsely low counts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Cause of haemophilia and the 3 types?
Inherited deficiency of clotting factor A - most common, factor 8 B - factor 9 C - rare, factor 11 A+B X-linked recessive so mainly seen in males, C common in Ashkenazi Jews
26
Features of haemophilia?
Generally deep bleeds • Haemarthroses • Muscle haematomas • Female carriers may be asymptomatic (X-linked recessive), but may bleed lots after trauma
27
Investigations for haemophilia?
* High APTT | * Coagulation factor assays
28
Difference between ALL, AML, CLL, CML
ALL - proliferation of lymphoblasts (early lymphocytes) AML - proliferation of myeloblasts (early innate cells) CLL - proliferation of well-differentiated lymphocytes (almost always B cells) CML - proliferation of granulocutes at different stages of differentiation (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils) in bone marrow and blood (Philadelphia chromosome)
29
Which cancer does CLL overlap with?
Non-hodgkin's lymphoma
30
Who gets ALL, AML, CLL, CML?
ALL - young children (second peak in elderly) AML - most common acute leukaemia in adults, increases with age CLL - > 50 yrs, males CML - increases with age, males
31
Presentation of ALL, AML, CLL, CML?
ALL - anaemia, neutropaenia, thrombocytopaenia, bone pain, hepatosplenomegaly, testicular swelling AML - anaemia, neutropaenia, thrombocytopaenia, bone pain, hepatosplenomegaly, gum hypertrophy CLL - bleeding, infections, lymphadenopathy (autoimmune anaemia is a complication) CML - splenomegaly, anaemia, sweating
32
Investigations for ALL, AML, CLL, CML?
ALL • FBC - normochromic normocytic anaemia, high WCC • Blood film - abdundant lymphoblasts • Bone marrow aspirate - hypercellular AML • FBC - variable WCC • Blood film - abdudant myeloblasts, Auer rods • Bone marrow aspirate - hypercellular CLL • FBC - high lymphocytes, later autoimmune haemolysis • Blood film - smudge/smear cells • Bone marrow aspirate - lymphocytic replacement of normal marrow CML • FBC - high WCC, high myeloid cells • Blood film - numerous granulocytic cells at different stages of differentiation • Bone marrow aspirate - hypercellular
33
What is lymphoma and what is the difference between Hodgkin's and Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Lymphoma - proliferation of lymphocytes in lymph nodes Hodgkin's - histopathological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells (binucleate lymphocytes - usually B) Non-Hodgkin's - diverse group, mostly diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
34
Cause and incidence of H and N-H lymphoma?
H - unknown cause (EBV genome?), peak in 20s and over 50, males N-H - immunodeficiency, introduction of foreign genes by oncogenic viruses e.g. EBV,
35
Presentation of H and N-H lymphoma?
``` H • Enlarged, non-tender, rubbery superficial lymph nodes • Painful after alcohol • Continuous spread • Node size fluctuates • Hepatosplenomegaly • Pel-Ebstein fever (cyclical) ``` N-H • Enlarged, non-tender, rubbery superficial lymph nodes • Non-continuous spread • Mass on jaw (Burkitt's) • Extranodal disease (1) Gastric (2) skin e.g. mycosis fungoides
36
Diagnostic, staging and prognostic investigations for lymphoma?
* Diagnostic - excisional node biopsy * Staging - CT chest, abdo, pelvis, Ann-Arbor system * Prognostic - ESR, LDH (cell turnover)
37
What is multiple myeloma?
Malignancy characterised by proliferation of plasma cells • Characterised by bone lesions • Production of monoclonal immunoglobulins (usually IgG or IgA) causing dysfunction in many organs
38
Who is usally affected by multiple myeloma?
* 70yrs | * Afro-Caribbean > White > Asians
39
Presentation of multiple myeloma?
``` CRABBI • Calcium- hypercalcaemia • Renal damage - dehydration • Anaemia • Bleeding - thrombocytopaenia • Bone pain (especially back) - infiltration and increased osteoclast activity, lytic lesions and increased risk of fragility fractures • Infection ```
40
Investigation for multiple myeloma?
* Bloods - normochromic normocytic anaemia and thrombocytopaenia, raised urea and creatinine, raised calcium * Blood film - rouleaux formation with bluish background (high protein) * BENCE-JONES PROTEIN in urine * Bone marrow aspiration and trephine biopsy - diagnostic
41
Most common form of anaemia worldwide?
Iron deficiency anaemia
42
Causes of microcytic, normocytic and macrocytic anaemia?
``` Microcytic • Iron deficiency • ACD • Thalassaemia • Sideroblastic anaemia (haem synthesis abnormality) • Lead poisoning ``` ``` Normocytic • Decreased production (ACD, aplastic) • Sickle cell • Haemolysis • Uncompensated increase in plasma volume e.g. pregnancy • Vitamin B2 and 6 deficiency ``` ``` Macrocytic Megaloblastic: • Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency (problem with DNA synthesis) • Drugs Non-megaloblastic: • Alcohol excess • Liver disease • Multiple myeloma • Hypothyroidism • Haemolysis - left shift ```
43
Investigations for microcytic and macrocytic (megaloblastic) anaemia?
``` Microcytic • Anisocytosis • Poikilocytosis • Lead - basophilic stippling • Hb electrophoresis for thalassaemia ``` Macrocytic megaloblastic • Pancytopaenia • Hypersegmented neutrophil nuclei
44
What is myelodysplasia?
Series of haematological conditions characterised by chronic cytopaenia: • anaemia • neutropaenia • thrombocytopaenia and abnormal cellular maturation
45
Cause of myelodysplasia? (3)
* Primary - intrinsic bone marrow problem * Chemotherapy or radiotherapy * Chromosomal abnormalities
46
Signs of myelodysplasia?
* Cytopaenia * Gum hypertrophy * Lymphadenopathy * NO splenomegaly (except CML)
47
What can myelodysplasia progress to?
AML
48
What is myelofibrosis?
* Progressive bone marrow fibrosis | * Extramedullary haematopoiesis and splenomegaly
49
What happens in myelofibrosis?
* Increased number of abnormal megakaryocytes * Stromal proliferation * Release cytokines that stimulate fibroblast proliferation and collagen deposition in bone marrow
50
What do 30% of patients with myelofibrosis have a history of?
Polycythaemia rubra vera or essential thrombocythaemia (overproduction of platelets by bone marrow)
51
What is seen on blood film, bone marrow aspirate and biopsy of myelofibrosis?
* Blood film - poikilocyte 'tear drop' red cells * Bone marrow aspirate - usually unsuccessful due to fibrosis * Biopsy - fibrotic hypercellular marrow, with dense reticulin fibres on silver staining
52
What is polycythaemia and what 2 groups can it be classified into?
Increase in [Hb] above normal for person's age and sex • Absolute (true) : rubra vera or secondary - increased red cell mass • Relative - normal red cell mass, low plasma volume
53
What causes polycythaemia rubra vera?
Clonal proliferation of myeloid cells - mutations in JAK2 tyrosine kinase involved
54
What causes secondary polycythaemia?
Appropriate increase in erythropoietin • Chronic hypoxia Inappropriate increase in erythropoietin • Renal • Hepatocellular carcinoma • Erythropoietin abuse by athletes
55
What can cause relative polycythaemia?
* Dehydration | * Gaisbock's syndrome - young male smokers with HTN
56
Symptoms and signs of polycythaemia?
* Pruritis after hot bath * Headaches * Gout * DVT, stroke, dizziness * Choreiform movements * Splenomegaly * Scratch marks from itching * Plethoric complextion (red, ruddy) * Conjunctival suffusion (redness)
57
Investigations for polycythaemia (including rubra vera vs secondary)?
Needed for diagnosis • FBC - high Hb, high Hct, low MCV Isotope dilution techniques • Confirmation of plasma volume and red cell mass (absolute vs relative) Rubra vera • Low serum EPO • JAK2 mutation • Biopsy - erythroid hyperplasia and raised megakaryocytes Secondary • High serum EPO
58
Sickle cell disease is a chronic condition with sickling of red blood cells caused by inheritance of...
haemoglobin S
59
What is the difference between sickle cell anaemia, trait and disease in terms of genes?
* Anaemia - homozygous HbS * Trait - carriers (heterozygous) HbS * Disease - heterozygous for HbS and HbC/beta-thalassaemia
60
How does the abnormal formation of haemoglobin S occur?
Autosomal recessive Point mutation in beta-globin gene - substitution of glutamic acid by valine in position 6 (deoxygenation of HbS causes sickling)
61
What 4 factors precipitate sickling?
* Infection * Dehydration * Hypoxia * Acidosis
62
Symptoms of sickle cell?
Symptoms secondary to vaso-occlusion • Splenic atrophy or infarction (autosplenectomy) - increased risk of infection with encapsulated organisms • Abdo pain • Dactylitis in children, painful ribs/spine/pelvis/long bones in adults • Proliferative retinopathy • Breathlessness • Painful erection (priapism)
63
Signs of sickle cell?
* Joint or muscle tenderness due to avascular necrosis * Short digits due to infarction in small bones * Cotton wool spots * Splenomegaly * Anaemia signs
64
Investigations for sickle cell?
* Bloods - low Hb, high reticulocytes (haemolytic crises), low reticulocytes (aplastic crises) * Blood film - sickle cells, target cells, Howell-Jolly bodies * Sickle solubility test - increased turbidity (doesn't distinguish between AS and SS) * DIAGNOSTIC - ELECTROPHORESIS (confirms HbSS)
65
What is an aplastic and sequestration crisis?
Aplastic crisis - sudden reduction in marrow production due to parvovirus B19 Sequestration crisis - pooling of blood in spleen (and liver, lungs, corpora cavernosa). Mainly affects children as spleen becomes atrophic in adults.
66
Crisis management of sickle cell?
* Analgesia (IV opiates) * Rehydrate * Oxygen * Antibiotics if infection * Blood transfusion
67
Long-term sickle cell management?
* Hydroxyurea - increases HbF, prevents painful episodes * Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years (folic acid, repeated red cell transfusions, advice, bone marrow transplant)
68
What happens in thalassaemia?
* Underproduction or no production of one globin chain | * Unmatched globins precipitate, damaging RBC membranes - haemolysis in bone marrow
69
Outline the 3 types of beta thalassaemia
* Trait/minor - heterozygous * Intermedia - mild homozygous, or heterozygous with another haemoglobinopathy e.g. HbC * Major - homozygous, little or no beta-chain synthesis
70
Presentation of 3 types of beta thalassaemia?
* Trait/minor - asymptomatic, may be mild anaemia, may worsen in pregnancy * Intermedia - moderate anaemia, may be splenomegaly * Major - presents within first year, mild jaundice, frontal bossing, 'hair on end' sign on skull x-ray due to increased marrow activity
71
Investigations for thalassaemia?
* FBC - microcytic anaemia * Blood film - hypochromic, target cells, nucleated red cells, high reticulocytes * Hb electrophoresis - absent or reduced HbA, high HbF * Bone marrow - hypercellular * Skull X-ray - hair on end in major
72
What is the main characterisation of von Willebrand disease?
Mucocutaenous bleeding (mouth, epistaxis, menorrhagia)
73
Outline the 3 types of vWD
Type 1 - not enough vWF (but it works well) Type 2 - abnormal vWF (but there is enough) Type 3 - no vWF
74
Investigations for vWD?
* Prolonged bleeding time but platelets are normal * Prolonged APTT * Reduced Factor VIII * Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin
75
Difference between warm and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
Warm • IgG • Extravascular haemolysis • Can be caused by drugs ``` Cold • IgM • Intravascular haemolysis • Mediated by complement • Can be caused by infections ```