Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Myelodysplasia is a form of bone marrow failure where a line of myeloid blasts are produced rapidly, do not mature and then usually die, causing a deficiency in that line of cells. Around a third of cases will eventually transform to become acute myeloid leukaemia, where the bone marrow becomes > 20% filled with these myeloid blast cells.

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2
Q

What differentiates between Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Presence of Reed-steinberg cells in Hodgkins

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3
Q

Physiology of B cell maturation:

A

Lymphoid cells develop initially within the bone marrow primary lymphoid organ) into naïve B cells which travel in the blood to secondary lymphoid organs; the lymph node. They
undergo positive and negative selection, ensuring that they will not exert autoimmunity onto the
host cells. Once they become activated through pathogenic antigen stimulation ->
differentiate into centroblasts and form a germinal centre -> undergo class switching to
produce the relevant antibody.
They then mature into centrocytes, either of plasma or memory cell
type.

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4
Q

What is the most common type of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

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5
Q

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma:

A

Most common Non-Hodgkin and mean age of diagnosis is 70

  • Palpable, non-tender mass in many lymph nodes: thrombocytopenia purpura
  • B symptoms: fever, night sweats and severe weight loss
  • Splenomegaly: abdominal discomfort

Mostly involve centeroblast formation in lymph nodes which are surrounded by small lymphocytes, histiocytes and eosinophils

CD20 innumophenotype marker in NHL

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6
Q

What are B symptoms and why are the significant?

A

Fever, night sweats, severe weight loss

Identify advanced, systemic disease rather than local

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7
Q

What Ix can be done for a lymphoma diagnosis?

A

tissue sampling, cytochemistry, bone marrow examination, cytology and
immunophenotyping, conventional cytogenetics, molecular studies and fluorescent in-situ
hybridisation.

PET scan is a very useful diagnostic procedure with the injection of 18-
fluorodeoxyglucose. This glucose analogue would accumulate in metabolically active areas, such as
the cancerous lymph nodes.

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8
Q

Describe the Ann Arbor staging:

A
  • Stage I - single lymph node involvement
  • Stage II is involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm
  • Stage III is involvement of lymph node regions bilaterally to the diaphragm
  • Stage IV is disseminated involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs.

A - no systemic symptoms
B - Systemic symptoms
E - extension to a single extra-lymphatic organ
S- splenic involvement
X - bulky disease (mass >10cm in diameter)

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9
Q

Treatment for DLBCL

A

Stage I-II - minoclonal antibodies (rituximab), cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin and prednisolone 3x following intense radiotherapy at involved sites

Stage III-IV - 6 rounds of chemotherapy

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10
Q

Follicular lymphoma:

A

2nd most common non-Hodgkin’s - Lymphoma of follicular centre B-cell which retains a follicular pattern.
Positive for B cell markers of CD10, CD20, CD19, CD22 BUT ALWAYS NEGATIVE FOR CD5.

Translocation between chromosome 14 and 18 -> overexpression of bcl-2-gene (gene responsible for regulating apoptosis)
Mixture of centerocytes and mutated centroblasts
Surrounded by non-malignant T cells

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11
Q

How can follicular lymphomas be classified based on WHO?

A

Grade I: <5 centroblasts per high-power field,
Grade II: 6-15 centroblasts per high-power field,
Grade III: >15 centroblasts per high-power field. This grade of disease is further sub-divided into 3A
indicating that centrocytes are still present, whereas class 3B is where the follicles consist almost
entirely of centroblasts. Grade 3B is also referred to as Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma.

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12
Q

What is R-CHOP?

A

R-CHOP is used to treat non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL).

R – rituximab
C – cyclophosphamide
H –doxorubicin (hydroxydaunomycin)
O – vincristine (oncovin)
P – prednisolone (a steroid)
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13
Q

What is Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

Highly aggressive non-Hodgkins
Chromosomal translocation of the MYC gene from chromosome 8 to 14 -> overexpression
MYC gene controls cell death and division

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14
Q

What is Hodgkin’s lymphoma:

A

High predisposition with EBV exposure (50%)
5% cases are familial

  • Painless mass in LN
  • itchy skin (eosinophilia)
  • fatigue
  • B symptoms
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Alcohol consumption eliciting LN pain
  • Purpura and petechiae due to thrombocytopenia
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15
Q

What would a macroscopic and microsponic exam in hodgkin’s lymphoma show?

A

Macro: Enlarged lymph node which have retained their shape because capsule has not yet been infiltrates
A fibrin ring granuloma may be seen

Micro: Reed Sternberg cells which are bi-nucleated
Classical hodgkin’s Immunophenotype is CD30+, CD15+ but negative for CD20 and CD45.

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16
Q

What does a Reed Sternberg cell look like?

A

Large (giant) cells
Bi-nucleated
Abundant pale cytoplasm

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17
Q

What are the types of classical Hodgkin’s lymphoma:

A
  • Nodular sclerosis: most common. scattered classical RSC with some sclerosis and fibrosis
  • mixed cellularity: associated with EBV. classical RSC’s with no clerosis
  • lymphocyte rich: many lymphocytes around few RSCs
  • lymphocyte depleted: few lymphocytes around many RSCs
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18
Q

How would advanced stage myeloma present?

A
C - calcium elevated
R - renal failure
A - anaemia (infiltration into bone marrow)
B - bone pain 
Infection
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19
Q

How is a myeloma diagnosed?

A

A myeloma diagnosis is given when one of the following criteria are present:

  • Renal dysfunction: Hypercalcaemia, bone damage and anaemia,
  • More than one bone lesion on a full-body scan (CT/MRI/PET),
  • Free light chain ratio >100,
  • > 60% plasma cells in the bone marrow (normally 5%).
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20
Q

Pathophys of multiple myelomas:

A

Translocation between chromosome 4 and oncogene on chromosome 14

  • > cytokine release and dysregulation of oncogene -> proliferation of plasma and antibodies
  • > antibodies aggregate and deposit in various organs causing kidney failure, polyneuropathy, bone problems and amyloidosis

Mutates plasma cells release paraprotein (non-functional antibody)
They produce more light chains which can be found in blood
or only produce light chains - Bence jones proteins

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21
Q

What are Bence - Jones proteins?

A

Mutated plasma cells which release paraproteins that only produce free light chain proteins.
5-10% of myelomas produce this

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22
Q

Treatment for myeloma:

A

Only for symptomatic myeloma:
High intensive chemo: thalidomide, dexamethasone
Bisphosphonates and analgesics
Stem cell transplant with melphalan

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23
Q

What is Acute myeloblastic leukemia?

A

Cells haven’t gone through complete differentiation so cant function normally.
Blast cells divide rapidly to replenish cell turnover therefore AML progresses rapidly
- pancytopenia
- >20% of blast cells being present in bone marrow
- Constitutes 80% of adult leukaemias with incidence increasing with age

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24
Q

Risk factors for AML?

A

Radiation
benzenes
Previous haematological malignancies and chemo
Bone marrow failure
Down’s syndrome
Preleukemic blood disorders: myelodysplastic and myeloproliferative disorders

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25
Q

Signs and symptoms of AML:

A

Pallor
Ecchysmoses or petechiae
Fatigue
Dizziness, palpitations, dyspnoea - anaemia
Infections or fever - neutropenia
Lymphadenopathy
Gum swelling and mucosal bleeding - infiltration of leukaemic cells in gum tissue

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26
Q

What would be seen for the following Ix in AML?

FBC
Blood smear
LDH
Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
Immunophenotyping
Cytoplasmic staining 
Cytogenetics
A

FBC: Anaemia, microcytosis, leucocytosis, neutropenia and
thrombocytopenia,
- Peripheral blood smear: Large granulated blast cells with auer rods,
- LDH: Elevated,
- Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy: > 20% blast infiltration,
- Immunophenotyping: CD13 or CD33 surface markers,
- Cytoplasmic staining: Myeloperoxidase positive,
- Cytogenetics or fluorescent in situ hybridisation: inv16, t (8:21)
and t (15:17) good prognostic factors. 3q-. 5q-, 7q- and t (6:9) poor prognosis.

27
Q

How is AML treated?

A

Induction phase of chemo to eliminate rapidly dividing cells
7 days of continuous IV cytarabine and Daunorubicin
Supportive therapy with allopurinol for acute tumour lysis syndrome

28
Q

What can be used to identify the type and level of M protein present?

What are the most common immunoglobulins in myelomas

A

Immunoelectrophoresis

60% - IgG kappa propteins
20% - IgA
20% light chain only producing

29
Q

How is prognosis of myelomas determined?

A

Stage I: Beta-microglobulin < 3.5mg/L and Albumin > 35g/L,
Stage II: Beta microglobulin 3.5-5.5mg/L and Albumin <35g/L,
Stage III: Beta microglobulin > 5.5mg/L.

30
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia:

Symptoms:

A

60% of leukaemias in children and 12% in adults
Down syndrome is significant risk factor in children >5
Translocation of C-MYC gene to an immunoglobulin heavy/light chain promoter.
C-MYC in a transcription factor that increases cell division
Lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
Pallor, fever, easy bruising, recurrant infections
Fatigue

31
Q

What would be the results for the following Ix in ALL?

FBC
Peripheral blood smear
LDH
Bone marrow aspiration
Lumbar puncture
Immunophenotyping
cytogenetics
A

FBC: Anaemia, leukopenia, leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia
Blood smear: lymphoblasts with no auer rods
LDH: raised
Bone marrow: Lymphoblast infiltration >20% and hypercellularity
Lumbar: Lymphoblast if CNS involvement
Immunophenotyping: C10, C19, C3
Cytogenetics: t(8,14) and hyperdiploidy - good prognostics
hyperdiploidy and t(9:22) philadelphia - poor prognosis

32
Q

Management of ALL:

A

Remission induction through intrathecal (CSF) admin of chemotherapy - 1 month
Prednisolone, vincristine, doxorubicin, asparaginase

Consolidation therapy aims to kill cells that remain in the body - more intense regime

Maintenance therapy kills are remaining cells that may regrow and cause relapse

Total length for most ALL is 2-3 years

33
Q

Chronic myeloid leukaemia:

Stages and symptoms:

A

Indolent, less-rapidly progressive
Mutation in mature, well-differentiated B cells so have a little bit of normal function
Philadelphia chromosome - increased tyrosine kinase activity -> cell proliferation

Stages:

1) chronic phase: slow progression and formation of defect myeloid cells. 3-4 years & asymptomatic
2) Accelerated phase: increased rate of defect myeloid cells. Fever, infections, weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia
3) Blast phase: Rapid production of damaged blast cells -> acute myeloid leukaemia

34
Q

Management of AML:

A

Specific molecular target therapy against tyrosine kinase activity.
Imatinib and Nilotinib
Allogenic stem cell transplantation for refractory or resistant leukaemia

35
Q

Chronic Lymphoblastic leukaemia:

Symptoms:

A

Indolent B lymphoproliferative disorder
Most common leukaemia in adults
Males >65 years

  • Lymphocytosis of clonal mature B cells
  • Bone marrow infiltration >30%
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Fever, fatigue, infections, weight loss
  • Night sweats
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
36
Q

Management of CLL:

A

Purine analogues - Fludarabine, mercaptopurine
Chlorambucil, Rituximab, Cyclophosphamide only given for progressive disease.

Anaemia due to haemolysis - steroids or erythropoeitin

Allogenic stem cell transplantation

37
Q

What is haemosiderin?

A

Insoluble iron-protein found in macrophages of bone marrow, liver and spleen.

Is it visible by light microscopy (unlike ferritin)

When Hb is broken down is can be deposited in cells as haemosiderin

38
Q

What virus can increase the risk of leukaemia?

A

HTLV-1

Found in Japan and caribbrean

39
Q

List some characteristics of blast cells:

A

Immature precursor of myeloid or lymphoid cells
Bigger than normal counterparts
Immature nucleus (nucleolus, open chromatin)
Cytoplasmic appearances atypical
Rarely seen in normal individuals
Highly suggestive of acute leukaemia

40
Q

Von Willebrand’s disease:

A

Autosomal dominant condition and is one of the commonest bleeding disorders.

Most cases are mild, with bleeding after only mild injury, particularly mucosal membrane injuries

41
Q

Which novel anticoagulant is the choice of treatment for patients with chronic kidney disease and heart conditions?

A

Apixaban is the preferred NOAC for patients with renal impairment due to minimal renal drug clearance

42
Q

What can CLL transform into?

A

Can undergo lymphomatous (Richter’s) transformation in 5-10% of cases to large B-cell lymphoma

43
Q

What is hairy cell leukaemia?

A

Rare, clonal proliferation of abnormal B cells in bone marrow and spleen like CLL

Name is due to the filament like cytoplasmic `projections

44
Q

Investigation results for myeloma:

A

FBC: Hb, WBC and platelets low/normal
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: High
Blood film: Paraprotein
U&E’s - kidney injury?
Serum calcium - raised/normal
Total protein - raised/normal
Serum protein electrophoresis - monoclonal band and immune paresis seen
24-hour urine electrophoresis - light chains
Skeletal survey - Lytic lesions (in skull usually)
Bone marrow aspirate - infiltration by plasma cells

45
Q

What can indicate a poor prognosis in multiple myeloma?

A

Reduced serum albumin
Increased serum beta-2 microglobulin
Increased serum LDH

46
Q

Treatment for myeloma

A
Symptomatic therapy
Specific therapy - non curative but can give preventative meds
Alkylator - Cyclophosphamide or mephalan
Steroid 
Novel agent (thalidomide, bortezomib)
47
Q

What is Henoch- Schonlein purpura?

A

IgA mediated small vessel vasculitis
Seen in children following infection

Features: palpable purpuric rash over buttock and exterior arm
Abdo pain
Polyarthritis
IgA nephropathy e.g. haematuria, renal failure

48
Q

Which pathogen can cause HUS presenting in raised lactate dehydrogenase, U&Es, haemolysis, anaemia, thrombocytopenia

A

E. Coli O157 - Most common cause of HUS in children

Can also be pneumococcal infection and HIV

49
Q

Which protozoa can cause Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

Malaria

50
Q

Which virus can cause Adult T-cell Leukaemia/lymphoma?

A

HTLV-1

51
Q

Which virus can cause high grade B-cell lymphoma?

A

HIV-1

52
Q

Which virus can cause Hodgkin’s, burkitt’s and nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

EBV

53
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies and Siderocytes are typical blood film findings in what?

A

Hyposplenism

54
Q

When is rouleaux formation seen in blood films?

A

In myeloma or chronic inflammation

55
Q

When are basophilic stripping and cabot rings seen in blood films?

A

Lead poisoning

56
Q

What is the most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Nodular sclerosing

57
Q

What blood type is the universal donor for fresh frozen plasma?

A

AB RhD negative blood

58
Q

If there is an isolated rise in Hb, what could be the cause?

A

Polycythemia Vera - JAK2 mutation

59
Q

How to differentiate between the leukaemias in exam

A

AML - blood tests will reveal immature blood cells (blasts).

ALL - far more common in children and blood tests will reveal immature blasts.

CLL - a malignancy of the lymphoid lineage so there will be a raised lymphocyte count.

CML - granulocytes at different stages of maturation, band forms

60
Q

What does cryoprecipitate consist of?

A

Factor VIIIi
Fbrinogen
von Willebrand factor
Factor XIII

61
Q

Haemophilia A (most common haemophilia) is due to deficiency of what factor?

A

Factor VIII

62
Q

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

A

Von Willebrand’s disease

63
Q

What test is done to check for haemolysis after transfusion?

A

Direct Coombs test