Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What does a raised reticulocyte count tell you about the general cause of anaemia?

A

It is a problem with removal of RBCs.

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2
Q

What does a decreased reticulocyte count tell you about the general cause of anaemia?

A

It is a problem with production of RBCs.

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3
Q

Give three events that happen as a red blood cell matures.

A
  • Size decreases
  • Cytoplasm ratio decreases
  • Nucleus disappears
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4
Q

What is the lifespan of an erythrocyte?

A

120 days

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5
Q

What is the lifespan of a platelet?

A

7-10 days

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6
Q

Describe the four globin chains on adult haemaglobin.

A

2 alpha chains

2 beta chains

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7
Q

Describe the four globin chains in foetal haemoglobin.

A

2 alpha chains

2 gamma chains

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8
Q

Describe how the gamma globin chain differs from alpha and beta chains.

A

It has a much stronger affinity for oxygen.

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9
Q

Give a disease in which abnormal qualities of Hb are produced.

A

Sickle cell

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10
Q

Give an disease where abnormal quantities of Hb are produced.

A

Thalassaemia

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11
Q

What is meant by MCV?

A

Mean corpuscular volume - the average volume if the red blood cells in a sample.

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12
Q

What is meant by MCH?

A

Mean corpuscular haemoglobin - the average amount of haemoglobin in each red blood cell.

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13
Q

What is meant by MCHC?

A

Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration - the average concentration of haemoglobin in each red blood cell

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14
Q

What is meant by the haematocrit?

A

The percentage of blood volume which is red blood cells.

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15
Q

Name the cell from which platelets are derived.

A

Megakaryocytes

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16
Q

What is platelet production regulated by?

A

Thrombopoietin

17
Q

Where is thrombopoietin produced?

A

Liver

18
Q

What is the normal platelet count?

A

150-400x10^9 /L

19
Q

How are platelets removed from the blood stream?

A

By the spleen

20
Q

Which receptor attaches platelets to collagen?

A

GP1b

21
Q

Which receptors attach platelets to von Willebrand factor?

A

GP1b and GpIIb/IIIa

22
Q

Name four things that are released from platelets when they degranulate.

A
  • ADP
  • Fibrinogen
  • Thrombin
  • Calcium
23
Q

How do platelets facilitate healing?

A

They release platelet derived growth factor (PDGF).

24
Q

Give two ways that hepcidin lowers iron concentration in the blood.

A
  • Decreases intestinal absorption

- Inhibits degradation of RBC by macrophages so iron can’t be recycled

25
Q

How does chronic disease lower iron concentration in the blood?

A

Inflammatory cytokines promote hepcidin production by the liver.

26
Q

Give one way to tell the difference between iron deficiency anaemia and anaemia of chronic disease.

A

Ferritin is low in iron deficiency and high in anaemia of chronic disease because it is an acute phase protein.

27
Q

Why does autoimmune haemolysis occur in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

A

B cells produce faulty antibodies which can attack red blood cells.

28
Q

Describe myelodysplastic syndrome.

A

Failure of the bone marrow, in which immature blast cells are produced but do not proliferate (like in leukaemia).

29
Q

Give a virus which is associated with the development of lymphoma?

A

Epstein Barr Virus

30
Q

Describe myelofibrosis.

A

Fibrosis of the bone marrow due to hyperplasia of abnormal megakaryocytes, which produce platelet derived growth factor to stimulate fibroblasts.

31
Q

Why does itching occur in polycythaemia?

A

Heat causes degranulation of mast cells, and as more are produced, more histamine is released.

32
Q

What is hydroxycarbamide/hydroxyurea used in?

A
  • Sickle cell anaemia
  • Leukaemia
  • Polycythaemia
33
Q

Name the monoclonal antibody against tyrosine kinase which is used in CML.

A

Imatinib/Gleevec

34
Q

Name a cytotoxic drug against blood cells.

A

Hydroxycarbamide/Hydroxyurea

35
Q

Why do hepatomegaly and splenomegaly occur in myelofibrosis?

A

The liver and spleen take on the role of producing blood cells.