Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Anticoagulant molecules expressed by the vessel wall

A

Thrombomodulin
Endothelial protein C receptor
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
Heparans

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2
Q

Antiplatelet factors expressed by the vessel wall

A

Prostacyclin

Nitrous Oxide

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3
Q

Effects of inflammation which make vessel wall prothrombotic

A

Downregulation of anticoagulant molecules
Upregulation of adhesion moiecules
Expression of tissue factor
Reduced prostacyclin production

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4
Q

Effects of stasis (of blood flow) that create a prothrombotic environment

A

Accumulation of activated factors
Promotes platelet adhesion
Promotes leukocyte adhesion and transmigration
Hypoxia produces inflammatory effect on endothelium

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5
Q

Causes of stasis (of blood flow)

A

Immobility: surgery, paraparesis, travel
Compression: Tumour, pregnancy
Viscosity: Polycythaemia, paraprotein
Congenital: Vascular abnormalities

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6
Q

Clotting factor increased in pregnancy:

A

Factor VIII

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7
Q

Bence Jones proteins are Ig…

A

IgG

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8
Q

Multiple myeloma is a neoplasia of which cells?

A

Plasma cells (effector B cells)

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9
Q

B cell differentiation and maturation (in germinal centre). Name cells starting with antigen activated B cell to mature fully differentiated plasma cell

A

Antigen activated B cell
Centroblast
Plasmablast
Plasma cell

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10
Q

The premalignant state of multiple myeloma is…

A

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)

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11
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS) is…

A

The premalignant state of multiple myeloma. It carries most of the key genetic abnormalities of MM such as translocations but the cells do not do much harm. Sit in the bone marrow and secrete.

(The older we are the more likely we have it)

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12
Q

Chromosomal abnormalities common in multiple myeloma (2)

A

Translocations between chromosome 14 at locus 32 and an oncogene (seen in 50%)
Deletions of parts of chromosome 13 (seen in 50%)

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13
Q

Key clinical features of myeloma

A

Calcium elevated: thirst, bones, moans, stones, groans,
Renal failure (plus amyloidosis and nephrotic syndrome)
Anaemia (and pancytopenia): fatigue, infections
Bones: pain, osteoporosis, osteolytic lesions, wedge compression fractures (back pain), pepper pot skull (more correct: raindrop skull), hyperviscosity syndrome.

Infections

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14
Q

Key investigations (and results) for multiple myeloma

A
Serum electrophoresis: Dense narrow band
Blood film: Rouleaux 
Urine: Bence-Jones protein 
ESR: Very high 
Bone marrow: >10% plasma cells in bone marrow 
Monoclonal plasma cells
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15
Q

Staging system of multiple myeloma

A

Durie-salmon

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16
Q

Criteria for MGUS

A

Monoclonal serum protein 70y)

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17
Q

Multiple myeloma:

a) median age at diagnosis
b) Most common in which racial group?

A

65-70

Black people

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18
Q

Multiple myeloma immunophenotypes:

a) MM cells are typically positive for
b) MM cells are typically negative for

A

a) CD38, CD138, CD56/58, monotypic cytoplasmic Ig

b) CD19, CD20, surface Ig, light chain restriction

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19
Q

Features of “smouldering myeloma”

A

> 10% plasma cells in BM but no CRAB/organ/tissue involvement.

CRAB= raised calcium, renal failure, anaemia, bone pathology

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20
Q

Features of myeloma bone disease:

A
Lytic lesions 
Low bone density 
Pathological fractures 
Spinal cord compression (paralysis) 
Hypercalcaemia (renal failure) 
Bone pain
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21
Q

Explain relationship between multiple myeloma and bone disease

A

Plasma cells secrete cytokines that activate osteoclasts and cytokines that inhibit osteoblasts. Osteoclasts stimulate osteoclasts. So treating myeloma bone disease is very important.

Osteoclast activating: RANK-L, MIP1-alpha, TNFalpha. IL-6, IL-3

Osteoblast inhibiting: Dkk-1, sFRP3, HGF, TGF-beta1, sclerostin

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22
Q

Briefly describe pathogenesis of myeloma nephropathy

A

Light chains of paraproteins precipitate in the kidneys, they form a glue and block normal flow. Induces an inflammatory response that leads to kidney failure.

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23
Q

Treatment of multiple myeloma

A
Steroids 
Classical cytostatic drugs e.g. melphalan 
Proteosome inhbitors 
IMIDs: e.g. thalidomide 
Supportive treatment for CRAB

Autologous stem cell transplantation (makes use of high dose melphalan)

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24
Q

Mechanism of action of melphalan

A
Alkylating agent (nitrogen mustard type). 
Adds alkyl group to DNA (guanine) forming crosslinks and therefore blocks DNA replication.
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25
Mechanism of action of proteosome inhibitors
Proteosome in the cell degrades damaged/unnecessary proteins into amino acids ready to reenter protein production. Misfolding of (large proteins happens when you have to fold a large amount of protein. The proteins are non-functional and precipitate easily and clog up the ER killing the cell. The proteins are exported and degraded by the ER. If the proteosome is inhibited you get a backlog of this protein, increasing the chance of it clogging the ER and killing the cell. Also causes a shortage of amino acids to create new protein.
26
Examples of proteosome inhbitors
Bortezomib, carfilzomib, and ixazomib
27
% of multiple myeloma patients with lytic lesions or low bone density
80-90%
28
Features of Waldenstrom's macroglobuinaemia | Histology, clinical,
AKA lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma Increased risk in elderly men Lymphoplasmacytoid cells produce monoclonal iGM that infiltrates lymph nodes and bone marrow Weight loss, fatigue, hyperviscosity (visual problems, confusion, CCF, muscle weakness)
29
Treatment of Waldenstrom's macroglobuinaemia
Plasmaphoresis for hyperviscosity | Chlorambucil, cyclophosphamide and other chemo
30
FBC changes in pregnancy
Mild anaemia (dulutional effect) Macrocytosis (but beware folate deficiency) Neutrophilia Thrombocytopenia (increased platelet size as younger platelets are released)
31
Consequences of iron deficiency in pregnancy
Iron deficiency may cause IUGR, prematurity, postpartum haemorrhage
32
The recommended daily allowance of iron in pregnancy is
30mg
33
WHO recommendations for iron and folate supplementation in pregnancy
60mg iron | 400mcg folic acid
34
Folic acid should be taken in pregnancy until at least... weeks
12
35
Causes of reduced platelet count in preganancy
Physiological: ‘gestational’/incidental thrombocytopenia (most likely if plt between 100-150) Pre-eclampsia Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) Microangiopathic syndromes All other causes: bone marrow failure, leukaemia, hypersplenism, DIC etc.
36
Mangement of ITP in pregnancy
IVIG Steroids Anti-D (where Rh-D +ve) Avoid ventouse delivery due to effect of ITP on baby (bleeding risk)
37
Features of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia on blood film
Thrombocytopenia Schistocytes(red cell fragment) Anaemia
38
Brief pathophysiology of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
Formation of a fibrin/platelet mesh in small vessels. Damage to RBCs as they are forced through (form schistocytes)
39
Causes of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
``` Autoimune: Thrombotic thrombocytopaenic purpura Haemolytic uraemic syndrome DIC Pre-eclampsia Eclampsia ```
40
What is HELLP syndrome
A variant of pre-eclampsia. Abbreviation of 3 main characteristics Hemolysis Elevated Liver enzymes Low Platelet count Usually begins in 3rd trimester High fetal/infant mortality
41
Causes of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy. Which are definitively treated by delivery of the baby TTP HUS HELLP Pre-eclampsia
HELLP | Pre-eclampsia
42
Coagulation changes in pregnancy (changes in coagulation factors)
``` Factor VIII and vWF increase 3-5 fold Fibrinogen increases 2 fold Factor VII increases 0.5 fold (Factor X) RESULT IN HYPERCOAGULABLE STATE ``` Protein S falls to half basal PAI-1 increase 5 fold PAI-2 produced by placenta RESULT IN HYPOFIBRINOLYTIC STATE
43
DVT in pregancy is more common on which side
Left | Because of reduced venous return
44
Risk factors for DVT in pregnancy
``` Hyperemesis/dehydration Bed rest Obesity - BMI>29 3x risk of PE Pre-eclampsia Operative delivery Previous thrombosis/thrombophilia Age Parity Multiple pregnancy Other medical problems: -HbSS, nephrotic syndrome IVF: ovarian hyperstimulation ```
45
Warfarin is most teratogenic in which trimester
1st
46
Complications in pregnancy associated with thrombophilia
``` Fetal growth restriction (IUGR) Recurrent miscarriage Late fetal loss Placenetal abruption Severe pre-eclampsia ``` Possibly due to impaired placental circulation
47
Heparin and aspirin can prevent complications in pregnancy associated with which thrombophilia?
Antiphospholipid syndrome | in women with recurrent pregnancy loss
48
Post partum haemorrhage is defined as...
>500ml blood loss
49
Haematological factors affecting risk of post-partum haemorrhage
Dilutional coagulopathy DIC in abruption Amniotic fluid embolism
50
DIC in pregnancy can be triggered by...
``` Amniotic fluid embolism Placental abruption Retained dead fetus Preeclampsia (severe) Sepsis ```
51
Signs associated with amniotic fluid embolism
Sudden onset shivers, vomiting, shock. DIC
52
Haemoglobinopathy associated with hydrops fetalis
Alpha 0 thalassaemia
53
Complications in pregnancy associated with sickle cell disease
``` Fetal growth restriction Miscarriage Preterm labour Pre-eclampsia Venous thrombosis ``` Increased frequency of vaso-occlusive crises
54
Managament of sickle cell disease in pregnancy
Red cell transfusion (top up or exchange) Prophylactic transfusion: reduces number of vaso-occlusive episodes Not clear whether affects fetal or maternal outcome Alloimmunisation -extended phenotype: Rh D c E, Kell
55
RBC count in: a) iron deficiency anaemia b) Thalassaemia trait
a) Low or normal | b) Increased
56
Causes of anaemia with low MCV
Iron deficiency Thalassaemia trait Anaemia of chronic disease
57
Presence of poikilocytes and anaemia suggests...
Iron deficiency
58
Anisopoikilocytosis and anaemia suggests...
iron deficiency
59
Basophilic stippling and anaemia suggests
Beta thalassaemia trait Lead poisoning Alcoholism Sideroblastic anaemia
60
Neutrophils should contain a maximum of... segments
Five
61
Target cells are also known as
codocytes
62
Presence of target cells suggests
Iron deficiency Thalassaemia Hyposplenism Liver disease
63
Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in
Hyposplenism
64
Causes of a poorly functioning spleen include...
Inflammatory bowel disease Coeliac disease Sickle cell disease SLE
65
B12 is absorbed from the...
terminal ileum
66
Should be measured before starting a transfusion of blood products
Baseline temp, pulse, respiratory rate,BP
67
Most acute transfusion reactions will occur in within the first.... (duration) of a transfusion
15 minutes
68
Probable cause? | During or soon after transfusion (blood or platelets), rise in temperature of 1 degree, chills, rigors.
Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction
69
Cause of febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction
White cells in blood products. The patient forms antibodies against them.
70
Treatment of febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reactions
Have to stop or slow transfusion Treat with paracetamol Can restart transfusion
71
Symptoms and signs of acute intravascular haemolysis
Restless, chest/ loin pain, fever, vomiting, flushing, collapse, haemoglobinuria (later)
72
The intravascular haemolysis due to ABO incompatible blood is mediated by....
complement
73
Antibodies involved in intravascular haemolysis
IgM
74
Cause of delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction.
Initially alloimmunisation occurs: the patient develops an immune antibody to the foreign antigen in the product. Then if they are exposed to it again through another transfusion the antibodies will trigger extravascular haemolysis. The haemolysis is driven by phagocytes.
75
Clinical features of a delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction
``` Increased bilirubin Increased reticulocytes Decreased Hb Haemoglobinuria Can cause renal failure May require additional transfusion ```
76
Treatment of delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction
Repeat cross match Treat renal failure May require another transfusion
77
3 causes of anaphylactic transfusion reaction
Previous exposure to an antigen, develop IgE antibody and react on next exposure (classically IgA deficiency) IgE antibody passively transferred by transfusion Antigen passively transferred by transfusion and patient has IgE antibody
78
Requirements for a diagnosis of transfusion associated circulatory overload
Any FOUR of the following that occur within SIX HOURS of transfusion: ``` Acute respiratory distress Tachycardia Increased blood pressure Acute or worsening pulmonary oedema Evidence of a positive fluid balance ```
79
What is TR-ALI
Transfusion associated acute lung injury: Acute dyspnoea with hypoxia and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates during or within 6 hours of transfusion, not due to circulatory overload or other likely causes
80
Pathogenesis of Transfusion associated acute lung injury
Donor anti-leucocyte antibodies (HLA or anti-granulocyte Abs) Interact with patient’s leucocyte antigens Aggregates of white blood cells get stuck in the pulmonary small capillaries Release neutrophil proteolytic enzymes and toxic oxygen metabolites causes lung damage Mechanism not fully understood, antibodies do not always cause problems
81
How do we prevent transfusion associated acute lung injury?
Don’t give plasma from female donors: Most FFP is male donor If platelets are pooled from 4 donors, the plasma they are resuspended in is from a male donor Virally inactivated FFP (pooled, solvent detergent treated) does not cause TRALI Stop unnecessary use of FFP: Use vitamin K or PCC/Octaplex for reversing warfarin
82
Which group of patients are most susceptible to transfusion related GvHD and how is it prevented?
Immunosupressed patients or If donor HLA matched or HLA-similar to the recipient Prevention: Irradiate donor blood
83
What is Post Transfusion Purpura?
Purpura appears 7-10 days after transfusion of blood or platelets and usually resolves in 1 to 4 weeks but can cause life threatening bleeding Affects HPA -1a negative patients (HPA is human platelet antigen)
84
Treatment of post transfusion purpura
IVIG | and maybe HPA-1a negative platelets
85
Pathogenesis of haemolytic disease of the foetus and newborn
RhD negative mother pregnant with RhD positive foetus, foetal blood crosses placenta. Mother develops antibodies against RhD 6 months later Pregnant again with RhD positive foetus, the antibodies against RhD cross placenta into the foetus. The antibodies coat the RhD positive foetal red cells and destroy them in the foetal spleen and liver. Note: only IgG can cross placenta
86
Clinical features of haemolytic disease of the foetus and newborn
Fetal anaemia (haemolytic) Haemolytic disease of newborn (anaemia plus high bilirubin - which builds up after birth as no longer removed by placenta)
87
Treatment of pregnancy when mother is alloimmunised to RBC antigens
All pregnant women Group and Antibody screen at around 11 weeks (booking) and again at 28 weeks to check for RBC antibodies If RBC antibody present, quantify, check partner and monitor level of antibody (high or rising - more likely to affect fetus) Monitor fetus for HDN – MCA Doppler ultrasound Deliver baby early, as HDN gets a lot worse in last few weeks of pregnancy If necessary, intra-uterine transfusion can be given to fetus At delivery - monitor baby’s Hb and bilirubin for several days as HDN can get worse for few days Can give exchange transfusion to baby if needed to bilirubin and Hb; plus phototherapy to bilirubin Note: subsequent pregnancies usually worse
88
Mechanism of action of prophylactic anti-D Immunoglobulin
RhD positive (fetal) red cells get coated with anti-D Ig and then they get removed by the mother’s reticuloendothelial system (spleen) before they can sensitise the mother to produce anti-D antibodies
89
Times when fetomaternal bleed likely to occur
spontaneous miscarriages if surgical evacuation needed and therapeutic abortions amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling abdominal trauma (falls and car accidents) external cephalic version (turning the fetus) stillbirth or intrauterine death
90
Doses of anti-D used after events likely to cause fetomaternal bleed
At least 250 iu - for events before 20 weeks of pregnancy At least 500 iu - for events after 20 weeks of pregnancy and at delivery
91
Doses (and timing) of anti-D given as prophylaxis during pregancy
At least 500 iu anti-D Ig at 28 and 34 weeks or 1500 iu anti-D Ig at 28-30 weeks
92
Antibodies that can cause severe haemolytic disease of the newborn
Anti-D Anti-c Anti-Kell
93
Effects of anti-Kell antibodies on a foetus
Haemolysis | Reticulocytopenia
94
Risk factors for lymphoma
Constant antigenic stimulation Infection (viral infection of cells) Immunosupression (HIV and immunosupressants)
95
Examples of conditions in which chronic antigenic stimulation leads to lymphoma
H. Pylori: Gastric MALT Coeliac disease: Small bowel T cell lymphoma Sjogren's syndrome: Parotid lymphoma Hashimoto's thyroiditis: Thyroid marginal zone lymphoma
96
Viral infections that increase lymphoma risk
EBV infects B cells, carrier state regulated by T cells. T cells supressed by immunosupressants. HIV: EBV infects B cells, HIV leads to loss of T cell regulation of infected B cells HTLV1: Direct viral integration. Infects T cells by vertical transmission. May develop adult T cell leukaemia
97
Lymphoma associated translocations involve which locus
Ig promoter
98
Within a lymohoid follicle the mantle zone contains...
Naive unstimulated B cells
99
Most common type of non-hodgkin lymphoma
B cell
100
Types of Hodgkin lymphoma
Classical | Lymphocyte predominant
101
Types of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
B cell Precursor B cell neoplasms Peripheral B cell neoplasms (high and low grade) T cell Precursor T cell neoplasms Peripheral T cell neoplasms
102
Types of lymphoma that begin in the germinal centre
Follicular lymphoma Burkitt's lymphoma Diffuse large B cell lymphoma Hodgekin lymphoma (also multiple myeloma)
103
Types of lymphoma that begin in the mantle centre
Mantle cell lymphoma
104
Types of lymphoma that begin in the marginal zone
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma Marginal zone lymphoma Small lymphocytic lymphoma Chronic lymphocytic lymphoma
105
Differentiating between B and T cells. B cells express CD... T cells express CD...
B cells: CD20 | T cells: CD3 and CD5
106
High grade non-hodgkin lymphomas
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
107
Low grade non-hodgkin lymphomas
Follicular lymphoma Marginal zone lymphoma Mantle zone lymphoma Small lymphocytic lymphoma/chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
108
Key clinical features of follicular lymphoma
Middle age/ old age | Lymphadenopathy
109
Key histological features of follicular lymphoma
Follicular pattern Germinal centre origin CD10, bcl2
110
Translocation seen in follicular lymphoma
14;18 translocation involving bcl2 gene
111
Key clinical features of small lymphocytic lymphoma
Middle age/ elderly | Nodes or blood
112
Key histological features of small lymphocytic lymphoma
Small lymphocytes Naive or post germinal centre memory B cell Express CD5 and CD23
113
MALT lymphoma affects which cells
Post germinal centre memory B cells
114
Key clinical features of mantle cell lymphoma
Male predominance Lymph nodes and GI tract Disseminated disease at presentation
115
Key histological features of mantle cell lymphoma
Located in mantle zone Pre-germinal centre naive B cells Aberrant CD5 and cyclin D1 expression Cyclin D1 overexpression
116
Clinical features of Burkitt's lymphoma
Seen in children and young adults Endemic type (equatorial Africa, EBV associated) Sporadic type (outside Africa, EBV associated), Immune deficiency type (Non-EBV associated, HIV/post transplant) Associated with EBV
117
Key histological features of Burkitt's lymphoma
Germinal centre cell origin | Starry sky appearance
118
Translocation seen in Burkitt's lymphoma
c-myc translocations 8: 14 2: 8 8: 22
119
Key clinical features of diffuse large B cell lymphoma
Middle age/ elderly | lymphadenopathy
120
Key histological features of diffuse large B cell lymphoma
Germinal centre or post-germinal centre B cell Sheets of large lymphoid cells Germinal centre phenocyte= good prognosis P53 positive, high proliferation fraction= poor prognosis
121
Enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma is associated with...
Coeliac disease
122
Features of peripheral T cell lymphomas
``` Middle age/ elderly Lymphadenopathy and extranodal sites Large T cells Often associated with reactive cell population e.g. eosinophils Aggressive ```
123
Most common form of cutaneous T cell lymphoma
Mycosis fungoides | also known as Alibert-Bazin syndrome
124
Key features of anaplastic large cell lymphoma
Clinical: children and young adults Lymphadenopathy Histology Large epithelioid lymphocytes T cell or null phenotype Molecular t (2;5) translocation Alk-1 protein expression (better prognosis if positive) Aggressive
125
Key differences between Hodgkin and NH lymphoma
Spread: Hodgkin spreads contigiously to adjacent lymph nodes NHL spreads discontinuously Locations: HL: more often localised to a single nodal site NHL: More often involves multiple lymph node sites
126
Key clinical features of classical Hodgkin lymphoma
``` Young and middle aged Male predominance Often involves single lymph node group EBV associated Moderately aggressive ```
127
Key histological features of classical Hodgkin lymphoma
Germinal centre/post germinal centre B cell origin Sclerosis Mixed cell population with scattered Reed-Sternberg and Hodgkin cells with eosinophils
128
Key clinical features of nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma
Isolated lymphadenopathy | NO association with EBV
129
Key histological features of nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma
Germinal centre B cell | B cell rich nodules with lymphocytic & histiocytic cells
130
Clinical features/presentation of Hodgkin lymphoma
``` Male predominance Bimodal age incidence: 20-29 and >60 Painless lymphadenopathy (asymmetrical) Constitutional symptoms: fever, weight loss, night sweats, pruritus, fatigue Pel-Ebstein fever (cyclical 1-2 week) Pain in affected nodes after alcohol ```
131
Staging of Hodgkin lymphoma
Stage 1: one lymph node region (can include spleen) Stage 2: two or more LN regions on same side of diaphragm Stage 3: two or more LN regions on opposite sides of the diaphragm Stage 4: extranodal sites (liver, BM) A: No constitutional symptoms (fever, unexplained weight loss, night sweats) B: Constitutional symptoms
132
What is a Reed-sternberg cell
Bi-nucleate/multinucleate (owl eyed) cell on a background of lymphocytes and reactive cells. Associated with Hodgkin Lymphoma
133
Imaging used in Hodgkin lymphoma
CT/PET
134
Chemotherapeutic combination used in Hodgkin lymphoma
Adriamycin (doxorubicin) Bleomycin Vincristine Dacarbazine/DTIC Every 4 weeks
135
Long term adverse affects of chemotherapy used to treat Hodgkin lymphoma
Pulomary fibrosis Cardiomyopathy (Preserves fertility)
136
Secondary malignancies seen after radiotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma
Breast Leukaemia Lung Skin
137
Hodgkin lymphoma: Over...% of patients with stage 1 or 2 disease are cured Around.... % of patients with stage 4 are cured
80% | 50%
138
Clinical features/presentation of NH lymphoma
Painless lymphadenopathy often involving multiple sites Constitutional symptoms (fever, weight loss, night sweats, etc) NO pain after alcohol
139
Very aggressive Non-hodgkin lymphomas
Burkitt's
140
Treatment of diffuse large B cell lymphoma
``` Rituximab Cyclophosphamide Doxorubicin Vincristine Prednisolone ```
141
Follicular Non-Hodgkin lymphoma prognosis
Incurable | Survival median 12-15 years (with chemo)
142
What is bcl2?
Anti-apoptosis protein
143
Laboratory findings in CLL
Lymphocytosis between 5 and 300 x 109/l Smear cells Normocytic normochromic anaemia Thrombocytopenia Bone marrow: Lymphocytic replacement of normal marrow elements Proliferation of mature B cells (CD19) co-expressing CD5
144
CD35 expressed by which type of B cell
Plasma cell
145
Name 2 systems used for staging CLL
Rai | Binet
146
Outline Rai staging system
Used to stage CLL Stage 0 Lymphocytosis only Stage 1 lymphocytosis plus lymphadenopathy Stage 2 lymphocytosis plus hepatosplenomegaly +/- lymphadenopathy Stage 3 lymphocytosis plus anaemia with or without lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, or splenomegaly Stage 4 lymphocytosis + thrombocytopenia
147
Prophylaxis against infections in CLL patients
Aciclovir PCP prophylaxis for those receiving fludarabine or alemtuzumab (Campath) IVIG is recommended for those with hypogammaglobulinemia and recurrent bacterial infections Immunisation against pneumococcus, and seasonal flu
148
50% of CLL deaths are due to
Infection
149
Treatment of autoimmune phenomena in CLL
1st line: steroids | 2nd line: Rituximab
150
Indications for treating CLL (instead of watching and waiting)
Progressive lymphocytosis: >50% increase over 2 months lymphocyte doubling time
151
Treatment of CLL with 17p deletion
BCR kinase inhibitor
152
Treatment of CLL (if not 17p deletion)
Rituximab+ Fludarabine+ Cyclophosphamide (FCR) Add bendamustine and BCR inhibitor of relapse
153
Transformation of low grade to high grade lymphoma is known as
Richter transformation
154
Treatment of Richter's syndrome
``` Rituximab Cyclophosphamide Doxorubicin Vincristine Prednisolone ```
155
Outline Binet staging system
Clinical staging system for CLL A: Less than 3 lymphoid areas B: More than 3 lymphoid areas C: Anaemia / low platelets
156
Causes of a relative polycthaemia
Alcohol Diuretics Obesity
157
Causes of APPROPRIATE raised EPO
High altitude Hypoxic lung disease Cyanotic heart disease High affinity haemoglobin
158
Causes of INAPPROPRIATE raised EPO
``` Renal disease (cysts, tumours inflammation) uterine myoma other tumours (liver, lung1) ```
159
Mutations associated with polycythaemia vera
``` JAK2 gene (acquired point mutations) Calreticulin gene (acquired insertions and deletions, which activate STAT5 by unknown mechanism) ```
160
Average age of polycythaemia vera diagnosis
60 | Also slightly more common in males
161
Presentation of polycythaemia vera
Incidental diagnosis on routine blood testing Symptoms of increased hyper viscosity: Headaches, light-headedness, stroke, Thrombosis, retinal vein engorgement Visual disturbances Fatigue, dyspnoea Increased histamine release: Aquagenic pruritus Severe burning pain in the hands and feet with a reddish or bluish skin discolouration Peptic ulceration Plethora Gout: due to red cell turnover and overproduction of uric acid Splenomegaly
162
Treatment of polycythaemia
Reduce viscosity: venesection, hydroxycarbamide | Reduce risk of thrombosis: aspirin (keep platelets below 400)
163
Epidemiology (age and sex) of polycythaemia vera
Mean age two peaks 55 years and minor peak 30 years | Females :males equal first peak but females predominate second peak
164
Presentation of essential thrombocythaemia
Incidental finding in half the patients Thrombosis: arterial or venous, so: CVA, gangrene, TIA DVT or PE Bleeding: mucous membrane and cutaneous Minor: headaches, dizziness visual disturbances Splenomegaly usually modest
165
Treatment of essential thrombocythaemia
Aspirin: to prevent thrombosis Anagrelide: specific inhibition of platelet formation from megakaryocytes, side effects include palpitations and flushing (Possible myelofibrosis risk?) Hydroxycarbamide: antimetabolite. Suppression of other cells as well. Possible mildly leukaemogenic
166
Essential thrombocythaemia is associated with mutation of...
JAK2 gene
167
Long term complications of essential thrombocythaemia
Risk of myelofibrosis development | Leukaemic transformation in about 5% after >10 years
168
Chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis involves proliferation of which cells?
Mainly of megakaryocytes and granulocytic cells
169
Myelofibrosis can be secondary. A progression from
Essential thrombocythaemia or polycythaemia vera
170
Myelofibrosis (idiopathic) usually develops at what age
7th decade
171
Classical triad of Budd-Chiari syndrome
Abdominal pain Ascites Liver enlargement
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Presentation of idopathic myelofibrosis
Incidental in 30% ``` Cytopenias: anaemia or thrombocytopenia Thrombocytosis Splenomegaly: may be massive Budd-Chiari syndrome Hepatomegaly ``` ``` Hypermetabolic state: Weight loss Fatigue and dyspnoea Night sweats Hyperuricaemia ```
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Budd-Chiari syndrome is caused by....
Occlusion of the hepatic vein
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Investigations and diagnosis of myelofibrosis
Blood film: tear-drop poikilocytes (dacrocytes) and leukoerythroblasts. Giant platelets Circulating megakaryocytes Bone Marrow: dry tap Trephine biopsy: Increased reticulin/collagen fibrosis. Megakaryocyte hyperplasia and clustering. New bone formation. Liver and spleen: Extramedullary haemopoiesis in spleen and liver
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Treatment of myelofibrosis (and problems)
Blood products: Platelet transfusions often ineffective Splenomegaly makes RBC transfusions increasingly difficult Splenectomy: often hazardous and can lead to worsening of the condition Hydroxycarbamide: may lead to worsening of anaemia Ruxolotinib: a JAK2 inhibitor , thalidomide, steroids, allogenic stem cell transplant: may be curative. Young patients only. Experimental.
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Key features of pre-fibrotic and fibrotic stage of myelofibrosis
Pre-fibrotic: blood changes mild and may be confused with essential thrombocythaemia. Hypercellular marrow. Fibrotic: Splenomegaly and blood changes. Dry BM tap. Prominent collagen fibrosis. Later Osteosclerosis
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Ruxolotinib is...
JAK 2 inhibitor. | Used in myelofibrosis
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Clinical features of CML
M:F 1.4:1 * 40-60 years * Weight loss, lethargy, night sweats * Splenomegaly * Features of anaemia * Bruising/bleeding * Gout
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Stages of maturation from blast cell to neutrophil
Myeloblast, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, Band cell, neutrophil
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Laboratory features of CML
``` •Leucocytosis between 50 – 500x109/l Mature myeloid cells Bi phasic peak Neutrophils and myelocytes Basophils No excess ( ```
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Genetic mutation found in large proportion of CML patients
translocation 9;22 Translocation of part of long arm of chromosome 22 to chromosome 9 and reciprocal translocation of part of chromosome 9 to chromosome 22. The latter involves transfer of the ABL oncogene to a breakpoint cluster (BCR) region of chromosome 22. This creates the Philadelphia chromosome, and leads to creation of a fusion gene that leads to synthesis of abnormal ABL protein with tyrosine kinase activity higher than normal.
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Phases of CML
Chronic phase Accelerated phase Blast phase
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% of blood and BM made up of blast cells in CML: Chronic phase Accelerated phase Blast phase
10% | >20%
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Duration of CML chronic phase (natural history)
Months to 4-5 years
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1st generation tyrosine kinase inhibitor
Imatinib
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2nd generation tyrosine kinase inhibitor
Dasatanib, and Nilotinib
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Treatment of CML chronic phase
Disease control: Imatinib 1st line 2nd line: dasatinib/nilotinib. Potential cure with stem cell transplantation (usually young people) Reduce symptoms with chemotherapy with: hydroxyurea, busulfan, omacetaxine, or interferon alpha with or without cytarabine. These used to be used for disease management, shorter chronic phase than with imatinib.
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In context of CML what is a complete cytogenic response?
0% philadelphia chromosome positive cells on cytogenic analysis (20 metaphases)
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Side effects imatinib
fluid retention | pleural effusions
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What is Pelger-Huet anomaly?
dumbel shaped bilobed neutrophils. Associated with lamin B receptor
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Myelokathexis is...
Congenital disorder of the white blood cells that causes severe, chronic leukopenia (a reduction of circulating white blood cells) and neutropenia (a reduction of neutrophil granulocytes). The neutrophils are retained in the bone marrow. The disorder is believed to be inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.
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What is congenital dyserythropoietic anaemia?
Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia (CDA) is a rare blood disorder, similar to the thalassemias. CDA is one of many types of anemia, characterized by ineffective erythropoiesis, and resulting from a decrease in the number of red blood cells (RBCs) in the body and a less than normal quantity of hemoglobin in the blood. There are 4 types
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What is sideroblastic aneamia
In sideroblastic anemia, the body has iron available but cannot incorporate it into hemoglobin, which red blood cells need to transport oxygen efficiently. Ring sideroblasts are named so because iron-laden mitochondria form a ring around the nucleus. To count a cell as a ring sideroblast, the ring must encircle a third or more of the nucleus and contain five or more iron granules
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What are Auer rods?
Auer rods are clumps of azurophilic granular material that form elongated needles seen in the cytoplasm of leukemic blasts
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List subtypes of myelodysplastic syndrome (WHO classificiation)
Refractory anaemia without ringed sideroblasts Refractory anaemia with ringed sideroblasts Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia and ringed sideroblasts Refractory anaemia with excess of blasts 1 Refractory anaemia with excess of blasts 2 5q deletion syndrome/myelodysplastic syndrome with 5q deletion Myelodysplastic syndrome unclassified: MDS with fibrosis, childhood MDS, others
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Refractory anaemia without ringed sideroblasts Blood features Bone marrow features
Anaemia and no blasts Erythroid dysplasia with
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Refractory anaemia with ringed sideroblasts Blood features Bone marrow features
Anaemia and no blasts Erythroid dysplasia with over 15% ringed sideroblasts Less than 5% blasts
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Refractory cytopenia with multinlineage dysplasia Blood features Bone marrow features
Cytopenia in 2 or more cell lines Dysplasia in over 10% cells in over 2 cell lines Less than 5% blasts
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Mean age of onset of myelodysplastic syndromes
68 years
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Refractory cytopenia with multinlineage dysplasia and ringed sideroblasts Blood features Bone marrow features
Cytopenia in 2 or more cell lines Dysplasia in over 10% cells in over 2 cell lines Over 15% ringed sideroblasts Less than 5% blasts
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Refractory aneamia with excess blasts 1 Blood features Bone marrow features
Cytopenias, less than 5% blasts, no Aeur rods Dysplasias and 5-9% blasts
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Refractory anaemia with excess blasts 2 Blood features Bone marrow features
Cytopenias or 5-19% blasts, or Aeur rods. Dysplasias, 10-19% blasts or Aeur rods
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Myelodysplastic syndrome with 5q deletions Blood features Bone marrow features
Anaemia, normal or increased platelets. Megakaryocytes with hypolobulated nuclei and less than 5% blasts
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Myelodysplastic syndrome unclassified
Complex- cytopenias, no Aeur rods, no blasts Complex- myeloid or megakaryocytic dysplasia, less than 5% blasts
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Causes of death among patients with myelodysplastic syndromes
1/3 die from infection 1/3 die from bleeding 1/3 die from acute leukaemia
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Myelodysplastic syndromes develop into... in half of patients
AML
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Treatment of myelodysplastic syndromes
Prolonging survival: Stem cell transplant Intensive chemotherapy Supportive care: Blood product support Antimicrobial therapy Growth factors (Epo, G-CSF) Biological modifiers Immunosuppressive therapy Azacytidine Lenalidomide Oral chemotherapy: Hydroxycarbamide Low dose chemotherapy: Subcutaneous low dose cytarabine Intensive chemotherapy/ stem cell transplant AML type regimens Allo/VUD standard/ reduced intensity
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All patients with myelodysplastic syndromes have less than....% blasts
20% | Over 20% is acute leukaemia
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Clinical features of myelodysplastic syndromes
``` BM failure and cytopenias with expected effects (infection, bleeding, fatigue) Hypercellular BM Defective cells e.g.: Ring sideroblasts (RBC) Hypogranulation (in WBC) Micromegakaryocytes ```
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Which type of myelodysplastic syndrome affects platelets
MDS with 5q deletion
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Which type of myelodysplastic syndrome affects WBCs
Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia
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Basic classification of aplastic anaemia
Severe aplastic anaemia (SAA) | Non-severe aplastic anaemia (NSAA)
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Camitta criteria for SEVERE aplastic anaemia
2 out of 3 peripheral blood features An absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of less than 0.5×109/L A platelet count (PLT) of less than 20×109/L, A corrected reticulocyte count (CRC) of less than 1%.
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Specific (non-supportive) treatment of idiopathic aplastic anaemia
Based on: Severity of illness Age of patient Potential sibling donor ``` A. Immunosuppressive therapy – older patient Anti-Lymphocyte Globulin (ALG) Ciclosporin B. Androgens – oxymethalone C. Stem cell transplantation Younger patient with donor (80% cure) VUD/MUD for > 40 yrs (50% survival) ```
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Late complications following immunosuppressive treatment for aplastic anaemia
1. Relapse of AA (35% over 15 yrs) 2. Clonal haematological disorders Myelodysplasia Leukaemia ~ 20% risk over 10 yrs PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria) May be a transient phenomenon 3. Solid tumours ~ 3% risk
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Which patients with aplastic anaemia have immunosuppressive therapy
Older patients
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Most common form of inherited aplastic anaemia
Fanconi anaemia
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Mode of inheritance of Fanconi anaemia
X-linked or autosomal recessive
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Genes responsible for Fanconi anaemia contribute to...
Genomic stability
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Androgen used in aplastic anaemia
Oxymethalone
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Age of onset of pancytopenia in Fanconi anaemia
5-10 years
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10% of Fanconi anaemia cases terminate in...
Acute leukaemia
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Features of Fanconi anaemia include pancytopenia and...
``` Short Stature Hypopigmented spots and café-au-lait spots Abnormality of thumbs Microcephaly or hydrocephaly Hyogonadism Developmental delay ``` (Congenital malformations may occur in 60-70% of children with FA)
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% of patients with Fanconi anaemia who develop aplastic anaemia
90%
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% of patients with Fanconi anaemia who develop myelodysplasia
32% (30% approx)
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Complications of Fanconi anaemia
``` Aplastic anaemia Myelodysplasia Leukaemia Liver disease Epithelial cancer ```
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Skin pigmentation Nail dystrophy Leukoplakia A classical triad seen in....
Dyskeratosis congenita Also get BM failure!!
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Features of dyskeratosis congenita
Classical triad: Nail dystrophy Leukoplakia Skin pigmentation BM failure (85%)
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What it dyskeratosis congenita
Inherited disorder characterised by: Marrow failure Cancer predisposition Somatic abnormalities Classical triad of: Hairy leukoplakia Skin pigmentation Nail dystrophy 85% get BM failure
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Somatic abnormalities/complications of dyskeratosis congenita
``` Epiphora Learning difficulties/development/mental retardation Pulmonary disease Short stature Extensive dental caries/loss Oesophageal stricture ``` Malignancy Intrauterine growth retardation Liver disease/peptic ulceration/enteropathy Ataxia Hypogonadism/undescended testes Microcephaly Urethral stricture/phimosis Osteoporosis/aseptic necrosis/scoliosis
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Mode of inheritance of dyskeratosis congenita
X-linked Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive
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The genes involved in dyskeratosis congenita
DKC1 gene which results in defective telomerase function TERC gene, which encodes the RNA component of telomerase Additional recessive unidentified gene
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Dyskeratosis congenita has 3 patterns of inheritance. All affect...
Telomeric structure and function
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Management of severe aplastic anaemia: 1st line if: a) acquired/idiopathic b) Inherited/constitutional
a) Sibling stem cell transplant if under 40 Immunosuppressive therapy if over 40 b) Oxymethalone
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Drugs used for immunosuppressive therapy in aplastic anaemia
Anti-Lymphocyte Globulin (ALG) | Ciclosporin
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Philadelphia chromosome positive myeloproliferative disorder
CML
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Bone marrow maximum tolerated irradiation dose
12Gy
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Autologous bone marrow transplant can be used to treat
Acute leukaemia Lymphoma Solid tumours
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BMT: After infusion of stem cells engraftment takes and immune recovery takes...
14-28 days | 6-12 months
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Organs affected by acute GvHD
skin, gastrointestinal tract and liver
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Organs affected by chronic GvHD
skin, mucosal membranes, lungs, liver, eyes, joints
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Risk factors for GvHD
``` Degree of HLA disparity Recipient (and donor) age (older=higher risk) Conditioning regimen R/D gender combination Stem cell source Disease phase (late is worse) Viral infections ```
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Treatments for GvHD
``` Corticosteroids Cyclosporin A FK506 Mycophenylate mofetil Monoclonal antibodies Photopheresis Total lymphoid irradiation ```
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Donor lymphocyte infusions induce remission via process called...
Graft vs tumour effect
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Donor lymphocyte infusions are used when?
Patient has relapsed after a bone marrow transplant.
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A non-myeloablative haematopietic stem cell transplant involves...
Preparative regiment followed by Stem cell transplant followed by Donor lymphocyte infusion
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HLA genes are found on which chromosome
6 (short arm)
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Disadvantages of using unrelated donor for stem cell transplant (compared to sibling)
``` Rejection+++ GvHD+++ More toxicity+++ Delayed immunoreconstitution +++ All worse than with sibling transplant ```
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What are killer-cell immunoglobulin-like receptors (KIRs)?
Transmembrane receptors expressed on the surface of NK cells and a minority of T cells. They interact with MHC class 1 molecules and can differentiate between allelic variants. This allows them to recognise virally infected or transformed cells. They regulate the activity of their cells. Most are inhibitory. Recognition of a healthy self cell leads to inhibition of of the NK cell cytolytic function.
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Advantage of BMT from donor with alloreactive NK cells
Alloreactive NK cells won't be recognised by host KIRs (and therefore won't be inhibited). Advantages: Alloreactive NK cells kill patient’s DC thus preventing priming of allogeneic T cells and, thus, GvHD Alloreactive NK cells kill patient’s T lymphocytes. This facilitates engraftment Alloreactive NK cells kill leukaemic cells. This may reduce leukaemic relapse.
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Role of host dendritic cells in GvHD
Prime donor T cells (after initial tissue damage)
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Leukaemia | Features of bone marrow failure
Anaemia: fatigue, pallor, breathlessness Neutropenia: infections Thrombocytopenia: bleeding
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AML epidemiology (key points)
Increases with age Prognosis worse with increasing age 40% of adults cured
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Chromosomal inversion inv(16)/t(16;16) is found in which condition
AML | Good prognosis
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Risk factors for AML
Familial or constitutional predisposition Irradiation Anticancer drugs Cigarette smoking
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The 2 types of genetic abnormality seen in acute leukaemia
Type 1 abnormalities promote proliferation & survival ``` Type 2 abnormalities block differentiation (which would normally be followed by apoptosis) ```
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Examples of genetic abnormalities that lead to core binding factor leukaemias Special feature of these leukaemias
Translocation 8;21 Inv(16) There is some maturation. Not all cells produced are blasts
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Core binding factor is...
dimeric transcription factor | master controller of haematopoiesis
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Genetic abnormality found in 12% of adult AML
Inv(16) , t(16;16)
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``` Key features of acute promyelocytic leukaemia Including genetic abnormality Key presenting feature Key features of affected cells Treatment ```
* The retinoic acid receptor alpha gene (RARA) on chromosome 15 is translocated (reciprocally) with the promyelocytic leukaemia (PML) gene on chromosome 17. The translocation is denoted as t(15; 17)(q22;q21). * The fusion gene produced binds with strong affinity to DNA blocking transcription and differentiation of granulocytes (stops maturation at later stage than other acute leukaemias). * There is an excess of promyelocytes, which contain large granules that can be released into peripheral blood. * Often patients present with DIC * Myeloblasts seen in peripheral blood: * Large cells with large nucleus and relatively little cytoplasm * Nucleoli present * Sets of granules forming elongated needles (Auer rods) that are only seen in myeloblasts * The initial translocation initiates the process but additional mutations are needed for leukaemia to develop. * Can treat with retinoic acid
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Treatment pf acute promyelocytic leukaemia
Retinoic acid
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Genetic abnormality seen in 90% of patients with promyeloctyic leukaemia
t(15; 17)(q22;q21).
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Clinical features of AML
Bone marrow failure: Anaemia Neutropenia Thrombocytopenia ``` Local infiltration: Splenomegaly Hepatomegaly Gum infiltration (if monocytic) Lymphadenopathy (only occasionally) Skin, CNS or other sites ``` Hyperviscosity if WCC is high: retinal haemorrhages and exudates
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AML: | CNS disease is more common with...
Monocytic differentiation
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AML: Cytogenic studies, molecular studies and FISH. Which applies to all patients?
Cytogenic studies
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Treatment of AML
Supportive care Red cells Platelets Fresh frozen plasma/ cryoprecipitate if DIC Antibiotics Long line Allopurinol, fluid and electrolyte balance Chemotherapy
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Basis of selective toxicity in AML chemotherapy
Normal stem cells: often quiescent checkpoints allow repair of DNA damage Leukaemia cells: continuously dividing lack of cell cycle checkpoint control
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Why have results of treatment of AML improved?
Better supportive care Identification of bad prognosis groups for more intensive treatment (more intensive chemotherapy or transplantation) Specific treatment for acute promyelocytic leukaemia
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ALL epidemiology
Peak incidence in childhood Most common childhood malignancy 85% of children cured Prognosis worse with increasing age
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Clinical features of ALL
Bone marrow failure: Anaemia Neutropenia Thrombocytopenia ``` Local infiltration: Lymphadenopathy (± thymic enlargement) Splenomegaly Hepatomegaly Testes, CNS, kidneys or other sites Bone (causing pain) ``` Lymohadenopathy, CNS infiltration and testicular infiltration more common than in AML
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ALL features in peripheral blood
``` Peripheral blood Anaemia Neutropenia Thrombocytopenia Usually lymphoblasts ```
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ALL features in bone marrow
Lymphoblast infiltration | Lymphoblasts may be B-lineage or T-lineage
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Impact of translocation t(9;22) on ALL treatment
t(9;22) — improved prognosis with tyrosine kinase inhibitors e.g. imatinib
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Example of tyrosine kinase inhibitor
Imatinib
275
Imatinib is a...
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
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Treatment of ALL (general principles)
Specific therapy: systemic chemotherapy CNS-directed therapy Supportive care: blood products antibiotics general medical care
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Supportive treatment used in ALL
Central venous catheter Red blood cell and platelet transfusions Broad spectrum antibiotics for fever Prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jirovecii infection Hyperuricaemia: hydration, urine alkalinization and allopurinol or rasburicase Hyperphosphataemia; aluminum hydroxide, calcium Hyperkalemia: fluids, diuretics Extreme leukocytosis (WBC > 200 × 109/l): leukapheresis Sometimes haemodialysis
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3 (unique) Causes of polycythaemia in neonates
Twin-to-twin transfusion Intrauterine hypoxia Placental insufficiency
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Unique causes of anaemia in the neonate
Twin-to-twin transfusion Fetal-to-maternal transfusion Parvovirus infection (virus not cleared by immature immune system) Haemorrhage from the cord or placenta
280
Congenital leukaemia is particularly common in
Down syndrome Note: This specific type of neonatal leukaemia (also sometimes called transient abnormal myelopoiesis or TAM) differs greatly from leukaemia in older infants or children
281
Key features of neonatal leukaemia
The leukaemia is myeloid with major involvement of the megakaryocyte lineage It usually remits spontaneously and relapse one to two years later occurs in only about a quarter of infants
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FBC: | Newborn babies, in contrast to adults, have...
Higher Hb
283
Globin chains that form: HbA HbA2 HbF
α2β2 α2δ2 α2γ2
284
HbSS | Red cells become sickle shaped in what sitatuon
Hypoxic conditions
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Which type of marrow is more susceptible to infarction in sickle cell disease?
Red marrow
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Sickle cell anaemia: | Why does splenic sequestration not occur commonly i older children and adults
Recurrent infarction has left the spleen small and fibrotic
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Cause of hyposplenism in sickle cell anaemia
Recurrent infarction has left the spleen small and fibrotic reducing its ability to filter out bacteria and parasites.
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Why does folic acid matter more in a child with sickle cell disease than in a normal child or an adult?
Hyperplastic erythropoiesis requires folic acid Growth spurts require folic acid Red cell life span is shorter so anaemia can rapidly worsen
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When does beta thalassaemia manifest (age)?
First 3‒6 months of life
290
Clinical effects of poorly treated thalassaemia major
Anaemia leadfing to heart failure, growth retardation Erythropoietic drive leading to bone marrow expansion, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly Iron overload leading to heart failure, gonadal failure
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Most inherited haemolytic anaemias are due to defects in...
Red cell membrane Haemoglobin molecule Red cell enzymes—glycolytic pathway Red cell enzymes—pentose shunt
292
Haemolytic anaemias in children:
Red cell membrane defects Hereditary spherocytosis Hereditary elliptocytosis Haemoglobin defects Sickle cell anaemia Glycolytic pathway defects Pyruvate kinase deficiency Pentose shunt defects G6PD deficiency
293
Features of G6PD deficiency in the blood film
Heinz bodies, which are denatured haemoglobin Bite cells (cells with Heinz bodies that pass through the spleen have part of the membrane removed).
294
Causes of crises in G6PD deficiency
Illness (especially infections) Certain drugs Certain foods, most notably broad beans Certain chemicals
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Mode of inheritance of g6pd deficiency
X-linked recessive
296
G6PD deficiency affects which pathway
Pentose phosphate pathway
297
Importance of the pentose phosphate pathway
Production of NADPH One of the uses of NADPH in the cell is to prevent oxidative stress. It reduces glutathione via glutathione reductase, which converts reactive H2O2 into H2O by glutathione peroxidase. If absent, the H2O2 would be converted to hydroxyl free radicals by Fenton chemistry, which can attack the cell. Erythrocytes, for example, generate a large amount of NADPH through the pentose phosphate pathway to use in the reduction of glutathione.
298
Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is characterised by (lab results)
Spherocytosis | Positive direct antiglobulin test (Coombs’ test)
299
Which is more common? Haemophilia A Haemophulia B
Haemophilia A (5 times more common)
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Presentation of autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
Petechiae Bruises Blood blisters in mouth