Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the spectrum of symptoms a patient with anaemia might describe.

A
Asymptomatic 
Fatigue
Headaches, 
Faintness
Breathlessness
Angina
Intermittent Claudication
Palpitations
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2
Q

List the causes of a microcytic anaemia

A

Iron Deficiency
Thalassaemia
Sideroblastic Anaemia

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3
Q

List the causes of a normocytic anaemia

A
Acute Blood Loss
Anaemia of Chronic Disease
CKD
Marrow Infiltration, Fibrosis 
Myelomas
Mixed Defiecieny e.g. Iron and B12
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4
Q

List the causes of a macrocytic anaemia

A
Alcohol 
Haemorrhage/Haemolysis (increase reticulocytes)
Vit B12/Folate Deficiency 
Hypothyroidism
Pregnancy 
Drug Therapy
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5
Q

What test should always be done in a patient presenting with normocytic anaemia?

A

Urine and Serum Electrophoresis - looking for paraprotein for myeloma
Anaemia of chronic disease is a diagnosis on exclusion and should only be made if everything else has been ruled out.

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6
Q

Describe the causes of thrombocytopenia

A
DECREASED PRODUCTION
Haematinic Deficiency e.g. B12, Folate
Acute Leukaemia/Myelodysplastic Syndromes i.e. bone marrow failure
INCREASED CONSUMPTION
e.g. DIC, Sepsis
Immune Mediated e.g. ITP
Drug Induced
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7
Q

Describe the causes of thrombocytosis (high platelets) and how can we distinguish between them?

A

Can be reactive i.e. in response to infection
Can be due to a myeloproliferative neoplasm

History and Clinical Examination
Trend of platelet count (sudden increase suggests reactive,, more gradual increased suggests MPN)

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8
Q

Describe what a myeloproliferative neoplasm is.

A

Uncontrolled clonal proliferation of one or more of the cell lines in the bone marrow.

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9
Q

List some examples of Myeloproliferative Neoplasms

A
Polycythemia Vera
Essential Thrombocytopenia
Myelofibrosis
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia 
N.B. these conditions grouped together as there can be transition from one disease to another and they may also transform into AML
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10
Q

Describe what happens in Polycythemia Vera

A

Alteration in pluripotent progenitor cell
Leading to excessive proliferation of erythoid (RBCs), myeloid (basophil, neutrophil, eosinophiol, macrophage) and megakaryocytic (platelets)

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11
Q

What mutation is commonly associated with polycythemia vera

A

JAK-2 - means bone marrow is continuously signalled to produce cells with or without the presence of Epo

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12
Q

Describe the clinical features of polycythemia vera?

A

Insidious onset usually >60yrs
Tiredness, depression, vertigo, tinnitus and visual disturbance
Can also get hypertension, angina, intermittent claudication and a tendency to bleed
Severe itching after a hot bath or when patient is warm is common
Spleen in palpable in 70%, hepatomegaly 50%
Thrombosis and haemorrhage are the major complications

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13
Q

How to you diagnose polycythemia vera?

A

Increased haemoglobin
Presence of JAK2 kinase mutation (taken over from marrow biopsy)
Serum epo level below normal

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14
Q

How is polycythemia vera treated?

A

Aspirin to decrease stroke risk
Venesection weekly to decrease haematocrit
Chemo with hydroxycarbamite in some with HIGH HIGH platelets- can’t venesect platelets as made too quickly - slows down marrow function

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15
Q

Describe Essential Thrombocytopenia

A

ELEVATED PLATELET COUNT

normal WBCs and RBCs

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16
Q

How might be patients present with essential thrombocytopenia?

A

Asymptomatic incidental finding
Thrombo-embolic disease
Less commonly bleeding

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17
Q

Describe how you diagnose essential thrombocytopenia?

A

JAK-2 mutation in around 50%
If negative check for calreticulin or MPL
If these both negative - do bone marrow biopsy, will show increased megakaryocytes

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18
Q

How do you treat Essential Thrombocytopenia?

A

Aspirin to decrease stroke risk

Hydroxycarbamite

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19
Q

Describe Myelofibrosis

A

Get clonal proliferation of stem cells and myeloid metaplasia in the liver, spleen and other organs, with FIBROSIS in the bone marrow (hyperplasia of abrnomal megakaryocytes which release fibroblast stimulating factors

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20
Q

How does Myelofibrosis Present?

A

Insidiously with lethargy, weakness and weight loss
Abdominal fullness from splenomegaly
Bruising, bleeding and anaemia can occur
Severe pain related to respiration may indicate peri-splenitis secondary to splenic infarction

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21
Q

How is Myelofibrosis Diagnosed?

A

Leucoerythroblastic blood film - tear drop red cells
Anaemia, Thrombocytopenia, raised WCC
Bone marrow aspiration often unsuccessful due to nature of condition
JAK-2 mutation in 50%

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22
Q

What is the treatment of Myelofibrosis?

A

Supportive - blood transfusions, folic acid, analgesia
If spleen is painful and transfusion requirements are high a splenectomy may be performed
Tx of Disease - spectrum from observation alone - bone marrow transplant
New promising therapy with JAK inhibitors

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23
Q

Describe the chromosomal abnormality of CML

A

Philadelphia Chromosome
Long arm of chromosome 22 has been shortened by reciprocal translocation with chromosome 9
Puts the BCR:ABL genes together which causes upregulation of tyrosine kinase

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24
Q

Describe how patients with CML present?

A
Peak age 40-60
Some are asymptomatic OR
Symptomatic anaemia
Abdo discomfort sue to splenomegaly
Weight loss, fever, sweats
Headaches, visual disturbance, priapism due to leucostasis
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25
Q

Describe how CML will progress if left untreated?

A

Will eventually be followed by a “blast crisis” transformation to acute leukemia or myelofirbosis

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26
Q

Describe how CML is diagnosed?

A

BLOOD TESTS
normocytic anaemia, HIGH WCC, platelets can be increased or decreased
BLOOD FILM
Neutrophilia with spectrum of mature myeloid precursors
BONE MARROW ASPIRATE
Increase cells and increase myeloid precursors
Cytogenetics reveals philadelphia chromosome

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27
Q

How is CML managed?

A

Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor - Imantinib
Produces complete haematological response in 95% and complete cytogentic response in 80%
can be used indefinitely, although should be stopped pre-conception
Stem cell transplantation in those resistant

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28
Q

List the systemic effects of iron overload seen in haemochromotosis

A

Liver disease - hepatitis, fibrosis and cirrhosis (plus ↑risk of hepatocellular carcinoma)
Pancreatic islet cell failure → Diabetes
Accumulation in the heart → restrictive cardiomyopathy and heart failure (can be a big issue)
Deposition in joints → arthritis and joint pain
Deposition in skin → hyperpigmentation or “tanning”
Deposition in pituitary gland → hypogonadotrophic (↓FSH and LH) hypogonadism (→ ↓ sex hormone synthesis in gonads). In men this presents as erectile dysfunction, subfertility and testicular atrophy. In women it presents as menstrual irregularity/amenorrhoea and anovulation → infertility. Both sexes may experience loss of axillary, pubic and limb hair.

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29
Q

Describe the mutation seen in over 95% of patients with haemochromatosis

A

HFE1

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30
Q

List some of the causes of B12 deficiency

A

Pernicious anaemia
Diet (vegans at risk)
Conditions affecting stomach/intestines e.g. crohns, gastrectomy
Medications e.g. PPIs (stomach acid helps to break down animal proteins containing B12)
Pregnancy
Heavy Drinking

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31
Q

List some of the causes of Folate Deficinecy

A

Poor Diet (lacking green, leafy veg and brown rice)
Malabsorption e.g. coeliac, crohns,
Medication e.g. phenytoin, saulfasalazine, co-trimoxazole
Pregnancy
Heavy Drinking

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32
Q

What test is used to test for pernicious anaemia?

A

Intrinsic Factor Antibodies

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33
Q

How can alcohol ingestion lead to low platelets?

A

Signifcant alcohol intake –> liver pathology –> portal hypertension –> splenomegaly –> sequestration of platelets in spleen appearing as low platelet count
Also alcohol - direct toxic effect on bone marrow can lead to decreased platelet production

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34
Q

When would you see macrocytic RBCs without significant anaemia?

A

Hypothyroid

Alcohol

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35
Q

Macrocytic Anaemia + High Reticulocyte Count + Jaundice…. makes you think of what diagnosis?

A

Haemolytic Anaemia

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36
Q

When someone presents with hereditary heamolysis, what three causes should you consider?

A

MEMBRANE - Hereditary Spherocytosis
ENZYMES - G6PD Deficinecy
HAEMOGLOBINOPATHY - Thalassaemia

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37
Q

Describe how patients with haemolytic anaemia usually present?

A

Due to constant breakdonw of RBCs, these patients have increased bone marrow activity to replace the RBCs they are loosing
This is usually fine
However, if triggering factor e.g. infection, virus, medication
The patients can decompensate and quickly become acutely unwell with jaundice and anaemia

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38
Q

Describe the management of patients with haemolytic anaemia

A

Depends on severity
Multiple hosppital admission with decompensation by age 5 - splenectomy would be considered
(spleen breaksdonw RBCs, if remove spleen, RBCs not broken down, stops problem of haemolysis)
In less severe patients jutch treat decompensated episodes and give folate supplementation
(as bone marrow increase demand as constantly replacing RBCs)

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39
Q

Describe the complications associated with a splenectomy

A

Increased rsik of serious infection with encapsulated organisms e.g. haemophilus, streptococcus and meningococcus. These patients need to be on lifelong penicillin prophylaxis to prevent serious infection with these organisms

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40
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of anaemia seen in chronic kidney disease and how you would treat it

A

Kidney cells produce epo - stimulates cells of bone marrow to produce RBCs
In CKD kidney cells become damaged, get decreased epo, bone marrow not stimulated to produce RBCs - get normocytic anaemia
Give regular Epo injections

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41
Q

Describe what is seen on a leucoerythroblastic blood film and what it means

A
Nucleated RBCs (precursor to RBCs) and Myelocytes (precursor to granulcoytes - eosinophils and basophils) should not be seen in blood, should only be seen in bone marrow
Also tear shaped RBCs - poikilocytes

Means myelofibrosis or metastatic cancer than has spread to bone marrow.

42
Q

Describe Haemophilia A and its inheritance

A

Factor 8 Deficiency
X-Linked Recessive Inheritance
1 in 5000 males affected

43
Q

Describe the presentation of Haemophilia A

A
Depends on the residual factor 8 level 
SEVERE HAEMOPHILIA (5U/dL)
Usually only associated with bleeding after injury or surgery. Diagnosis in often delayed until later in life.
44
Q

What laboratory findings would you expect to see in a patient with haemophilia?

A
Prolonged APTT (measures intrinsic pathway)
Decreased levels of Factor VIII
45
Q

Describe how patients with Haemophilia are managed

A

Prophylactic prevention of bleeds through Factor 8 infusions 3x/week
Prompt treatment of all bleeds with factor 8
In patients with mild haemophilia can give desmopressin - increase factor 8 release from endothelial cell stores, can increased circulating factor 8 by up to 4x - not effective in severe haemophilia)

46
Q

Describe why it is important to know the carrier status of women with Haemophilia in the family

A

Up to 5% of women who carry hemophilia A have a factor 8 low enough to be considered as mild haemophilia
They will bleed with trauma and need treatment to cover surgery

47
Q

Describe Haemophilia B

A

Also known as Christmas Disease
Deficiency of Factor 9
1 in 30,000 males affected
X-Linked recessive inheritance

48
Q

Describe clinical features of Haemophilia B

A

Exactly the same as Haemophilia A
Have mild, moderate and severe forms,
Increased APTT and decreased factor 9 in blood
Treat with prophylactic doses of factor 9 twice weekly and factor 9 when bleeding
Desmopressin not effective

49
Q

Describe von Willebrands Disease

A

Defective Platelet Function + Factor 8 Deficinecy
Both are due to a deficiency or abnormality of von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
vWF plays a vital role in platelet adhesion to damaged subendothelium as well as stabilising factor 8 in plasma

50
Q

Describe the different types of VWD and their mode of inheritance

A
TYPE 1 
Mild quantitatiive defect, AD
TYPE 2
Qualitative defect (2a, b and m = AD, 2n = AR)
TYPE 3 
Severe quantitative defect = AR
51
Q

Describe the clinical features of VWD

A
Type 1 and 2 
Bleeding follows minor trauma or surgery
Epistaxis and Menorrhagia often occur
Haemarthroses are uncommon
Type 3 
More severe bleeding (but rarely see joint and muscle bleeds seen in haemophilia A)
52
Q

Describe the treatment of VWD

A

Desmopressin given prophylactically to increase levels of vWF and Factor 8
Pooled plasma concentrations containing vWF are given to patients who are bleeding or those who are undergoing surgery

53
Q

Describe the causes of VITAMIN K deficiency

A

INADEQUATE STORES
e.g. haemorrhagic disease of newborn or severe malnutrition
MALABSORPTION
e.g. cholestatic jaundice, leads to decreased bile salts in intestine, Vit K = a fat soluble vitamin
ORAL ANTICOAGULATION
with Vit K antagonists e.g. Warfarin

54
Q

What are the consequences of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and how are these avoided

A

Minor bleeding in first week of life = classical
Severe bleeding e.g. intracranial hemorrhage in 2-26 weeks of life = late
1mg of IM Vitamin K is given to all neonates

55
Q

List some common acquired coagulation disorders

A

Vitamin K Deficiency
Liver Disease
inc Vit K deficiency in cholestasis, reduced synthesis of coag factors, thrombocytopenia through splenomegaly
DIC

56
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of DIC

A

Occurs when the balance of procoagulant factors and anticoagulant factors is overwhelmed by a massive systemic procoagulant signal
Widespread intravascular coagulation - get platelet and coagulation factor consumption, eventually run out - get BLEEDING.
Mixture of initial thrombosis leading to organ failure - usually brain, skin and kidneys from thrombotic occlusion and hypoxia followed by bleeding tendancy

57
Q

List some of the causes of DIC

A
Malignancy 
Sepsis (usually gram -ve's including meningococcal)
Haemolytic transfusion reactions
Obstetric causes e.g. placental abruption, amniotic fluid embolus and pre-eclampsia
Trauma e.g. burns, surgery
Other infections e.g. malaria falciparum
Acute Liver Failure
Snake Bites
58
Q

Describe the blood test results you would see in a patient with severe DIC

A

Increased PT and APTT
Decreased fibrinogen and clotting factors
Increased D-Dimer
Decreased platelets

59
Q

What are the three major causes of bone marrow failure

A

1) Aplastic Anaemia
2) Megaloblastic Anaemia
3) Infiltration of marrow with malignant disease (can be haematological or non-haematological)

60
Q

Describe a practical approach to pancytopenia

A
Any significant medications - review
Abdominal Ultrasound - Spleen 
Check Haematinics - B12, folate for megaloblastic anaemia
Bone Marrow Aspirate 
HYPOcellular = aplastic anaemia
HYPERcellular = malignancy
61
Q

Describe aplastic anaemia

A

Pancytopenia with hypocellularity of the bone marrow
Usually acquired
Due to a decrease in pluripotent stem cells and a fault in those remaining meaning that they cannot repopulate the bone marrow.
Emergence of an abnormal clone may evolve into AML or myelodysplasia.

62
Q

List the causes of aplastic anaemia

A

PRIMARY
Inherited, Idiopathic Acquired (67% cases)
SECONDARY
Chemicals, Drugs e.g. chemotherapy, ionising radiation, insecticides, infections e.g. hepatitis, EBV, HIV, TB

63
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Bone Marrow Failure?

A

Anaemia - low RBCs
Bleeding - low platelets
Infection - low WCC

64
Q

What investigation would you do in a patient with aplastic anaemia?

A

FBCs - pancytopenia
Absence of reticulocytes (as bone marrow can’t produce anything)
Hypocellular aplastic bone marrow

65
Q

Describe the treatment and prognosis of aplastic anaemia

A

1 - withdraw cause
2- supportive care e.g. RBC and platelet transfusions, avoiding infection whilst neutropenic
3- bone marrow transplant
4 - immunosupression

Prognosis is variable - ranges from rapid spontaneous remission to a persistent progressive pancytopenia which may result in death from infection or hemorrhage
Determinants of prognosis are severity of pancytopenia and cellularity of bone marrow.

66
Q

Describe megaloblastic anaemia

A

Characterized by immature RBCs in the bone marrow with delayed nuclear maturation because of defective DNA synthesis = MEGALOBLASTS

67
Q

How does megaloblastic anaemia lead to pancytopenia and bone marrow failure?

A

B12 and folate are needed for synthesis of all DNA in all cells of the body.
RBCs first affected, then platelets and white cells will be affected - leading to pancytopenia and bone marrow failure.

68
Q

What non-haemotologoical malignancies commonly metastasize to the bone marrow

A

Breast, lung, prostate, renal, thyroid and melanoma

essentially same as bone - paired and midline organs + melanoma

69
Q

What is the peak age of onset for the acute leukemias?

A

AML - adults, peak age 65

ALL - childhood

70
Q

Describe the B symptoms of lymphoma and leukemia

A

Fever
Weight Loss
Night Sweats

71
Q

Describe some common sites of tissue infiltration of leukemia

A

CNS - (cause of 50% child deaths)
Testes - swollen testes may be only presentation in young boy
Gums, skin
Thymus - SOB, tracheal narrowing, widened mediastinum on CXR - needs urgent intubation
Lymph nodes, bones

72
Q

Patients with acute leukemia will have low RBCs and platelets but a high WCC, why is this?

A

“Blasts” - all immature white cells

Will be seen on blood film

73
Q

What will the bone marrow film in a patient with acute leukemia look like?

A

Increased cellularity
Decreased erythropoesis
Decreased megakaryocytes
Replacement by blast cells > 20% - often approaching 100%

74
Q

Neutropenic sepsis is diagnosed in any patient who…..

A

Has a neutrophil count

75
Q

Describe the urgent actions you would do, if diagnosed a patient with neutropenic sepsis

A

See immediately and admit
Look for source of infection (although not always obvious in these patients)
Take FBC, U&Es, BLOOD CULTURES, and CXR
Start IVT - need lots of fluid (2-3L over first 6-8 hrs)
GIVE IMMEDIATE BROAD SPECTRUM ANTIBIOTICS
E.G. PIP TAZ
Monitor very closely and watch vital signs for evidence of deterioration
If these patients develop septic shock then the mortality is very high

76
Q

Define Thrombus and Embolus

A

A THROMBUS is a solid mass formed in the circulation from the constituents of blood during life
An EMBOLUS is a part of a thrombus that has broken off and blocks a smaller blood vessel downstream

77
Q

List some of the rsik factors for venous thromboembolic disease

A

Increasing age, BMI >30, Immbobility, Recent Long Haul Flight, Pregnancy and the Puerperium, Oestrogen therapy e.g. COCP, HRT, Thrombophilia, Recent Surgery, Malignancy, Anti-Phopholipid Syndrome

78
Q

Describe Thrombophilia

A

A term describing inherited or acquired defects in haemastasis leading to a predisposition to venous or arterial thrombosis

79
Q

What are the naturally occurring anticoagulants and what clotting factors do they inhibit

A

Protein C and Protein S - work as a complex to inhibit factor 5 and factor 8
Anti-thrombin - inhibits all other factors

80
Q

Describe Virchows Triad of Thrombus Formation

A

HYPERCOAGULABLE STATE
VASCULAR WALL INJURY
CIRCULATORY STASIS

81
Q

What is Factor V Leiden

A

Factor V Leiden differs from normal Factor V by a single point mutation
This variation makes Factor V less likely to be cleaved by activated protein C
Leads to a slowing of the inactivation of Factor Va, and therefore a tendency to form clots
Acts synergistically with other risk factors

82
Q

How common is Factor V Leiden

A

Found in 2-3% of normal population and 20-30% of patients with VTE

83
Q

Describe the inheritance of Protein C and S Deficiency and how it might present

A

Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
If HOMOZYGOUS - causes neonatal purpura fulminans, which is fatal without immediate replacement therapy
If HETEROZYGOUS -may present with DVT in young adults

84
Q

Describe how you would go about diagnosing a DVT in a patient with suggestive symptoms

A

Review History and Examination - try and exclude other causes
Use the Wells Score to calculate risk of DVT
If Wells score suggests high risk (>2) then perform a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan and a D-dimer test
If ultrasound cannot be done and D-Dimer is high - give interim parenteral anti-coagulation until ultrasound can be performed.

85
Q

Describe how you would go about diagnosing a PE in patients with suggestive symptoms

A

Medical History, Examination, CXR
Calculate their risk of PE using the Wells score for PE
If Wells score suggests PE is likely (>4) order a CTPA, if this cannot be done immediately give parenteral anticoagulation in the interim
If Wells score suggests not likely - do D-dimer test.
If D-dimer positive, do CTPA

86
Q

List some of the causes of an isolated thrombocytopenia

A
Infections (bacterial and viral)
Immune mediated destruction
Congenital Disease
Gestational Thrombocytopenia
Splenomegaly
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
Drugs
87
Q

What cells are classically seen on the blood film of a patient with Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Reed Sternberg Cells

88
Q

What are rouleaux? And in what condition might they be present on the blood film?

A

Stacks or Aggregations of RBCs
Occur when plasma protein levels are high
e,g, paraprotein in myeloma

89
Q

Describe some of the ways that Myeloma can present?

A

Hypercaclcaemia & Bone Pain
Myeloma - overexpression of RANKL, RANKL activates osteoclasts, which resprob bone. Get lytic bone lesions “punched out” and hypercalcaemia
Anaemia -from replacement of normal bone marrow by tumour cells and inhibition of normal red cell production
Renal Failure - due to high plasma proteins (paraprotein)

90
Q

What are auer rods? And in what conditions would they be seen on the blood film?

A

Clumps of granular material that form long needles in the cytoplasm of leukemic blasts. Seen in
AML
Myeloproliferative Syndromes

91
Q

In any patients presenting with confusion, dehydration, nausea and vomiting what diagnosis should always be thought of

A

HYPERcalcaemia

92
Q

In a patient who presents lymphadenopathy when should they be referred to a specialist?

A

Any patient with a lymph node >1cm that has lasted for >6 weeks
Any patient with generalised lymphadenopathy i.e. in two or more non-contiguous areas
If they have supraclavicular lymph nodes (v.concerning)

93
Q

What initial investigations should be done in a patient presenting with lymphadenopathy?

A

FBC, U&Es, LFTs, ESR
Monospot - for infectious mononucleosis
Viral Screen - HIV, Hep B and Hep c - all can cause lymphadenopathy

94
Q

What additional investigations should then be done, if above negative.

A

Blood Film (although a lot of lymphomas have abnormal blood film)
Cell Surface Markers - immunophenotyping
Lactate Dehydrogenase = non-specific marker for cell turnover - although if high in the case of this history and examination - probably means lymphoma
CXR - to check for mediastinal widening
TISSUE - FNA not enough, need excision biopsy or multiple needle cores.

95
Q

Whats the difference in management in HIGH grade and LOW grade lymphomas

A

HIGH grade
Includes Hodgkins - need chemotherapy urgently and are curable
LOW grade
Watch and wait, do not need to treat low grade if patient is asymptomatic. Only treat when patient has symptoms. If treat low grade can get patients into remission, but they will relapse. Cannot cure it.

96
Q

Describe the Ann Arbour Staging System for Lymphoma

A
STAGE 1
One LN region or organ
STAGE 2
Two or more LN regions on the same side of the diphragm
STAGE 3
LN regions on both sides of the diphragm
STAGE 4
Extranodal, diffuse involvement of non-lyphatic organs/tissues e.g. bone marrow, lung, liver
97
Q

Describe Tumour Lysis Syndrome and its sequale

A

Occurs if treatment triggers a massive breakdown on tumour cells. Leads to INCREASED serum levels of urate, potassium and phosphate
And secondary HYPOcalcaemia
Can lead to cardiac arrythmias and seizures
Urate deposition in the renal tubules can cause renal failure (hyperuricaemic nephropathy)

98
Q

Describe how tumour lysis syndrome is prevented?

A

Vigourous hydration to maintain high urine outputs

Allopurinol can be given before treatment to protect the kidneys

99
Q

How do LMWH work?

A

Inactivates Factor Xa

100
Q

How does unfractionated heparin work?

A
Binds antithrombin (an endogenous inhibitor of coagulation)
Which increases its ability to inhibit thrombin, Factor Xa and Factor IXa
101
Q

How do you monitor Heparin?