Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 main lineages of blood?

A

Myeloid & lymphoid

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2
Q

What cell types are included in the myeloid lineage?

A
erythrocytes
platelets
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
monocytes
macrophages
dendritic cells
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3
Q

What cells types are included in the lymphoid lineage?

A

T and B lymphocytes

NK (natural killer) cells

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4
Q

What is CD34 used for?

A

CD34 is a cell surface glycoprotein. It is an important immunophenotypic marker of HSCs. Small numbers of HSC are usually present in the blood, but increase in number when the marrow is recovering from damage inflicted by cytotoxic drugs or following administration of G-CSF. G-CSF is used to mobilise stem cells into the blood for harvesting for HSC tranpslants.

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5
Q

Where does haemotopoiesis occur in the foetus?

A

At the beginnign of gestation: occurs as transient primitive waves in the extra-embryonic yolk sac. Definitive HSCs the n start to appear in the aorta-gonadal-mesonephros (AGM) region of the developing embryo. HSC then migrate to the foetal liver and then to the bone marrow

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6
Q

Where does haematopoiesis occur in adults?

A

Red marrow of bone marrow, only found in axial skeleton

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7
Q

What is extramedullary haematopoiesis?

A

When haematopoiesis occurs in liver and spleen - this occurs in certain pathologies such as myelofibrosis or untreated thalassaemia

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8
Q

What are the 6 important examples of Haematopoietic growth factors?

A
Erythropoietin - erythryoid
Thrombopoietin - platelets
G-CSF and GM-CSF - granulocyte, myeloid
IL-5 - eosinophils
IL-3 - stem cell and early progenitors
IL-7 - lymphoid
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9
Q

What are the uses of erythropoietin?

A

Renal failure
Treatment of anaemia
For patients donating their own blood prior to elective surgery
Jehovah’s Witnesses (instead of transfusions)

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10
Q

What are the side effects of Epo?

A

hypertension (dose-dependent), thrombosis, thrombophlebitis

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11
Q

What is Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF) used for?

A
  1. Primary or secondary prevention of infections in neutropenic patients
  2. Mobilisation of stem cells into peripheral blood for stem cell harvests for haematopoietic stem cell transplants
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12
Q

What is Thrombopoitin used for?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)
Myelodysplasia
Post chemotherapy

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13
Q

How is bone marrow testing carried out?

A

Sampling bone marrow usually from iliac crest.
Bone marrow trephine - core of bone marrow used to examine overall cellularity and architecture of bone marrow
Bone marrow aspirates - used to assess morphology / numbers of haematopoietic cells at different stages of differentiation and identify normal malignant filtrates

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14
Q

What two cells are the immediate precursors to red blood cells?

A

Normoblasts and reticulocytes

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15
Q

What two cells are the immediate precursors to monocytes?

A

Monoblasts and promonocytes

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16
Q

Where is thrombopoietin produced?

A

Mainly by the liver

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17
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced?

A

90% in the kidney

10% in the liver

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18
Q

What is the main stimulus to erythropoietin?

A

Hypoxia

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19
Q

What is the earliest recognisable erythroid cell in the marrow?

A

Proerythroblast (also called pronormoblast)

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20
Q

What is the difference between reticulocytes and erythrocytes?

A

Immature erythrocytes, containing some ribosomal RNA

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21
Q

What are leukemias?

A

Cancers of haematopoietic cells which arise in the marrow and spread to involve blood and lymph nodes / spleen

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22
Q

What are lymphomas?

A

Cancers of cells in the lymph nodes / spleen which spread to involve bone marrow and blood

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23
Q

What are myelomas?

A

malignancy of plasma cells (in marrow)

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24
Q

What are myeloproliferative disease & myelodysplasia?

A

neoplastic chronic abnormal myeloid proliferation

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25
What globin chains are present in HbA, HbA2 and HbF?
HbA: 2 alpha, 2 beta HbA2: 2 alpha, 2 delta HbF: 2 alpha, 2 gamma
26
What is methaemoglobin?
Hb with oxidised iron
27
What is the role of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate?
Increases oxygen delivery to tissues
28
Why is the dissociation curve of HbF a different shape to that of HbA?
Gamma-chains cannot bind 2,3-DPG
29
Approximately what percentage composition of whole blood is cells?
45%
30
What is blood serum?
Whole blood with all cells and clotting factors removed
31
What are the causes of macrocytic anaemia?
B12 and folate deficiency Alcohlism and liver disease Impaired red cell production Haemolytic anaemia
32
How does B12 and folate deficiency cause macrocytic anaemia?
They are closely involved in the production of DNA
33
What are the causes of aplastic anaemia? (bone marrow failure)
``` certain viruses (hep B) excessive doses of cytotoxic drugs / radiation idiosyncratic reactions to drugs ```
34
What does the direct Coombs' test aim to identify?
Antibody bound to patient's RBC
35
What are the causes of normocytic anaemia?
Anaemia of chronic disease Acute blood loss Mixed deficiency anaemia Bone marrow failure / ineffective erythropoiesis
36
What are the causes of microcytic anaemia?
Iron deficiency anaemia | Haemoglobinopathies (thalassemia, sickle cell disease)
37
Which type of thalassemia is asymptomatic?
beta-thalassaemia minor
38
What is the underlying pathology in thalassaemia?
Ineffective production of globulin chains
39
How are platelets produced?
Budding off of megakaryocytes
40
What is present inside dense granules in platelets?
ADP, serotonin, catecholamines, Ca2+
41
What is present inside alpha granules in platelets?
Clotting factors: FV, FVIII, fibrinogen, vWF
42
Which receptor mediates a strong bond between platelets in a thrombus?
GpIIIb/IIIa
43
What factor released by endothelial cells causes platelet activation?
ADP
44
What factors require vitamin K for their synthesis?
Prothrombin, FVII, FXI, FX
45
What is the first reaction in activation of the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade?
Tissue factor binds to FVII
46
What is the most important physiological mechanism for haemostasis in venous vessels?
Coagulation cade. platelets for arterial circulation
47
What are the hereditary disorders of platelets?
Bernard-Soulier syndrome - platelet membrane GPIb | Glanzmann's thrombasthenia - GPIIb/IIIa
48
What are the causes of acquired thrombocytopenia?
Autoimmune destruction | Bone marrow failure
49
What are the hereditary clotting factor disorders?
``` Haemophilia A (FVIII deficiency) Haemophilia B (FIX deficiency) ```
50
What is fibrinolysis?
Process of fibrin clot degradation
51
Where is tissue plasimogen activator produced?
Endothelial cells
52
What induces the release of tPA?
Thrombin
53
What is the role of activated protein C?
Degrade FVa and FVIIIa
54
What does anti-thrombin do?
Inactivate thrombin & FXIa, FXa and FXIa
55
What is the most important anticoagulant control mechanism operating on the venous side of the circulation?
Protein C system
56
How is protein C activated?
Thrombin enzymatically cleaves Protein C
57
What is the most common hereditary thrombophilia?
Factor V Leiden mutation
58
What is Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) used to investigate?
Activity of intrinsic & common pathway of coagulation cascade
59
What is prothrombin time used to investigate?
Activity of extrinsic & common pathway of coagulation cascade
60
What is Bernard-Soulier syndrome?
Deficiency of platelet membrane GPIb
61
What is Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia?
Deficiency of GPIIb/IIIa