Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

haematopoiesis (and lifespan of RBCs, plats, granulos)

A

turnover of cells is very quick:
Red blood cells have a lifecycle of about 120 days
Platelets have a lifecycle of about 7 days
Granulocytes have a lifecycle of only about 7 hours

pluripotent stem cells in the marrow (in fetus liver + spleen too, this is extramedullary); turns into a progenitor cell (common myeloid or lymphoid)

in presence of epo common myeloid progenitor cell -> basophilic erythroblast -> polychromatophilic erythroblast -> normoblast -> reticuocyte (enter circulation and mature over 24 hrs, losing final RNA and shrinking to become RBC; B12 and folate needed for protein (inc haem) synthesis

in presence of thrombopoietin common myeloid progenitor -> megakaryoblast -> megakaryocyte -> platelets

in presence of colony stimulating factor common myeloid progenitor becomes myeloblast; then M-CSF to monocytes, G-CSF to granulocytes, GM-CSF to grans + monos, multi-CSF to grans, monos, and down the plat and RBC pathways; common myeloid progenitor can also form mast cells directly; monocytes give rise to macros and dendritic cells; there are also lymphoid dendritic cells derived from common lymphoid progenitor

haematopoietic progenitor stem cell can also form common lymphoid progenitor, and from this NK cells or lymphocyte precursor then B cells -> plasma cells, else T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

anemia causes

A

impaired production
- stem cells not differentiating or proliferating (aplastic anemia inc fanconi anemia, deficient EPO production in CKD)
-disturbance in maturation or prolif of erythroblasts (B12/folate def, anemia of prematurity, IDA, thalassemia, congenital dyserythropoietic anemia)
-otherwise impaired production (Myelodysplastic syndrome, anemia of chronic disease, displacement of marrow by tumour, fibrosis etc)

increased destruction
-haemolytic anemias

blood loss
-trauma, gynae loss, bleeding from malignancy in gut or bladder, hookworms whipworms schistosomes amoebiasis
-GI loss (ulcers, inflam, coeliac)

fluid overload

microcytic suggests production failure: IDA, thalassemia, sideroblastic think TAILS (thalassemia, anemia of chronic disease, IDA, lead poisoning, sideroblastic)
macrocytic incs megaloblastic if DNA synthesis impaired but RNA intact (b12/folate) whereas non-megaloblastic inc hypothyroid, liver disease inc alcohol, drugs that affect DNA replication like methotrexate, and consider multiple myeloma
normocytic usually acute blood loss, aplastic anemia, anemia of chronic disease, haemolytic, hypothyroid (AAAHH)

can also split normocytic into normal bone marrow (early IDA, CKD, chronic disease, hypothyroid, liver disease) or abnormal bone marrow (myelodysplasia, infiltration by leukaemia or myelofibrosis, hypoplastic/ aplastic anemia)
also consider haemorrhage and haemolysis

so microcytic do iron studies, fbc, U&Es, film, and if IDA confirmed then OGD + sigmoidoscopy; if not IDA then Hb electrophoresis esp if ethnic group incs risk of thalassemia
if normocytic U&Es, FBC and film, LFTs, TFTs, iron studies, LDH bili and haptoglobin (individually non-specific but in conjunction suggest haemolysis), B12 and folate, and consider DAT
if macrocytic then B12/folate, U&Es, TFTs, FBC and film, consider DAT, consider protein electrophoresis and myeloma screen, consider methylmalonic acid and homocysteine levels

further ix may inc abdo USS looking at spleen, and bone marrow trephine (if advised by haem)

also note mean cell haemoglobin concentration tells you if hypochromic or normochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

anemia diagnostic algorithm

A

if pt is anemic calculate reticulocyte production index, is <2% follow path A and >2% follow path B

path A
look at MCV, if microcytic look at iron studies and if all consistent with IDA then that is diagnosis; if they aren’t then is mentzer index (MCV/RBC count) <13, if yes then do haemoglobin electrophoresis for thalassemias and other haemoglobinopathies; if no then is eGFR 60 or more? if yes then does pt have chronic disease/inflam/malig? if yes then is transferrin receptor-ferritin index >1.5? if no anemia of chronic disease, if yes anemia of chronic disease with IDA; if no to chronic disease presence then on film histo are there ringed sideroblasts? if yes then sideroblastic anemia, if no then other bone marrow failure; if eGFR <60 then look for hypochromia or low transferrin saturation and ferritin levels -> if not present then CKD anemia, if present then IDA + pt has CKD

if normocytic then look at eGFR, if <60 proceed as above; if 60 or more then is there chronic inflam/malig/disease? if yes then as above, if no then look at iron studies and B12/folate, may be early/combined anemia related to those, if those are normal then bone marrow trephine for hypo/aplasia or infiltration (leukaemia, tumour)

if macrocytic then check B12/folate, if either low that is cause and replace; if borderline check homocysteine and MMA and if either high suggests b12 deficiency; if not deficient in either then is pt on meds that can cause? if no then get a blood film with histo, if round macrocytes then check for alcohol, liver disease, thyroid disease, if none present then there is bone marrow failure
if histo shows oval macrocytes then bone marrow trephine for MDS, if negative then will be other bone marrow failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pathway B for anemia algorithm

A

has pt been newly started on B12/folate/iron replacement? if yes suggests you’ve caught them at moment when treatment beginning to work but anaemia not yet resolved

if no, is haptoglobin low? (+LDH raised)? if no then anaemia is due to acute blood loss

if yes then haemolysis is confirmed: get blood film and check DAT; also get urine dip and microscopy to look for haemoglobinuria, to assess for risk of ATN

DAT positive then is IgG +ve and spherocytes in film? is so then warm haemolytic anemia; if instead CD3+ve and red cell agglutination on film then cold haemolytic anemia (and in babies consider blood group incompatibility)

if DAT negative then is mentzer index <13? is yes get haemoglobin electrophoresis for thalassemia, if no look at RBC morphology on film:

spherocytes can be due to burn injury, if no such injury present then check osmotic fragility test, if positive hereditary spherocytosis and proceed to genetic test, if no then if snakebite in history that is causing, if not then could be autoimmune as above or other rarer things

elliptocytes and stomatocytes should prompt genetic testing for their corresponding hereditary cytosis conditions

bite cells and heinz bodies: G6PD or enzyme in glutathione cycle (genetic testing)

sickle cells -> get Hb electrophoesis to confirm

if polychromasia induced by drugs or infection consider enzyme defect like PK deficiency, if no then is GPI ancho deficiency shown on flow cytometry? if yes then PNH, if no then liver/kidney disease or exercise induced haemolysis

unusual inclusions -> consider infection like malaria, bartonella

if basophillic stippling and lead levels raised then lead poisoning, if no then genetic enzyme problems

if schistocytes and helmet cells consider metal heart valves, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia triggered by malignant hypertension, haemolysis related to vasculitis, or thrombotic microangiopathies (HUS, TTP, HELLP, DIC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how many ml O2 in 100ml blood at diff sats (how many ml a 10% sats change is), hyperbaric O2 therapy, what paO2 and paCO2 should be, fundamental cause of normal and raised anion gap acidosis

A

100ml of blood binds 20.1ml of O2, as oxygen content of blood is 1.39 x hb conc x sats + dissolved (negligible); normal Hb conc is 15gHb per 100ml so fully saturated is 1.39 x 15
so sats of 90 contains 18.8ml, 80 is 16.6ml, 70 is 14.6ml etc (10% change is 2.1ml change)
dissolved oxygen is 0.003ml O2 per 100ml blood per mmHg paO2, so normally only 0.3mL O2 dissolved per 100ml so negligible

hyperbaric chamber for CO poisoning aims for 100-1000 paO2 which increases O2, up to max around 5ml per100ml blood aka 25% normal O2 delivery (plus some more as higher paO2 helps displace bound CO)

paO2 should be 10-13, paCO2 should be 4.7-6 - subtract 10 from fio2% to get predicted pao2

bicarb 22-28, BE -2-+2, anion gap10-18, lactate <2mmol/L
high base excess is metabolic alkalosis, low base excess is metabolic acidosis; raised anion gap is addition of acid eg DKA, normal anion gap is loss of bicarb eg diarrhoea, RTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

iron biochemistry (levels during day, transferrin saturation meaning, when transferrin reduced, best indicator of total body stores, zn protoporphyrin - 2 reasons higher)

A

normal adult serum level 10-40micromol/L, but can vary by 50% over 24hrs on circadian rhythm
transferrin saturation usually 30%, if falls to 20% or less then iron deficiency is likely
>50% suggests iron overload
transferrin/TIBC is increased in fe def anaemia and reduced during acute phase response, anemia of chronic disease, and during protein malnutrition
serum ferritin best indicator of total body stores and should be what you use to look for deficiency - conc normally >12microg/L, but increased in acute phase response so marginal deficiency cant be diagnosed off this in such states
zinc protoporphyrin expressed in micromol/ mol haem and usually <60, increases due to iron deficiency or lead exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

anaemia (3 main sx, when get pallor and cardiac sx, 2 main ix needed, 3 main categories)

A

SOB on exertion, tiredness, headaches
if Hg <90g/L will have pallour of mucosal membranes plus raised CO (tachycardia and sometimes a systolic murmur)
must have FBC, stained blood film
macrocytic is MCV >98fl, normocytic 78-98, microcytic <78

also note platelets normally ravel on the outside of the flow of blood near the endothelium. When you’re anaemic the platelets are less close to the endothelium. This is why bring anaemic can increase your chance of bleeding. aka the brazil nut effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

anaemia of chronic disease (inc ix results, pathophys, mx, 5 conditions associated)

A

normo or micro, haemo >90g/L, serum fe and total fe binding capacity down, so TIBC and transferrin down, but ferritin normal or raised; crp usually raised

il6 -> liver -> hepcidin; hepcidin decs fe absorpt across gut, also causes macros to sequester iron; il1/6 tnf, inf-g also reduce erythropoises by altering stromal and progenitor cells response to epo

treat the disease, can give recombinant epo
seen in many malignancies, connective tissue disorders like SLE and RA, hypo/hyperthryoidism cause, acute and chronic renal disease, liver diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

iron deficiency (3 common causes, 8 signs/sx, histo appearance, biochem picture, oral replacement inc s/e + how many mg a day, supplementing iron in infants when and why)

A

blood loss (inc heavy periods), malabsorption, insufficient intake (need more in pregnancy or menstruation)
as well as anaemia may get koilonychia, rigid brittle nails, angular stomatitis, glossitis, pica, hair thinning, pharyngeal web formation
hypochromic microcytic anaemia, poikilocytosis, anisocytosis, pencil cells, serum iron and ferritin low and transferrin (TIBC) raised
could test for blood loss (esp if not a menstruating age woman) inc urine dipstick, endoscopy
oral iron (ferrous sulphate) up to 3x daily before meals; other preparations inc ferrous fumarate (contains more iron), ferrous gluconate (less iron); can cause diarrhoea, constipation, nausea, abdo pain - you generally want 50-100(-200)mg elemental iron a day

note babies born with good iron stores, don’t use them up until 6mo -> from 6mo babies need iron supplement or foods/formula containing iron as breast milk alone doesn’t contain enough; after 1-2yo won’t need as long as theyre getting enough iron in their diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

investigating and treating iron def anaemia (how to confirm it, 6 things to check for in history, 4ix to consider, initial treatment (and what to do if not tolerated), why higher doses don’t work, how to monitor and what is an adequate response (+ what to do if inadequate), what to do after Hb and stores replenished, when to transfuse)

A

if suspect then confirm with iron studies

if IDA confirmed then you should assess in history for chronic overt blood loss (eg, nosebleeds, menstruation), blood donation, inadequate dietary intake, long-term NSAID or PPI usage and previous resectional or bypass surgery of the GI tract

you should do urinalysis and exclude coeliac disease; also do a FIT test to help determine whether 2ww; consider need for OGD and colonoscopy after risk assessment using verified tool

initial treatment of IDA should be with one tablet per day of ferrous sulphate, fumarate or gluconate. If not tolerated, a reduced dose of one tablet every other
day, alternative oral preparations or parenteral iron should be considered; aiming for 50-100mg elemental iron a day - higher or repeat doses ineffective as iron induces hepcidin release for next 24 hrs; if still not tolerated consider IV iron

patients should be monitored in the first 4 weeks for an Hb response to oral iron, and treatment should be continued for a period of around 3 months after normalisation of the Hb level, to ensure adequate repletion of the marrow iron stores; absence of an Hb rise of at least 10 g/L after 2 weeks of daily oral IRT (or 20g/L after 28 days) is strongly predictive of subsequent failure to achieve a sustained haematological response and should consider IV iron in these cases

After the restoration of Hb and iron stores with IRT, we recommend that the blood count should be monitored periodically (perhaps every 6 months initially) to detect recurrent IDA; if not restored after 3mo may need long term IRT

transfuse only if v anaemic (eg <70 Hb or <80 and cardio condition) + symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IV iron therapy - 6 contras, what else do you need to prescribe, requirement and how to split it, 5 times when to use Ganzoni formula

A

eg monofer

don’t give if: Known serious hypersensitivity to other parenteral iron products
* Non-iron deficiency anaemia (e.g. haemolytic anaemia)
* Iron overload or disturbances in utilisation of iron (e.g. haemochromatosis,
haemosiderosis)
* Decompensated liver disease
* First trimester of pregnancy
* Ongoing bacteraemia

can rarely cause hypersensitivity reactions so prescribe relevant PRNs

Determine patients cumulative iron need: generally if Hb >100 then 1g unless weight >70kg in which case 1.5g; 1.5g if Hb <100 unless >70kg in which case 2g

If the cumulative iron dose exceeds 20 mg iron/kg body weight, the dose must be split in two administrations with an interval of at least one week. It is recommended whenever possible to give 20 mg iron/kg body weight in the first administration

In patients who are likely to require individually adjusted dosing such as
patients with anorexia nervosa, cachexia, obesity, pregnancy or anaemia due to active bleeding the Ganzoni formula should be used
instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sideroblastic anaemia

A

ringed sideroblasts on marrow biopsy - iron granules form ring around the nucleus
can be congenital, often an x linked (so mostly affects males) deficiency in haem synthesis
often acquired as part of a myelodysplasia in which case may see leucopenia and thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

megaloblastic anaemia (causes (7:6), 4 features, 4 test results, treatment inc order)

A

B12 deficiency (vegans, pernicious anaemia (autoimmune gastritis with raised serum gastrin and serum Ig to IF or gastric parietal cells), gastrectomy, bacterial colonization of SI, ileal resection or crohns disease (as absorbed bound to IF in ileum), sometimes h pylori infection), atrophic gastritis

folate deficiency (poor dietary intake (exacerbated by pregnancy or haemolytic anaemia, malignancy, severe chronic inflam like IBD, RA, psoriasis etc), malabsorption, folate can be remobed by dialysis as only loosely bound to serum protein

features: gradual onset anaemia, mild jaundice (ineffective erythropoises), glossitis and angular stomatitis, B12 only causes symmetrical peripheral neuropathy (pyramidal tracts and subacute combined degen of the cord)

macrocytic anaemia with hypersegmented neutrophils, raised serum bilirubin and LDH, serum B12 and folate will be disturbed

injections of B12 and oral treatment for folate, correct B12 first as treating folate at same time may precipitate a drop in B12 and thus peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

haemolytic anaemia (common causes - inc 3 congen, 4 signs/sx, what can cause crisis, what you can get secondary, 5 test results)

A

many causes, some common ones: G6PD or PK deficiency, hereditary spherocytosis, secondary to SLE or eg certain infections eg malaria; prosthetic or stenosed heart valves can cause (esp if paravalvular leak after a graft which causes extra turbulence), DIC, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, mismatched transfusion
anaemia, jaundice, often splenomegaly and bone marrow expansion, parvovirus infection can precipitate aplastic crisis; can cause a folate deficiency anaemia secondary to the haemolysis
Hg normal or low, raised reticulocytes, altered red cell shape on blood film; low haptoglobin if intravascular haemolysis; unconj bili up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

microcytic anaemia (inc 5 sideroblast causes), 5 causes of normocytic anaemia

A

helpful mnemonic for understanding the causes of microcytic anaemia is TAILS.

T – Thalassaemia
A – Anaemia of chronic disease
I – Iron deficiency anaemia
L – Lead poisoning
S – Sideroblastic anaemia (congen, copper or B6 def, lead poisoning, zinc overdose, alcohol)

Normocytic Anaemia Causes
There are 3 As and 2 Hs for normocytic anaemia:

A – Acute blood loss
A – Anaemia of Chronic Disease
A – Aplastic Anaemia
H – Haemolytic Anaemia
H – Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

macrocytic anaemia (megalo + 5 other causes)

A

can be megaloblastic or normoblastic. Megaloblastic anaemia is the result of impaired DNA synthesis preventing the cell
from dividing normally. Rather than dividing it keeps growing into a larger, abnormal cell. This is caused by a vitamin deficiency.

Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by:

B12 deficiency
Folate deficiency

Normoblastic macrocytic anaemia is caused by:

Alcohol
Reticulocytosis (usually from haemolytic anaemia or blood loss)
Hypothyroidism
Liver disease
Drugs such as azathioprine
Myelodysplastic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pernicious anaemia - invest, treatments

A

Intrinsic factor antibody is the first line investigation
Gastric parietal cell antibody can also be tested but is less helpful
treated with 1mg of intramuscular hydroxycobalamin 3 times weekly for 2 weeks, then every 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

autoimmune haemolytic anaemia management (4 things)

A

Blood transfusions
Prednisolone (steroids)
Rituximab (a monoclonal antibody against B cells)
Splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

B12 def (9) and folate def (8) causes; microcytic but not iron def what could it be?

A

B12 def - vegans, pernicious, gastrectomy, atrophic gastritis, H pylori, ileal resection (crohns), SIBO, malnut; oval macrocytosis on histo
folate - dietary, coeliac/malabsorb, alcohol, liver disease, anticonvulsants, malignancy, inflam conditions, haemolytic anaemia

microcytic but not iron deficient (maybe accumulating iron) could be thalassaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

nitric oxide misuse (acute sx, chronic sx and pathophys inc the 2 things you dont make, sx, 3x ix, when admit, mx)

A

Acute exposure results in short-lived and reversible CNS effects including euphoria and sedation

Chronic N2O exposure results in dose-dependent inactivation of vitamin B12 - leading to demyelination and possible myelosuppression; inactivation as it oxidises the cobalt atom in vit B12, so B12 is not available as a coenzyme to convert homocysteine to methionine (increasing the homocysteine level) or methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl-CoA (increasing the MMA level). This interrupts methylation of myelin proteins, leading to instability of myelin sheaths and axonal loss

find sensory problems, sensory ataxia, dorsal column dysfunction, reduced limb power, reduced reflexes

may see macrocytic anaemia and bone marrow suppression; low B12 levels; demyelination on MRI - symmetrical T2 hyperintensities

admit if can’t walk or has neuro/haem sx

B12 1mg daily for 2 weeks then weekly for 4 weeks then monthly until recovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

haemolytic anaemia subdivisions (causes for each 7:11), biochem markers for each (3 same and 1 diff, how 2 of the same actually may differ)

A

either intravasc or extravasc; intra: DIC, TTP-HUS, HELLP, transfusion reaction, PNH, prosthetic valves;
extra inc autoimmune (warm (SLE,CLL, HL) or cold (mycoplasma etc)), intrinsic RBC defects (membrane defects, enzyme deficiencies, haemoglobinopathies),
malaria, wilsons, hypersplenism (eg portal hypertension), lead poisoning

both have decreased haptoglobin and increased LDH and unconj bili, but with extravasc haemoglobin doesnt escape into blood so no haemogloninaemia/uria

LDH may be up much higher in intravasc, and small amount of haemoglobinaemia/uria possible for extra; hapto may be even lower in intr than extr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ABO and Rh typing - forward and reverse grouping, crossmatch, DAT and indirect Coombs

A

reagents containing antibodies against the A, B, and RhD antigens are added to suspensions of blood cells. If the
relevant antigen is present, the antibodies in the reagent will cause the red blood cells to agglutinate (clump together), which can be
identified visually

In addition to identifying the ABO antigens, which is termed forward grouping, routine ABO blood typing also includes identification of
the ABO antibodies in the person’s plasma. This is called reverse grouping; person’s plasma is added to type A1 and type B red blood cells.
The plasma should agglutinate the cells that express antigens that the person lacks
prior to receiving a blood transfusion, individuals are screened for the presence of antibodies against antigens of non-ABO blood group
systems
Crossmatching, which is routinely performed before a blood transfusion, involves adding the recipient’s blood plasma to a sample of the
donor’s red blood cells. If the blood is incompatible, the antibodies in the recipient’s plasma will bind to antigens on the donor red
blood cells

direct Coombs test detects antibodies that are stuck to the surface of the red blood cells
used to test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia

blood sample is taken and the red blood cells are washed (removing the patient’s own plasma and unbound antibodies from the red blood cells
and then incubated with anti-human globulin (“Coombs reagent”). If the red cells then agglutinate, the direct Coombs test is positive

indirect Coombs test is used in prenatal testing of pregnant women and in testing prior to a blood transfusion. The test detects
antibodies against foreign red blood cells. In this case, serum is extracted from a blood sample taken from the patient. The serum is
incubated with foreign red blood cells of known antigenicity. Finally, anti-human globulin is added. If agglutination occurs, the indirect
Coombs test is positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

haematogenesis (+ life span of RBC)

A

long term HSC to short term HSC, which can become common lymphoid progenitor or common myeloid progenitor; latter can become granulocyte macrophage progenitor GMP, then baso/eosino/neutrophil+macro precursors, or megakaryocyte/erythrocyte progenitor MEP, then megakaryocyte or erythroid progenitor, last one then becoming RBC and being called erythroblasts (still nucleated) and reticulocytes (immature RBC which no longer has nucleus); RBCs typically live 120 days then are destroyed in spleen;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

paeds haematology physiology (where Hb production starts, when/how it switches x2,, physiological anaemia dates and causes, subunits in HbA and HbF and ratio in average child and at birth)

A

Hb production by 3rd week gestation, mostly in yolk sac

by month 3-4 liver takes over, and then by mo 6-7 bone marrow; at birth haematopoieses in all bones, reducing to mostly vert/ribs/sternum/pelvis as kid ages

neonates relatively polycythaemic, falls to lowest level (physiological anaemia) by 2-3mo, then rises

HbF (2a2g), by birth HbA (2a2b) is 20% with HbF the rest; HbF dissociation curve is to the left, ie v high affinity for O2
average child has 95% HbA, 2% HbF, 2% HbA2

physiological anaemia as great inc in paO2 at birth suppresses epo production for several weeks which then triggers more epo production as Hb reduces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

reticulocytes (what it causes, 3 reasons for low, 4 reasons for high)

A

causes polychromasia

if low number of retics and anaemic means bone marrow abnormal, or v shortly after episode causing acute anaemia so no time to respond, or retics being destroyed

high levels in haem anaem, acute severe bleed, remission of aplasia beginning, response to treatment of haematinic def

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

rouleaux

A

rows of stacked RBCs, caused by inflam or malig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

dimorphic blood film 3 causes

A

combo fe and B12/folate def
fe def and had blood transfusion
sideroblastic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

autoimmune haemolytic anaemia - general ix result, 2 things make warm type more likely (why), 7 causes of warm, 4 mx things; how to tell cold (and why), 4 causes, relative amount of haemolysis, 3 treatments, what is no use; PCH

A

normochromic w pos coombs

IgG coating, spherocytosis make warm antibody more likely (IgG pref agglut >37deg)
this form idiopathic 60% of the time, also underlying autoimmune disorders like RA, SLE, lymphoma, CLL, levo/methyldopa, penicillin
steroids treat, if no improvement then eg azathioprine; if chronic splenectomy; avoid transfusions

cold type is IgM (pref agglut <37deg), usually following mycoplasma or inf mono but also in SLE and some lymphomas; haemolysis tends to be milder
avoid cold, immunsup, warm transfusion; splenectomy no use

paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria associate with congen/acquired syphilis but also after viral gastroent, chickenpox, mumps, flu, adenovirus; IgG binds red cells in cooler parts of body and complement lyses in warmer parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

evans syndrome

A

rare autoimmune condition that presents with two or more cytopaenias, which commonly include warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA) and immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), with or without immune neutropenia

usually considered a disease of children and cause is unknown

ruling out common etiologies such as cold agglutinin disease, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) through careful evaluation of the peripheral blood smear, infectious causes (such as HIV, Hepatitis C), other autoimmune conditions and malignancies are required before the diagnosis of Evans syndrome can be made

transfusion, steroids, IVIg
Rituximab or splenectomy may be considered in those refractory to the standard treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

G6PD inheritance, path/mx

A

inherited x linked recessive

hexose monophos pathway (aka pentose phosphate pathway) produces reducing power for cell in form of NADPH
this maintains glutathione in reduced state, G6PD absence thus means less reduced glutathione so cross-linking of spectrin (incg rbc rigidity) and haem oxy to methaem giving heinz body precip; both effects lead to haemolysis

assay for g6pd enzyme is diagnostic; repeat if normal but in crisis as retic production and haem of mature cells can give false neg

treat infection/remove drug trigger, blood transfusion; splenectomy usually no use (unlike hered spher)

pyruvate kinase def secon most common, inherited AR, also exacerbate by stress/infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

tell ABO incompatibility from rh incomp (chromosome location, timing, 2 ix, which is milder)

A

ABO is cr9, rh is cr1
rh doesnt happen in first preg, ABO can
direct coombs neg or weakly pos for ABO and strongly pos for rh
blood film shows microspherocytes and reticulocytosis for ABO, only latter for rh
ABO haemolysis usually milder than rh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

sites of absorption for fe, B12, folate; how long B12 and folate stores last; causes in kids (fe 3, B12 3, folate 1 rare 2 common), 4 things caused by B12/folate def

A

fe protonated in stomach then absorbed in duodenum and jejunum; B12 combined with IF in stomach (made by parietal cells) then absorbed in terminal ileum, folate absorbed unchanged in duodenum and jejunum
B12 stores last 3-4 years, folate stores last 3-4 months

causes: fe bleeds esp GI, inadequate intake (premie infants may get at 6-12mo, also see in bottle fed babies, late weaning etc), malabsorption; B12 inadequate intake (vegan), malabsorption (inc pernicious anaemia); folate reduced intake rare in kids, inc’d utilisation eg pregnancy/chronic haem anaem, antifolate drugs (phenytoin, methotrxate)

B12 and folate def cause macro anaemia, hyperseg neutrophils, leucopenia (so more infections), thrombocytopenia (bleeding tendency); B12 also neuro signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

schilling test

A

saturate storage sites with B12 im injection, then oral radiolabelled B12 -> will be secreted in urine as storage sites full, so collect urine for 24hrs and should see 10-30% secreted; reduced excretion means reduced absorption
then give same labelled B12 but w intrinsic factor, if excretion improves then if production problem and if no increase then ileal problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

4 sources of lab biochem errors and what they look like

A

blood kept for long time before sending to lab - K, phos, AST up as leak through RBC membrane

blood haemolysed after diff venesection - raised K, phos, AST

prolonged venous stasis during venesection - high plasma Ca, protein fractions, T4, K, phos due to inc’d hydrostatic pressures forcing fluid/electrolytes out of vasc compartment but leaving larger molecules like proteins and ions bound to those

taking blood from arm with infusion running into it - all concs more dilute and glucose, Na, K may mirror what is in infusion fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

physiologic anaemia of infancy

A

Physiologic anaemia of infancy causes most cases of anaemia in infancy
- a normal dip in haemoglobin around six to nine weeks of age in healthy term babies. High oxygen delivery to the tissues caused by the high
haemoglobin levels at birth cause negative feedback. Production of erythropoietin by the kidneys is suppressed and subsequently there is reduced production of haemoglobin by the bone marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

G6PD def (inheritance inc 3 common ethnicities, 3 triggers, what you see on the film, diagnosis, 6 causes for one of the 3 triggers)

A

more common in Mediterranean, Middle Eastern and African patients. It is inherited in an X linked recessive pattern, meaning it usually affects males, as they have only a single copy of the gene on their single X chromosome.

It causes crises that are triggered by infections, medications or fava beans (broad beans). Can get gallstones

Heinz bodies may be seen on a on blood film. Heinz bodies are blobs of denatured haemoglobin (“inclusions”) seen within the red blood cells

Diagnosis can be made by doing a G6PD enzyme assay
Medications that trigger haemolysis and should be avoided include:

Primaquine (an antimalarial)
Ciprofloxacin
Nitrofurantoin
Trimethoprim
Sulfonylureas (e.g gliclazide)
Sulfasalazine and other sulphonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

hereditary spherocytosis, when to suspect (4 things in classic pt), genetic pattern, what is often in history, dx, acute presentation form, possible other complication

A

caucasian child w negative coombs test but haem anaem and splenomeg
AD, splenomeg absent in 20% cases

half cases have history of neonatal jaundice

diagnose from film

may present in aplastic crisis if infected w erythrovirus B19 (aka parvovirus B19), just like sickle cell

if said child devs abdo pain (poss rec) consider pigment gallstones (biliary colic, maybe cholecystitis) - uss will confirm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Hb electrophoresis - general appearance of bands, what you see in sickle cell (+trait), sickle cell beta+thal, sickle cell B0 thal, sickle SC, B thal major, B thal minor; when to consider A thal and how to diagnose it

A

bands labelled with Hb type, width corresponds to proportion of that type

sickle cell: no HbA, high HbF (10%), vast majority HbS

sickle cell trait: mix of HbS and HbA w no HbF

Sickle cell beta+thal variant is some of HbS/A/F/A2, sickle bell B0 thal is HbS/F/A2; sickle SC disease 50:50 HbS/HbC

in sickle cell MCV is normal so if lots of HbS + microcytic consider a thal variant as above

B thal major is HbF 90%, some HbA2
b thal minor is 4-7%HbA2, 1-3% HbF, rest HbA

if microcytic anaemia w normal iron studies and Hb electrophoresis then consider a thal, diagnosed by specific genetic tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

alpha thalassaemia (just the 4 gene possibilities and results of each)

A

all 4 inactive gives hydrops foetalis, in utero death; 3 inactive gives HbH disease with marked microcytic hypochromic anaemia Hb 60-110 with splenomegaly

a thalassaemia trait if 1-2 inactive gives microcytic hypochromic red cells, raised red cell count; if 2 deleted may get mild anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

beta thalassaemia (inc cause, sx, 3 types mx)

A

major if inherit from each parent a deficient B causing excess A chains; anaemia starting from 3-6mo (up to 4yr if mild) with mild jaundice, pallor, failure to thrive; organomegaly; hypochromic, microcytic, severe anaemia Hg 20-60 g/L; needs regular transfusion; iron chelation therapy with desferrioxamine

thalassaemia intermedia: milder with less severe anaemia needing few or no transfusions

beta thalassaemia trait: mild microcyctic anaemia, raised red cell count, raised Hb a2 level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

sickle cell disease (aa path, 4 triggers of crisis, 6 places it can precipitate + effect, cause of aplastic crisis, 2x concurrent problems, 5 things you can get chronically, why anaemia sx usually mild, 4 vaccines, 2 meds you might need to take)

A

valine sub for glutamic acid in beta chain, so insoluble in deoxy state and crystallises
like other chronic haemolytic anaemia but with crises: infection, dehydration, acidosis, deoxygenation

deposits of sickled cells can cause ischaemia and infarction giving abdo pain, pain in back/pelvis/ribs/long bones (or fingers - dactylitis), in CNS giving a stroke or fits, in lungs (acute chest syndrome), spleen, kidneys

B19 parvovirus gives aplastic crisis which is okay in healthy people but if reduced rbc survival due to eg sickle cell you get rapid acute severe anaemia needing a blood transfusion; inc’d utilization can lead to concurrent folate deficiency anaemia
splenic function reduced so inc’d susceptibility to pneumococcal infections (pneumonia, menigitis) plus other types

may get avascular necrosis of bones, chronic leg ulcers, pulmonary hypertension, cardiomyopathy, renal pap necrosis (inc’d risk of dehydration alongside polyuria)
Hb is 70-90 but anaemia symptoms usually mild as Hb-S O2 dis curve shifted to right; blood film will show sickle cells

pneumococcal, H influenzae, flu, meningococcal vaccines, folate, if splenic atrophy then oral penicillin indefinitely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

thalassaemia (effect on spleen and bone, diagnosis and how you get iron overload (3 reasons, what it looks like, monitoring and 2x treatment strats), types and management inc what Cr alpha globin gene on, 5x mx for alpha thal)

A

red blood cells are more fragile and break down more easily. The spleen acts as a sieve to filter the blood and remove older blood cells. In thalassaemia the spleen collects all the destroyed red blood cells and swells, resulting in splenomegaly.

The bone marrow expands to produce extra red blood cells to compensate for the chronic anaemia. This causes a susceptibility to fractures and prominent features such as a pronounced forehead and malar eminences (cheekbones).

Haemoglobin electrophoresis is used to diagnose globin abnormalities.
DNA testing can be used to look for the genetic abnormality

Iron overload occurs in thalassaemia as a result of faulty creation of red blood cells, recurrent transfusions and increased absorption of iron in response to the anaemia.

Patients with thalassaemia have serum ferritin levels monitored to check for iron overload. Management involves limiting transfusions and iron chelation.

Iron overload in thalassaemia causes effects similar to haemochromatosis

Alpha-thalassaemia is caused by defects in alpha-globin chains. The gene coding for this protein is on chromosome 16. 1 chain defect silent carrier, 2 chain defect a thal trait minor and dont need treatment, 3 chain defect HbH disease symptoms and needs treatment 4 copies Barts hydrops fatal

Management:

Monitoring the full blood count
Monitoring for complications
Blood transfusions
Splenectomy may be performed
Bone marrow transplant can be curative

Beta thalassaemia minor causes a mild microcytic anaemia and usually patients only require monitoring
beta thalassaemia intermedia have two abnormal copies of the beta-globin gene. This can be either two defective genes or one defective gene and one deletion gene.

Thalassaemia intermedica causes a more significant microcytic anaemia and patients require monitoring and occasional blood transfusions.
If they need more transfusions they may require iron chelation eg desferrioxamine

beta thalassaemia major are homozygous for the deletion genes. They have no functioning beta-globin genes at all. This is the most severe form and usually presents with severe anaemia and failure to thrive in early childhood.

Thalassaemia major causes:

Severe microcytic anaemia
Splenomegaly
Bone deformities

Management involves regular transfusions, iron chelation and splenectomy. Bone marrow transplant can potentially be curative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

abdo pain + anaemia (7)

A

sickle cell disease, lead poisoning, G6PD, bleeding GI, vasculitis eg HSP, chronic GI disease eg crohns, pigmented gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

sickle cell pathology; sideroblastic anaemia appearance and causes

A

sickle pathology: polar amino acid glutamate is substituted by non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6). This decreases
the water solubility of deoxy-Hb in the deoxygenated state the HbS molecules polymerise and cause RBCs to sickle
sickle cells are fragile and haemolyse; they block small blood vessels and cause infarction

sideroblastic anaemia: a microcytic anaemia w/o iron def, w basophilic stippling, ringed sideroblasts; congen, or alcohol/lead/TB meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

sickle cell (investigation, 10 symptoms/complications, long term management - 6 things)

A

mutation in beta chain
have an abnormal variant called haemoglobin S (HbS) - shows on Hb variant screen (electrophoresis)

Anaemia
Increased risk of infection
Stroke
Avascular necrosis in large joints such as the hip
Pulmonary hypertension
Painful and persistent penile erection (priapism)
Chronic kidney disease - esp left kidney, may have pap necrosis, renal infarction
Retinopathy
Sickle cell crises
Acute chest syndrome

Avoid dehydration and other triggers of crises
Ensure vaccines are up to date
Antibiotic prophylaxis to protect against infection with penicillin V (phenoxymethypenicillin) in vulnerable pts
- at risk of encapsulated organisms due to hyposplenism
Hydroxycarbamide can be used to stimulate production of fetal haemoglobin (HbF). Fetal haemoglobin does not lead to sickling of red blood cells. This has a protective effect against sickle cell crises and acute chest syndrome.
Exchange transfusion for severe anaemia
Bone marrow allograft from siblings can be curative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

sickle cell crises (4 types inc cause, sx, mx)

A

Vaso-occlusive crisis is caused by the sickle shaped blood cells clogging capillaries causing distal ischaemia. It is associated with dehydration and raised haematocrit. Symptoms are typically pain, fever and those of the triggering infection; keep O2 sats >94%, keep hydrated, give adequate analgesia (may need PCA morphine)

Splenic sequestration crisis is caused by red blood cells blocking blood flow within the spleen. This causes an acutely enlarged and painful spleen. The pooling of blood in the spleen can lead to a severe anaemia and circulatory collapse (hypovolaemic shock).

Splenic sequestration crisis is considered an emergency. Management is supportive with blood transfusions and fluid resuscitation to treat anaemia and shock. Splenectomy prevents sequestration crisis and is often used in cases of recurrent crises

Aplastic crisis describes a situation where there is a temporary loss of the creation of new blood cells. This is most commonly triggered by infection with parvovirus B19

diagnosis of acute chest syndrome requires:

Fever or respiratory symptoms with
New infiltrates seen on a chest xray

This can be due to infection (e.g. pneumonia or bronchiolitis) or non-infective causes (e.g. pulmonary vaso-occlusion or fat emboli).

Is a medical emergency with a high mortality and requires prompt supportive management and treatment of the underlying cause:

Antibiotics or antivirals for infections
Blood transfusions for anaemia
NIV/ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

beta thal trait vs fe def anemia - besides haematinics and Hb electrophoresis, 3 other diffs

A

beta thal has disprop low MCV (50-60 usually), red cell count usually raised in b thal and lower in fe def, RDW v high in fe def but normal in beta thal; Hb electrophoresis to confirm if unsure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

diamond-blackfan syndrome (4 signs, what the anamia is like and retic count + HbF, what bone marrow biopsy shows, 3x mx), transient erythroblastopenia of infancy

A

pure red cell aplasia 90% present before 1yo, generally congen
may see short stature, web neck, cleft lip, triphalangeal thumb (or other physical dev problems)
anaemia is normo/macrocytic w low retics, HbF will be elevated; bone marrow will show absent rbc precursors
steroids, if insufficient response then regular transfusions; bone marrow transplant in some

also transient erythroblastopenia of infancy is similar but self limiting, presents a bit later, no HbF and normal phenotype, will be preceded by viral illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

19 ways in which sickle cell anaem can present

A

chronic haem anaemia

hand/foot syndrome - usually toddles, recu pain + swelling oft w fever

bone pain/dactylitis

chest pain (may be pleuritic)

priapism

renal pap necrosis (loss of conc ability so polyuria/enuresis, long term CKD)

abdo pain (spleen/liver may infarct or may be pigment gallstones)

infection (oft encapsulated)

osteomyelitis

chronic leg ulcers

CVA (hemiplegia, cranial nerve palsies)

pulmonary HTN

splenic sequestration syndrome

aseptic necrosis of fem head

growth problems/delayed puberty

acute chest syndrome

aplastic crisis (oft provoked by erythrovirus B19 and lasting 2-3 weeks)

heart failure - cardiomyopathy, pulm HTN

blindness sec to retinal infarction/detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

2 ix for diagnosis; 5 mx for acute sickle cell; exchange transfusion 2 reasons for and 6 problems of this; 6 chronic mx

A

ix: blood film, Hb electrophoresis

mx: fluids, analgesics - may need PCA, O2 keep sats >94%, abx empirically; transfusions in limited cases

exchange transfusion with life threatening acute chest syndrome or CVA; note stored blood 2,3DPG levels low which means reduced O2 delivering capacity; also risks of exchange transfusion inc hyperkal, hypocalc, hypotherm, heart failure, acidosis

chronic mx: folate, penicillinV proph, pneumo vax after 2yo, parental education (keep child well hydrated, recognise crises etc), genetic counselling, possibly bone marrow transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

sickle cell paeds general mx in CAU

A

unusual now to make a new diagnosis of major haemoglobinopathy such as SCD in
anyone other than a child who was not part of the screening programme eg. born abroad or much older child. Haemoglobinopathy screening should be considered when the child’s status is not known, when they present with features of SCD, prior to an operation or if the
appearance of their blood count suggests a haemoglobinopathy

Criteria for Admission
* Agonising pain (ie. unresponsive to analgesics at home/ requiring opiates)
* Increased pallor, breathlessness or exhaustion
* Marked pyrexia > 38.5 o
C (especially when with signs of sepsis)
* Chest pain (especially when with signs of lung consolidation)
* Abdominal pain or distension (including diarrhoea or vomiting)
* Sequestration
* Severe thoracic / back pain
* Headache, drowsiness, CVA, TIA or any abnormal CNS signs
* Priapism (> 2 hours)

Blood tests may be avoided if all the following criteria are fulfilled -
* A simple painful (VOC) crisis
* Blood tests done in the hospital in the last 12 months
* Non febrile
* Not hypoxic (SaO2 = clinic values)
* No signs of infection
* Looks well
However if the child does not fulfil these criteria, then perform the following tests:
* Full blood count (FBC) and reticulocytes (retics)
* Group and save and antibody screen
* Haemoglobin (Hb) electrophoresis (measures % HbS / F / A) only if
- recently transfused
- if Hb F% levels not known
* Urea and electrolytes (U+Es)
* Creatinine
* Liver Function Test (LFTs)
* Bone profile
* C-reactive protein (CRP)
* Urine dipstick and MC&S

culture as appropriate, CXR if chest sx, CTH if stroke sx, consider ABG if SpO2 <90%, atypical pneumonia screen depending on CXR, abdo USS if gallstones or spleen problem, serology for Parvovirus B19 IgM if fall in Hb with low retics
ECG if cardiac pain
Amylase if abdo sx
Screen stool for Yersinia and serum for Yersinia antibodies if patient on desferrioaxamine

X-rays of bones and joints show little or no change in the first week of an acute illness
and rarely differentiate between infarction and infection. Ultrasound should be
considered for suspected osteomyelitis, MRI also has a role. X-rays can be useful in
confirming avascular necrosis as a cause of joint / referred pain

aim of treatment is to break the vicious ‘sickling‘ cycle
->hypoxia & acidosis -> more sickling -> all of which are exacerbated by dehydration
* This is best achieved by:
a. Hydration
b. Oxygenation
c. Prompt and adequate analgesia (pain relief)
d. Early and prompt treatment of infection
e. Identification and treatment of any complications

assess for dehydration, strict fluid I/O and hyper-hydration, with 1.5 litres / m2
/ day - PO where possible, IV if severe pain or abdo sx (careful also not to overload pt)
Blood U+Es and creatinine should be regularly monitored
Note that a slightly raised urea is significant, as these children normally have a low blood urea

Give O2 aiming SpO2 >95% if desat while SVIA or any chest/abdo sx

Patients who are admitted with uncomplicated painful VOC without specific evidence of infection should continue Penicillin V prophylaxis - if infection suspected stop it and start ceftriaxone (co-amox PO alternative), with azithromycin if any chest signs or abnormal CXR

Venous Thrombo Embolism (VTE) prophlylaxis is recommended in all children who are pubertal or over 11 years of age.

If there are no indications for admission, can be discharged with:
* A supply of oral analgesia
* Instructions to drink 1.5L / m2 / day

Mild pain gets PO paracetamol, if moderate (pain score 2) or didn’t respond then regular ibuprofen or diclofenac and if >12yo codeine/dihydrocodeine; if pain still not controlled or pain score 3 then above measures + STAT intranasal diamorphine 100mcg/kg and STAT oramorph 400mcg/kg, reassess after 30min to 1hr: rpt opioid if still in pain otherwise continue managing as moderate but with PRN oramorph, reassess after another 30-60 mins and can give one more oramorph if no resp depression but also need to contact pain team and set up PCA at this point or if <6yo consider opioid infusion; PCA fentanyl a later stage option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

sickle cell paeds - initial presentation and long term mx

A

New patients seen for full history and initial assessment by a consultant with sickle cell knowledge
On initial presentation they must be prescribed PenV and folic acid and take both regularly

Well children with SCD are seen 3-6 monthly until 2 years of age and 6 monthly until their
5th birthday and annually thereafter
It is essential that all children with sickle cell disease take penicillin twice daily continuously (or clarithromycin, if penicillin allergic), starting by the age of 3 months

Children should be vaccinated as per the UK vaccination schedule; Pneumovax is given to children with sickle cell disease over the age of two years and five yearly thereafter, for life

Chelation therapy should commence after a child has received 15-20 transfusions or
when the ferritin reaches >1000 µg/l; Desferrioxamine is the chelator of choice. Desferrioxamine has a detrimental effect on
skeletal growth so treatment should be deferred until the age of 2 unless iron overload is particularly severe; Abdominal pain or diarrhoea may indicate infection with Yersinia (stop Desfer, admit, discuss with microbiology consultant)

Hydroxyurea if:
Patients with repeated severe pain episodes ( > 3 admissions to hospital per year).
Frequent severe pain episodes managed at home ( sufficient severity to interfere with
school and quality of life)
More than two chest crises or one chest syndrome requiring ventilatory support (PICU
admission)
Severe symptomatic anaemia

It:
Increases in MCV & RBC water content reducing the sickling process.
Increases HbF levels and reticulocytes
Increases the haemoglobin level by 10-20 g/L
Reduces inflammation

Needs FBC check every 2 weeks for the first 2 months or after dose increase, then every 8
weeks thereafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

sickle cell paeds managing specific complications

A

Reassurance - give the patient the assurance that their pain will be relieved
as soon as possible
Distraction
* Heat pads / warmth
* Establishing a position of maximum comfort

limb/joint pain usually due to VOC crisis but the possibility of osteomyelitis or septic
arthritis needs to be considered (If febrile, start IV antibiotics (Ceftriaxone) after cultures taken making sure to discuss with onc call consultant before aspirating joint, if temperature fails to respond to antibiotics after 48-72hrs repeat blood cultures, ESR, CRP, and consider ultrasound scan or MRI)

abdo problems may inc constipation (common esp if having opioids), abdominal crisis characterised by abdominal distension, generalised abdominal
tenderness but no rebound tenderness and diminished bowel sounds, and girdle syndrome haracterised by an established ileus, with vomiting, a silent distended abdomen and distended bowel loops and fluid levels on abdominal x-ray - this latter group may need NBM, NGT, IVF; Girdle syndrome is an indication for exchange transfusion; also consider all usual causes of abdo pain and start incentive spirometry

chest syndrome:
Care should be taken with opiate administration in any type of crisis, as over sedation may result in hypoventilation, atelectasis and worsening hypoxia precipitating a chest crisis
Needs urgent senior r/v, O2 +/- high flow or CPAP, analgesia, incentive spirometry, abx, continuous SpO2 monitoring in HDU, may need transfusion or even exchange trans

stroke needs urgent exchange transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

acute intermittent porphyria

A

autosomal dominant disorder of heme biosynthesis due to mutations in the porphobilinogen deaminase gene

predisposes heterozygous patients to life-threatening acute neurovisceral attacks that are precipitated by various factors, including porphyrinogenic drugs (e.g., P450 inducers), alcohol, infection (eg preceding resp infection or fever), stress, prolonged fasting and chronic under nutrition, and steroid hormones. These factors induce the synthesis of aminolevulinic acid synthase 1 (ALAS1), the first and rate-limiting enzyme in the heme biosynthetic pathway. When hepatic ALAS1 is induced, the partial PD enzyme deficiency becomes limiting, resulting in the marked accumulation of the neurotoxic porphyrin precursors, aminolevulinic acid (ALA), and porphobilinogen (PBG)

most common clinical presentation of an acute porphyric attack is severe abdominal pain, accompanied by vomiting, constipation, and abdominal distention, which can masquerade as an acute abdomen. Behavioural changes such as irritability, insomnia, emotional lability and hypertension and tachycardia due to sympathetic over-activity are important clues for the diagnosis; hyponatremia often occurs during severe attacks (SIADH picture) and can lead to seizures or an altered sensorium or even coma. The acute onset of progressive limb weakness due to motor axonopathy accompanied by myalgia can be extremely debilitating for patients. If these symptoms are not recognized and treated early, they can lead to residual morbidity and mortality due to bulbar and respiratory muscle paralysis

attacks classically present with dark-red photosensitive urine

Physical examination is usually unremarkable initially, later reduced tendon reflexes and weakness are present, and patients may lie in the foetal position in response to extreme pain and debility

urinalysis shows elevated urine porphobilinogen which confirms diagnosis of AIP, hereditary coproporphyria (HCP), or variegate porphyria (VP). A positive test should be indicated with an increase of five times normal, not just a slight increase which can occur with dehydration. To distinguish between AIP from HCP and VP, fecal porphyrin levels are normal in AIP but elevated in HCP and VP

discontinue trigger, give dextrose infusion, haematin treats the attack itself, opioids +/- neuropathic analgesia eg gabapentin; seizures may end with BZDs, and be careful which AED used if started as many induce CYP and so can trigger/exacerbate attack

Elevation of aminolevulinic acid from lead-induced disruption of heme synthesis results in lead poisoning having symptoms similar to acute porphyria so this is a ddx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

major haemorrhage (what is the primary important parameter that falls, what is its proxy, when bp changes, 3 things that prevent compensation, where to look for bleeding, what to give, interpreting thromboelastogram, 3x definitions for major haem)

A

blood loss -> msfp down (“underfilled”), so VR and CO down
central venous pressure is proxy for msfp

can lose 15-20% of blood volume w/o seeing BP change (unless eg old, on beta blockers or have autonomic dysfunction etc so system cant compensate for hypovolaemia)

blood on the floor and 3 more (thorax, abdo/pelvis, long bones)

acute coagulopathy of trauma shock due to hyperfibrinolysis (so give tranexamic acid 1g after compression/tourniquets/splints etc)

giving fluids alone is futile -> ongoing haemorrhage needs surgical control fast

in resus room: massive transfusion protocol (immediate oneg prc/ffp via rapid transfuser 1:1 ratio) and 1g tranexamic acid infusion over 8 hours; whole body CT to find bleeding (exploratory lap if not stable enough)

flat bit of thromboelastogram is coag factors; then like sideways wide glass, hypercoaguable if wide glass; long stem and narrow glass is hypocoagulable

Major haemorrhage is variously defined as:

Loss of more than one blood volume within 24 hours (around 70 mL/kg, >5 litres in a 70 kg adult)
50% of total blood volume lost in less than 3 hours
Bleeding in excess of 150 mL/minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

transfusion threshold -rbcs (3 reasons you might not stick to threshold, what the usual threshold and targets are, 2 things to check after each unit is transfused)

A

Use restrictive red blood cell transfusion thresholds for patients who need red blood cell transfusions and who do not:
* have major haemorrhage or
* have acute coronary syndrome or
* need regular blood transfusions for chronic anaemia.

When using a restrictive red blood cell transfusion threshold, consider a threshold of 70 g/litre and a haemoglobin concentration target of 70–90 g/litre after transfusion.
Consider a red blood cell transfusion threshold of 80 g/litre and a haemoglobin concentration target of 80–100 g/litre after transfusion for patients with acute coronary syndrome

after each single unit transfusion check clinical status and Hb level

after 3 units check iCal level and consider giving Ca IV, as each bag of red cells contains citrate to stop coagulation, and this take a while to metabolise esp in ppl with liver failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

transfusion reactions (coagulopathy and how managed, 2x electrolyte abnorms, hypotherm, acute haem reaction, TACO, TRALI, mild/strong allergy, non-hae febrile reaction, 6x transfuion infections, GvHD, iron overload)

A

transfusion reactions: Clotting abnormalities can occur due to a dilution effect, as the packed red cells transfused do not contain any platelets or clotting factors. Specific conditions like trauma also in themselves can cause coagulopathy. Also risk of hypocalcemia due to citrate in the pRBCs causing coagulopathy

To reduce the risk of any clotting impairment, fresh frozen plasma and platelets should be administered concurrently, typically done for patients receiving more than 4 units RBCs*. Also consider IV Ca (at least check iCal)

two main electrolyte abnormalities that can occur in blood transfusions:
Hypocalcaemia – Chelation of calcium by the calcium binding agent in the preservative results in a reduced serum calcium level
Hyperkalaemia – Due to the (inevitable) partial haemolysis of the red blood cells and the resultant release of intracellular potassium

As blood products are thawed from frozen and then kept at cool temperatures, they may not be up to body temperature by time of transfusion, especially in a major haemorrhage protocol scenario. Rapid transfusion of these products can lead to a drop in the patient’s core temperature, hence regular monitoring of core body temperature is always required during a blood product transfusion.

transfusion-specific complications can be divided into acute and delayed complications
Acute haemolytic reaction (ABO Incompatibility) is a serious reaction caused by transfusion of the incorrect blood type, the most common cause being ABO blood group incompatibility. Donor red blood cells are destroyed by the recipient’s preformed antibodies, resulting in haemolysis.

Patients will present with urticaria, hypotension, and fever, and may have evidence of haemoglobinuria from the rapid haemolysis. Blood tests will show a reduced Hb, a low serum haptoglobin, and high LDH and bilirubin; a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) will confirm the diagnosis.

Urgently inform blood bank that you suspect this has happened, as they may have dispensed further incorrect blood. Stop the transfusion and begin supportive measures, with fluid resuscitation and O2 supplementation

Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO) presents with dyspnoea and features of fluid overload. This is often a common problem in those who are already overloaded, such as those with cardiac failure.

Obtain an urgent chest radiograph, and for those whose diagnosis is confirmed, treatment is via oxygen and diuretic therapy

TRALI: a form of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), a non-cardiogenic cause of pulmonary oedema. Patients are dyspnoeic and have features of pulmonary oedema on clinical examination.

These patients have a high mortality. Start patients on high flow oxygen and obtain an urgent chest radiograph

Other Complications

Mild Allergic Reaction – The patient will complain of pruritus (itching). Treatment is with an anti-histamine such as chlorphenamine. Often the transfusion can be continued, however the patient should be kept under close observation.
Non-Haemolytic Febrile Reactions – An unpleasant, but usually non-life threatening reaction found in 1-2% of patients. The transfusion should be stopped and the patient given antipyretics (e.g. paracetamol) and anti-histamines (e.g. chlorphenamine).
Anaphylaxis – Presents with hypotension in the presence of anaphylactic symptoms. Stop the transfusion and treat as you would normally for anaphylaxis.

delayed: Infection – There is a theoretical risk of developing any of Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, HIV, syphilis, malaria, or vCJD with any blood transfusion. Fortunately, these are less of a concern in recent years due to screening of blood donors
Graft vs. Host Disease (GvHD) – GvHD occurs due to an HLA-mismatch between donor and recipient. It is most common in the transfusion of non-irradiated blood products to an immunocompromised recipient. Clinical features include a fever, skin involvement (ranging from macropapular rash to toxic epidermal necrolysis - often how it begins) and diarrhoea and vomiting; may also present acutely esp in allogeneic bone marrow transplants (hence importance of HLA matching), and have abdo pain
Iron overload – Most common in patients that receive repeated transfusions, such as in thalassaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

blood transfusion special requirements - purpose of irradiation, 3 things to irradiate, 2 not to, 10 pts who need, 6 who don’t

A

irradiated (like leucodepleted but better) is needed to prevent graft versus host disease

Products requiring irradiation: Red cells, platelets, granulocytes.
Products not requiring irradiation: plasma components – FFP, cryoprecipitate

if hodgkins lymphoma, bone marrow/HSC transplant, treatment with certain haemat chemo agents, congen immunodef, CAR-T cell therapy, alemtuzumab, aplastic anaemia with ATG treatment, any transfusion from 1st/2nd deg relative, intrauterine, neonate needing exchange transfusion

don’t normally need for NHL, leukaemia (unless on those chemo drugs), solid tumours, organ transplants, HIV or other acquired immunodef, aplastic anaemia (unless ATG treatment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

passenger lymphocyte syndrome

A

an immune mediated haemolysis that can occur following ABO (or misc other antigens) mismatched solid organ transplantation

Occurs when viable lymphocytes from the donor are transferred to recipient and make antibodies that can cause haemolysis

Anaemia induced by PLS is usually abrupt in onset; associated with a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

transfusing the pt may not improve the anaemia - need blood that matches donor antigen too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

polycythaemia vebra -path (inc genetic), age + 7sx, spleen size, differentiating from other causes of polycythaemia,3 ix (inc Hb levels), 6 mx

A

bone marrow eryththropoises up and serum epo low with jak2 mutation often present amplifying epo proliferative role

usually people >55yo, ruddy complexion and conjunctival suffusion, symptoms of hyperviscosity (and this plus raised platelets incs risk for DVT, PE, stroke etc) inc headaches, blurred vision etc
more basophils, more histamine, thus more gastric acid secretion and ulcers freq, also more itching, esp after hot bath

enlarged spleen in 75% causes and distinguishes disease from other causes of polycythaemia (also for many other causes epo would be up with or w/o paO2 altering)

FBC and film (Hb >185 in men, >165 in women), abdo US to assess spleen and look for renal causes of erythrocytosis, bone marrow biopsy

venesection is primary treatment, hydroxycarbamide or interferons may be started by a specialist, aspirin, chemo, PPI; antihistamines may help itching

61
Q

myeloprolif disorders (3 types, what can complicate (3 sx of this), findings on FBC/film for each of the three; mx (esp for vera)

A

due to uncontrolled proliferation of a single type of stem cell. They are considered a type of bone marrow cancer.

The three myeloproliferative disorders to remember are:

Primary myelofibrosis
Polycythaemia vera
Essential thrombocythaemia

Primary myelofibrosis is the result of proliferation of the hematopoietic stem cells. Polycythaemia vera is the result of proliferation of the erythroid cell line. Essential thrombocythaemia is the result of proliferation of the megakaryocytic cell line.

all can transition into AML (1-4% per year ET, 12% overall from myelofibrosis): B symptoms, anaemia, organomegaly (extramedullary haemat)

Polycythaemia Vera:

Raised haemoglobin (more than 185g/l in men or 165g/l in women)

Primary Thrombocythaemia:

Raised platelet count (more than 600 x 109/l)

Myelofibrosis (due to primary MF or secondary to PV or ET) can give variable findings inc tear drop cells, blasts, poikilocytes

Venesection can be used to keep the haemoglobin in the normal range. This is the first line treatment.
Aspirin can be used to reduce the risk of developing blood clots (thrombus formation).
Chemotherapy can be used to control the disease.

62
Q

neonatal polycythaemia (definition, 7 causes, 10 sx, mx)

A

haematocrit >65%

caused by IUGR, large for dates, post-mature (all 3 have intrauterine hypoxia), infants of DM mothers, down syndrome, transfusion (t2t, delayed clamping of cord), CAH

get hypervisc syndrome: plethoric, cyanosis, jittery, intracran thrombosis or seizures, poor renal perfusion/RVT, hypoglyc, hypocalc, hyperbili, thrombocytopenia, stiff lungs, pulm HTN

if symptomatic may need dilutional exchange transfusion

63
Q

polycythaemia in children

A

primary rarer than in adults

secondary to hypoxia eg cyanotic congen heart disease, high altitude; ectopic epo prouction from tumours (haemangioblastoma), haemoconc due to dehydration looks like polycy even when not really

64
Q

methaemoglobinaemia

A

baby may have appeared cyanosed but normal cardioresp exams, CXR, and echo; ABG usually normal; blood is brownish which doesnt redden on exposure to air

may be lethargic, tachy, comatosed

due to iron being in ferric Fe3 form, this form of haemoglobin cant bind O2 so functionally useless; babies more susceptible as antioxidative abilities not fully developed

congen causes: abnorm in enzymes that keep fe reduced eg NADPH methaemoglobin reductase, or abnorm haemoglob molecule that keeps fe in ferric form eg M haemogloniopathy (electrophoresis diagnoses)

acquired causes: exposure to oxidants eg nitrites (water from wells), nitrates, aniline dyes, sulphonamides, dapsone, primaquine, NO

remove cause, give oral ascorbie acid and if severe then iv methene blue

65
Q

general points of ontogenesis in lymphocytes

A

there are two bottlenecks in the lymphocytogenesis where hypermutation can and should occur: A) in the bone marrow/thymus, at the first rearrangement of VDJ genes for TCR and Ig (BCR). Here the acute lymphoblastic leukemia occurs, especially in young children (double hit with in utero mutations) B) in the germinal center in the lymph node, where a second rearrangement to increase the affinity of the prospective memory cells. Here the mature B cell lymphomas arise (follicular, mantle cell, DLBCL, CLL…)

66
Q

acute leukaemia (inc month cut off)

A

acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, acute myeloid leukaemia
<3mo history of symptoms of bone marrow failure (anaemia, abnormal bruising/bleeding, rec infections), DIC is common in some forms of AML; systemic fever, malaise, sweating, weight loss; lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly freq, esp in ALL
labs will show: anaemia, thrombocytopenia, often neutropenia; bone marrow infiltration by blast cells
ALL most common childhood malignancy (peak incidence aged 4) but may occur at any age, AML occurs at any age and is rare in childhood and more common in the elderly

67
Q

chronic myeloid leukaemia (inc symptoms, main cause of death)

A

philadelphia chromosome
all ages, peak is 25-45yo; weight loss, night sweats, itching, left hypochondrial pain, gout; hyperviscosity may cause headache, priapism, visual distrubance; splenomegaly often massive and present in 90% cases+
wbc count raised, often 50x10^9 or more; plat count may or may not be disturbed, anaemia may or may not be present; serum uric acid up; bone marrow hypercellular with raised myeloid:erythroid ratio; cytogenic analysis may show the Ph cr and FISH or PCR will in 100% cases
can at any stage transform into acute leukaemia which is main cause of death
imatinib to treat

68
Q

chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A

peak incidence age 72 and is mostly a disease of older people, and commonest leukaemia in western countries
most cases symptomless and found incidentally; painless, symmetrical lymphadenopathy begins to dev and can get night sweats, weight loss, symptoms of bone marrow failure, spleen often moderately enlarged
inc’d B cells, serum Ig suppressed
richter transformation: CLL -> diffuse large B cell lymphoma

69
Q

haem microscopy (spherocytes, bite cells, target cells, schistos, tear drop cells, pencil cells, hypochromasia, polychromasia, inclusions)

A

Spherocytes Differentials:
Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (warm antibody type)
Hereditary spherocytosis

Bite cells, blister cells, heinz bodies - G6PD def
G6PD is a reducing agent, so RBCs deficient in G6PD can’t handle oxidative stress (infections, drugs etc.)
Oxidative stress causes Hb to precipitate, splenic macrophages remove Heinz bodies and surrounding cytoplasm creating blister and bite cells

Target cells Differentials:
Sickle cell anaemia
Thalassemia (alpha and beta)
Iron deficiency
Asplenia

Schistocytes: Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemias (MAHAs)
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
Thrombotic thrombocytopaenic purpura
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

Tear drop cells: Myelofibrosis, Extramedullary haematopoiesis

pencil cells iron def anaemia, burr cells uraemia

Hypochromasia
Tip: think about your causes of microcytic anaemia
Differentials:
Thalassaemias
Iron deficiency
The RBC is pale in colour due to insufficient haemoglobin (the pigment) and contains a large, hollow middle (central pallor) of the cell.

Polychromasia/blue tinge:
Blue-staining RBCs stain blue because they contain mRNA (i.e. they’re immature RBCs, reticulocytes, still manufacturing globin proteins)
Reticulocytes are often larger than normal RBCs as well (cell size controlled by number of divisions

Differentials:
Any cause of haemolytic anaemia

Inclusions may be hyposlenism, malaria (large-med purpleish rings)

70
Q

histo for: ALL, AML, CLL, bone marrow, HL

A

ALL: Blasts have scant agranular cytoplasm (theyre purple blobs)
AML:smaller purple blob so more cytoplasm, and needle shaped auer rods there
“Smudge cells” can be seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

Aplastic bone marrow is empty, almost looks like lungs; hypercellular is almost a mass of cells; normal has lots of cells but also big
white circle areas
Hodgkin’s lymphoma:
Most of the tumour is not made up from malignant cells (the Reed-Sternberg cells)
Instead – tumour is comprised of reactive cells infiltrating the lymph node - these give B symptoms

71
Q

left-shit/leukaemoid reaction/inc’d neurophil:lymphocyte ratio

A

sepsis (inc’d demand for neuts so less mature ones released early), TB, syphilis, toxoplasmosis
down syndrome

72
Q

fanconi anaemia

A

form of aplastic anaemia presentin ~5yo, AR inheritance

bone marrow failure of Fanconi anemia is thought to occur from the selective destruction of CD34+ stem cells. The primary processes affected are related to DNA repair, including homologous recombination, nucleotide excision repair, mutagenic translational synthesis, and alternate end joining

short, microcephalic, horseshoe kidney, abnormal thumbs, maybe radial aplasia, maybe hyperpigmentation (cafe au lait macules)

high risk of AML or MDS and increased risk of solid organ cancers

retics low, will get full pancytopenia; HbF inc’d

chromosomal breakage/stress cytogenetics test is a diagnostic test indicated in those with severe pancytopenia and cell cycle analysis/flow cytometry is an alternative; if either of these positive then genetic testing for mutations known to cause fanconi anaemia to follow

transfusions and g-csf are temporary measures (using normal targets and neutrophil cut off)

Bone marrow transplantation from an HLA-matched sibling is the preferred method of cure

73
Q

interpreting differential white cell counts

A

simple rules: lymphocytosis due to viral illness, TB, ALL, whooping cough; monocytosis due to TB, brucellosis, JCA; eosinophilia due to type 1 hypersens eg asthma, eczema, hay fever, parasites, pulm eosinophilia, and in premies; basophilia CML, ulcerative colitis, hypothyroidism; neutrophilia due to infection, post surgery, burns, fractures, drugs/steroids/adr, h+, post transfusion, stress eg post seizure

74
Q

neutropenia causes

A

defined as count <1.5 (<2 in some sources but this based more on caucasian adult population), if <1yo neutropenia defined as <1.0

infections esp viruses, overwhelming sepsis, reticular dysgenesis, eastman syndrome, cyclical neutropenia, chronic benign neutropenia of childhood, bone marrow infiltration (leukaemia, solid tumour met, MDS) or aplasia, glycogen storage disease, osteopetrosis, vit B12/folate/iron def; thyoid disease, chemo agents, carbimazole, chlorpromazine; isoimmune neonatal neutropenia (antineut IgG similar to rh disease), autoimmune (SLE, JCA), hypersplenism

in neutropenia useful to do FBC, film, autoimmune screen, TFTs, iron studies and B12/folate, HIV/HBV/HCV screen; rpt bloods in 4-6 weeks as viral neutropenia will usually resolve; urgent haem referral for trephine etc if organomegaly, B symptoms, other cytopenias, or count <1 and >1yo, or if not improved after 4-6 weeks with no cause found

g-csf generally given until neutrophil count is >1 (lower target in some congenital neutropenias, specialty colleagues will set); empiric tazocin for neutropenic sepsis; recombinant g-csf is aka filgrastim

75
Q

aplastic anaemia

A

usually in form of pancytopenia

drugs (chemo, carbimazole, chloramphenicol, carbamazepine and phenytoin etc)
benzene ring solvents, carbon tetrachloride
inf mono, hep A, parvo B19 if sickle cell or haemolytic anaemia
irradiation
fanconi anaemia, schwachman-diamond syndrome
autoimmune
idiopathic

splenomeg helps differentiate from leukaemia -> usually normal in aplastic anemia

low plats, rbcs, wccs but MCV up, retics low, hypocellular trephine

transfuse, manage causes; can give HLA matched bone marrow transplant (watch for graft vs host disease - skin rash, diarrhoea, jaundice treated w ciclosporin)

76
Q

myelodysplastic syndromes

A

Myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) are clonal haematopoietic stem cell (HSC) disorders predominating in the elderly, characterised by ineffective haematopoiesis (immature blood cells in the bone marrow do not mature) leading to blood cytopaenias and progression to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) in one-fourth to one-third of cases

Environmental factors include previous exposure to chemotherapy (ChT), especially alkylating agents and purine analogues, radiotherapy (RT) or ionising radiation and tobacco smoking; genetic factors often play a role in pediatric cases

(macrocytic) anaemia, film will show dysplastic features; need other haematinics to exclude dd of other anaemia causes, and LDH has prognostic value; bone marrow trephine or aspiration may be performed

mx may inc blood product transfusion, haematopoietic growth factors, chemotherapy, HLA matched stem cell transplants

if requiring many transfusions then watch out for iron overload

77
Q

pancytopenia causes that arent aplastic anaemia

A

hypersplenism (so SLE, inf mono, metabolic diseae, portal htn, lymphoprolif), retic count will be normal or high and bone marrow hypercellular; splenectomy resolves

infiltration of bone marrow: leukaemia, neuroblastoma

HUS

DIC

78
Q

HSP vs HUS vs TTP - inc management for all (itp in kids inc management)

A

HSP vs HUS vs TTP: HSP is primarily seen in kids. It’s a leukocytoclastic vasculitis that primarily affects the skin (palpable purpura on
the buttocks and lower extremities w/o thrombocytopenia, platelet count may even be raised), joints, kidneys (proteinuria and hematuria),
and the GI tract (abdominal pain). may have n&v; also if young and abdo pain + bloody diarrhoea make sure to rule out intus
It often follows a GI illness or URI and is usually self-limiting but oral steroids can help. sometimes associated with IgA neph so check
BP and urine regularly over 6-12mo; if rash only on legs not butt consider thrombocytopenia which can inc HUS

HUS is often associated with EHEC and Shigella and is seen most often in kids. (There’s also ‘atypical HUS’, which is
much rarer.) It often presents (on exams) as a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (i.e., anemia, schistocytes, low haptoglobin, normal coags)
with thrombocytopenia and AKI (oliguria, hematuria, elevated creatinine, etc). Most kids will recover from this illness but may need
supportive therapies (e.g.fluids, if bad aki dialysis, plasma exchange); esp if 6mo-5yo, may have recent exposure to farm animals
shiga toxin damages endothelium (esp in glomerulus) causing microthrombus formation

TTP is a life-threatening disorder usually seen in adults. As others have stated, primary TTP is caused by large wWF multimers that lead to
widespread clot formation. The classic pentad is fever, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, AKI, and altered mental status
(and other neurologic manifestations). Coags will be normal, which helps to distinguish this disorder from DIC. (If you see
thrombocytopenia with MAHA but normal coags and no real signs of sepsis or sources of infection, think TTP.) Treatment relies on
plasmapheresis; may be idiopathic (oft antibodies directed against ADAMTS13 which breaks down vWF), can be genetic with mutation in ADAMTS13 gene
can be sec to bacti infection, pregnancy, SLE, bone marrow transplant, antivirals, chemo, immunosup, HRT/COCP; steroids can help, dont give
platelets; HUS more common in kids vs TTP more common in adults, TTP will oft have low/altered ADAMST13 in lab tests,

also note ITP often follows viral prodrome in kids, may have epistaxis or purpuric rash; oral pred, then IVIg/ritux, then splenectomy but
usually self resolving and treatment not needed if plat count >50; rule out HIV and HCV as triggers for low plat count alongside other causes

79
Q

acute arthritis and anaemia

A

sickle cell disease
acute leukaemia
neuroblastoma
consider JCA, SLE, TB, neoplastic involvement of a joint

80
Q

hyposplenism causes

A

sickle cell, UC< fanconi anaemia, tropical sprue, coeliac disease

81
Q

gum hypertrophy 15 causes

A

poor dental hygiene, scurvy, AML, phenytoin, ciclosporin, CaV blockers, lymphoma, aplastic anaemia, GPA, sarcoidosis, crohns, NF1, amyloidosis, kaposi sarcoma, acromegaly, various hereditary conditions like fibromatosis, mucopolysaccharidoses etc

82
Q

leukaemia

A

tends to be acute in kids, peak ALL incidence is 3-4yo

short history of some of anaemia (pallor, tiredness), thrombocytopenia (bleeding), leucopenia (inc’d infections), bone pain (from blast accumulation), recent weight loss, lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, anorexia, headaches, dizziness, blurred vision, n&v (if CNS involvement), hypervisc syndrome if blast count >100x10^9 giving headache, confusion, focal neurology

wcc normal, inc’d or dec with large number of lympho or myeloblasts; plat count low; hypercellular bone marrow, essential to sample csf as blasts here suggests CNS involvment

prognosis worse if male, wcc>30, <1yo or >10yo, L2 or L3 morphology, translocation in cr, haploidy worse than polyploidy, B cell worse than T cell, CNS involvement, organ/LN swelling, failure to induce remission within 14 days, ethnicity (black)

83
Q

classifying ALL and AML

A

ALL classified with MICE: morphology (L1/2/3), immunological markers (B cell, T cell, non-B/T cell - this commonest), cytogenetics (number of cr in leukaemia cells which is usually >46 and higher the better), enzyme studies (terminal transferase)

AML classified M1-7 based on morphology

84
Q

ALL mx

A

correct anaemia and thrombocytopenia w transfusions if needed, treat any dehydration, consider proph ABX

induce remission with chemo eg prednisolone, doxorubicin, asparaginase, vincristine; aim to eliminate blast cells
intensify regime w further combos of drugs to remove remaining malignant blasts
maintenance chemo of weekly methotrexate and daily 6-mercaptopurine + monthly vincristine for ~2 years
CNS proph eg irradiation or intrathecal methotrexate post-remission

regularly assess for relapse

complications inc bone marrow suppression pancytopenia, tumour lysis syndrome (hyperkal/phos/uric and hypocalc with inc’d risk of kidney stones obstructing - hyperhydrate, bicarb to alkalinise urine, allopurinol until wcc stabilised), secon malignancy, pitu/hypo damage or cognitive effects from irradiation

85
Q

paediatric acute leukaemia

A

2 main types affecting children: acute
lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) and acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
Management from the time of presentation to the time of confirmation of diagnosis follows the same principles for both types

history: fatigue, lethargy, pallor, petechiae or bleeding, weight loss, fever, night sweats, recurrent infections, lymphadenopathy, abdo pain or distension, bone pain, wheeze or stridor or SOB, chest pain, SVCO, facial weakness or CN palsy

ddx:
Viral infection Isolated transient neutropaenia: Clear history of viral infection
EBV infection: History of sore throat, haemolytic anaemia with pancytopaenia unusual
Parvovirus infection: solated red cell aplasia +/- neutropaenia
ITP: Isolated thrombocytopaenia in well child
Aplastic anaemia: pancytopaenia with no blasts on blood film
Lymphoma: lymphadenopathy, mediastinal mass, hepatosplenomegaly,
high ESR, LDH>1000, FBC may be normal

patient is at high risk of sepsis and other oncological emergencies, so should
be triaged accordingly and reviewed by a senior doctor

Identify high risk features:
 Mediastinal mass
 SVC obstruction
 Tumour lysis syndrome
 Coagulopathy
 Sepsis
 High WCC >50
 Neurological symptoms/signs
If present on call consultant and paeds onc need to know

Ix: FBC and film (ask on-call haem for urgent report and discuss with them immunophenotyping), G&S, coag, VBG, U&E, LFT, bone profile, urate, CRP, LDH, viral serology (CMV, EBV, HSV, VZV,
toxoplasma, hepatitis, measles), infection screen (blood/urine culture, throat swab for bacti and virus - no LP), ECG, CXR, (and if raised ICP suspected then CTH)

mx:
if signs of SVCO sit them up, urgent anaesthetics and retrieval service input
if active bleeding local bleeding control, TXA 10mg/kg IV, blood products if needed
if fever or signs of infection then start broad spectrum abx
start fluids and tumour lysis prophylaxis
liaise with primary treatment centre (whether the onc service that will look after them is) for transfer and to start rx + talk to paeds onc + on call paeds consultant to r/v and discuss with family
4-hourlys obs, monitor urine output for tumour lysis prophylaxis pathway, avoid NSAIDs, 12 hourly FBC

Most patients will not require CMV negative or irradiated blood products.
 Indications for CMV negative products:
Neonates, All patients with relapsed leukaemia/lymphoma
 Indications for irradiated products:
Infants <6mths of age who have received in-utero transfusion, all patients with relapsed leukaemia/lymphoma, Patients with severe T-lymphocyte immunodeficiency syndromes
All bone marrow/peripheral blood stem cell donors from 7 days before & during
harvest

At the primary treatment centre:
 Bone marrow aspirate under GA to confirm diagnosis
 When diagnosis has been confirmed, chemotherapy treatment will be initiated at the PTC
 The child will usually remain an in-patient at the PTC for at least 1 week

86
Q

apml

A

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML) is a rare sub-type of acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) and is sometimes referred to as AML M31; 5-10% of AML cases (which itself is 20% of leukaemia in children)

In APML, immature abnormal neutrophils (a type of white blood cell) known as promyelocytes accumulate in the bone marrow. These immature cells are unable to mature and function like healthy mature white cells. The accumulation of these immature cells in the marrow inhibits normal cell production

most commonly associated with a translocation of chromosomes 15 and 17, involving translocation of the retinoic acid receptor; as a result, this cancer is very responsive to all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA), which allows DNA transcription and differentiation of the immature leukemic promyelocytes into mature granulocytes which then undergo apoptosis

if untreated prognosis less than a month with death usually due to severe bleeding eg intracranial haemorrhage -> pt will generally go into DIC if not treated

87
Q

haematological cancers symptoms/ref criteria

A

alcohol induced pain in lymphadenopathy (HL, 2ww)
persistent back pain in over 60yo (myeloma - fbc, ca, esr)
unexplained bleeding/bruising/bone pain, persistent fatigue, hepatosplenomegaly, generalised lymphad, persistent or recurrent infections, pallor, petechiae, or unexplained fever (fbc within 48 hrs for leukaemia - specialist assessment within 48hrs for kids w unexplained petechiae or hepatosplen)
fever with lymphad or splenomeg in children, drenching night sweats, pruritus with lympad/splenomeg/sob/weight loss (48hrs ref to specialist for NHL/HL), 2ww in adults
if myeloma suspected then protein electrophoresis and urinary bence jones protein within 48hrs, if these suggest myeloma then 2ww

88
Q

haemat cancer management

A

HL - chemo and involved field radiotherapy; pneumococcal, flu, menC, hibB; chemo incs risk of leukaemia later; radiotherapy incs risk of solid tumours, hypothyrodism; eg doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, dacarbazine; antibiotic proph is severe neutropenia
NHL - vaccinations, antibiotic proph; treatment varies but eg cyclophos, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisolone, field radiotherapy; if in CNS then high dose methotrexate + dexamethasone
CML- TKIs like imatinib, stem cell transplant (HLA matched sibling ideal, otherwise strangers or last resort autologous transplant)
CLL - rituximab + fludarabine + cyclophos, allogeneic stem cell transplant may be curative; vaccines then splenectomy may be required
AML - trial based, eg induce remission with cytarabine and daunorubicin; stem cell transplant
ALL - induce remission with vincristine, steroids - dexameth, and an anthracycline with or w/o cyclophos; meningeal disease common, esp at relapse so intrathecal methotrexate or irradiation (not preferred); allogeneic stem cells

89
Q

lymphoma

A

neoplastic prolif of lymphoid cells divided into type 1 (hodgkins) and type 2 (non-hodgkins)
HL: reed-sternberg cells of B cell origin, EBV may be possible cofactor for its dev; present with lymphadenopathy, alcohol may cause them to hurt for a bit, hepatosplenomegaly may occur as may systemic symptoms (only 25% cases though); will find a normochromic normocytic anaemia, raised erythryocyte sed rate, raised LDH, leucocytosis, abnormal LFTs
NHL: autoimmune disease or prev viral or bacti infection (inc h pylori) predispose to this; heterogenous mix but lymphadenopathy common, and most common symptom is a painless swelling of a lymph node, extranodal disease more common than for HL; may see systemic signs like night sweats, fever, itching, anaemia, bone marrow failure (note problems with clotting for this can include nosebleeds or heavy periods), lymphocytosis, serum paraprotein and (raised) LDH, raised serum b2 microglobulin, cytogenics with FISH may help define subtypes; x rays or CT scans can help find affected noes which may be deep and widely disseminated
burkitt lymphoma: a form of NHL with endemic form occurring in tropical areas with malaria esp africa, and having jaw/head involvement; may also be sporadic (worldwide) or linked to HIV (may be presenting feature); c-myc transolcation is present with medium sized basophilic cells proliferating, and a starry night picture on histology

90
Q

paediatric lymphoma

A

accounts for 10% of new cancer cases in children - more common in teenagers and young adults (15 – 24 years)

One of the key features which distinguish most lymphomas from leukaemia is that the malignant cells are mature lymphocytes, and they arise within sites outside of the bone marrow (e.g. lymph nodes). In contrast, leukaemia develops from immature blasts and arises within the bone marrow.

The exceptions to this general rule are the less common lymphoblastic lymphomas (B-cell lymphoblastic lymphoma, and T-cell lymphoblastic lymphoma), which develop from immature precursor lymphoblasts similarly to leukaemia.

The way in which lymphoblastic lymphomas are distinguished from lymphoblastic leukaemia is the degree of bone marrow infiltration by blasts; <25% bone marrow involvement is lymphoma, while >25% is leukaemia. However, these are treated the same as acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

Hodgkin’s lymphoma is characterised histologically by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
70% nodular sclerosis with good prognosis, 20-25% mixed cellularity seen more often in HIV and EBV infected ppl, 5% lymphocyte rich with good prognosis, 1% lymphocyte depleted with poor prognosis and also associated with HIV/EBV

Non-hodgkins lymphoma majority of cases are high-grade lymphomas, often of B-cell origin; B-cell NHL usually affects lymph nodes in the abdomen/gastrointestinal tract but can also develop in the head and neck, while T-cell NHL usually affects lymph nodes in the chest
mature cell high grade: burkitts lymphoma, large B cell lymphoma, primary CNS lymphoma, anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (T cell),
mature cell low grade: follicular lymphoma, marginal cell lymphoma, mucosis fungoides

risk factors:
Post-solid organ transplant (post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders), ataxia telangiectasia, HIV, EBVand immunosuppressant drugs

91
Q

paediatric lymphoma sx/ix/mx

A

commonly present with painless, progressive lymphadenopathy (develops over weeks-months)

Other symptoms of lymphoma include:

B symptoms: fatigue, drenching night sweats, fever >38oC, weight loss (>10% in 6 months).
Pruritus
Mediastinal involvement (thymus or mediastinal lymph nodes): dyspnoea, cough, chest pain.

The following symptoms indicate extranodal involvement, which is more common in NHL:

Bone marrow: symptoms of anaemia, infections, easy bruising/bleeding.
Abdomen: bloating, early satiety, pain, unable to pass stools and vomiting if obstructed.
Retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy: urinary retention.
Skin: new skin lesions (such as mycosis fungoides), or jaundice.
Testicular swelling
Central nervous system: behavioural change, headache, confusion, nausea and vomiting, seizures, weakness, sensory changes.

ECG
Viral and bacti swabs
FBC and film +/- urgent report
U&Es
LFTs
LDH
Monospot test
HIV and HBV
ESR
CXR
Might have staging CT, and MRI head if suspect CNS lymphoma
Biopsy for definitive diagnosis

Ann Arbor classification is often used for Hodgkin’s, while St Jude classification is used for non-Hodgkin’s

Chemotherapy is the main treatment used for Hodgkin’s lymphoma; surgery may be performed; rarely RT is used if ongoing PET avidity after 2 cycles of chemo

Chemo for NHL (intrathecal if CNS); lymphoblastic lymphoma treated as ALL; rituximab sometimes used; specific regimen will be based on the type of disease and staging, but generally, B-cell NHL will have 4-6 courses of intensive chemotherapy, while T-cell NHL will have less intensive chemotherapy that lasts 2-3 years

For either will need tumour lysis prophylaxis before chemo

92
Q

histo for: ALL, AML, CLL, bone marrow, HL

A

ALL: Blasts have scant agranular cytoplasm (theyre purple blobs)
AML:smaller purple blob so more cytoplasm, and needle shaped auer rods there
“Smudge cells” can be seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

Aplastic bone marrow is empty, almost looks like lungs; hypercellular is almost a mass of cells; normal has lots of cells but also big
white circle areas
Hodgkin’s lymphoma:
Most of the tumour is not made up from malignant cells (the Reed-Sternberg cells)
Instead – tumour is comprised of reactive cells infiltrating the lymph node - these give B symptoms

93
Q

haem malig clinical (leuks inc CML phases, HL - inc 4 risk factors, NHL)

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia: Most common leukaemia in children. Associated with Down syndrome.
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia: Most common leukaemia in adults overall. Associated with warm haemolytic anaemia, Richter’s transformation
into lymphoma and smudge / smear cells.
Chronic myeloid leukaemia: Has three phases including a 5 year “asymptomatic chronic phase”. Associated with the Philadelphia chromosome. finalphase is blast crisis which behaves like acute leukaemia and leads rapidly to death
Acute myeloid leukaemia: Most common acute adult leukaemia. It can be the result of a transformation from a myeloproliferative disorder (1-4% rate).
Associated with Auer rods

1 in 5 lymphomas are Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It is caused by proliferation of lymphocytes. There is a bimodal age distribution with peaks
around aged 20 and 75 years.

Risk factors

HIV
Epstein-Barr Virus
Autoimmune conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and sarcoidosis
Family history

Presentation

Lymphadenopathy is the key presenting symptom. The enlarged lymph node or nodes might be in the neck, axilla (armpit) or inguinal (groin)
region. They are characteristically non-tender and feel “rubbery”. Some patients will experience pain in the lymph nodes when they drink
with alcohol.
B symptoms

Non-Hodgkins lymphoma is a group of lymphomas. There are almost endless types of lymphoma. A few notable ones are:

Burkitt lymphoma is associated with Epstein-Barr virus, malaria and HIV.
MALT lymphoma affects the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, usually around the stomach. It is associated with H. pylori infection.
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma often presents as a rapidly growing painless mass in patients over 65 years
presentation is similar to Hodgkin’s lymphoma and often they can only be differentiated when the lymph node is biopsied.

94
Q

mediastinal mass and lymphocytosis common differentials

A

large mediastinal mass -> HL, NHL, ALL/LBL, lung cancer, thymoma, germ cell tumour
CXR!! if rec laryngeal nerve could maybe possibly slightly be involved
lymphocytosis - young pt most oft viral (EBV etc), old pt (more likely haem onc)
coeliac disease -> EALT

95
Q

lymphoma histo (for HL most common type and how it looks, worst/best prognosis types)

A

hodgkins lymphoma in teens/young adults
Reed Sternberg cells:
have ≥2 nucleoli in 2 separate nuclear lobes. CD15+
Classic HL- RS cells that are CD15+ CD30+ CD45-
Nodular sclerosis - 60-80%: bands of fibrosis, lacunar cells (large cells large with clear space surounding nucleus); best prognosis
Mixed cellularity (15-30%) - older, lots of different cells
Lymphocyte rich: (5%) mostly reactive lymphocytes + RS cells.
Lymphocyte depletion: (<1%) many RS cells and variants/fibrous tissue.. Poor prognosis.
2. Nodular lymphocyte predominant - mostly B cells and few variant CD20+ CD15- CD30-. RS cells. (5%)

NHL: Lymphoblastic lymphoma (T>B)
lymphoblasts - scanty cytoplasm, irregular nuclei, Tdt+, CD3/20+
Burkitts etc

don’t think would have to identify between different CHL subtypes but if can see bands of fibrous tissue can say that nodular sclerosis
type (also the most common so most likely!) (will look like bands of pinker tissue between the purpler bits)

96
Q

tumour lysis syndrome (inc effect on kidney, what proph)

A

Blood results show hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia and hypocalcaemia
Creatinine is raised + reduced urine output -> AKI
This suggests that Miss H has developed tumour lysis syndrome due to the rapid destruction of a large number of tumour cells.
Pathophysiology: rapid death of large number of cells releasing K+, phosphate and purines. The phosphate binds Ca and precipitates causing
hypoCa and the purines are converted to uric acid
Deposition of uric acid crystals and calcium phosphate contribute to causing an AKI.
Hyperkalaemia causes arrhythmias and tented T waves.

prevent: Regular monitoring of serum biochemistry
Give initial chemo slowly,
Hydration (start 48h before in high risk),
Allopurinol prophylaxis (reduces conversion of purines to uric acid)

Rasburicase is a recombinant form of urate oxidase, an enzyme that converts uric acid to allantoin. Allopurinol in comparison acts by inhibiting the endogenous enzyme xanthine oxidase, thereby inhibiting formation of uric acid

97
Q

tumour lysis syndrome

A

Children most at risk are those with bulky lymphomas, particularly T or B cell NHL, and/or where there is renal involvement. Children with high white cell count (in excess of 100 x 109/L) leukaemia (usually T cell leukaemia) are also considered to be at increased risk.

Must discuss with on call paeds onc ASAP if happens

Laboratory TLS
* Two or more of the following within 3 days before and 7 days after starting treatment
o Uric acid >476 umol/l or 25% increase from baseline
o Potassium >6.0 mmol/l or 25% increase from baseline
o Phosphate >2.1 mmol/l or 25% increase from baseline
o Calcium <1.75 mmol/l or 25% decrease from baseline
Clinical TLS
* A patient with laboratory TLS and at least one of
o Creatinine≥1.59 x ULN (age>12 years or age-adjusted)
o Cardiac arrhythmia
o Sudden death
o Seizure

Pre treatment investigations in children with bulky lymphomas or leukaemia with a high white cell count (> 100 x 109
/L) MUST include:
1. Chest X ray +/- lateral (to assess tracheal patency) if mediastinum is enlarged
2. Baseline urate, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, Ca, Mg, PO4
3. Check G6PD status as need to know status prior to prescribing Rasburicase
4. Weight

Low Risk Most solid tumours
ALCL Stage 1 or 2
Intermediate Risk Acute leukaemia (unless meet high risk criteria)
ALCL Stage 3 or 4
Bulky neuroblastoma or Germ Cell Tumour
High Risk ALL or AML with WCC > 100
Burkitt lymphoma/leukaemia or lymphoblastic lymphoma
High grade lymphoma with bulky disease

Low Risk Patients
* Observation and monitoring (fluid status, chemistry)
* Treat as intermediate risk if develop biochemical signs of lysis

Intermediate Risk Patients
* Start intravenous fluids at least 12 hours before chemotherapy. Use 0.45% sodium
chloride with 5% glucose at rate of 3000mls/m2/day (125mls/m2
/hr). In general DO NOT ADD POTASSIUM to IV fluids and do not use 0.9% sodium chloride solutions.
Additives such as calcium may be required as clinically indicated
* Allopurinol 100mg/m2 PO TDS should be started before chemotherapy (with IV fluids,
see below) and continue for 5 days

High Risk Patients
* Start intravenous fluids at least 12 hours before chemotherapy. Use 0.45% sodium
chloride with 5% glucose at rate of 3000mls/m2/day (125mls/m2
/hr). In general DO NOT ADD POTASSIUM to IV fluids and do not use 0.9% sodium chloride solutions.
Additives such as calcium may be required as clinically indicated.
* Prescribe rasburicase 200microgram/kg/day infused over 30 minutes in 0.9% sodium chloride
* Allopurinol should not be prescribed alongside rasburicase.
* Rasburicase must not be prescribed to patients with G6PD deficiency or if known to be allergic to the drug. Use allopurinol instead

if confirmed:
* Commence rasburicase unless contra-indicated
* Continue to hyperhydrate and monitor fluid balance
* Aim for urine output >4ml/kg/hr in infants, 100ml/m2
/hr in older children
* Furosemide should be used to drive urine output if required
For hyperkal:
Increase hydration by 25% (4000mls/m2
/day = 167ml/m2/hr)
Give furosemide 0.5mg/kg IV bolus increasing to 2mg/kg if necessary to maintain output
K+ > 6mmol/L give
Salbutamol IV 4microgram/kg over 20 minutes
K+ still > 6mmol/L and/or significant fluid retention
* Discuss with PCCU and HaemOnc consultant
* Furosemide – increase dose up to 5mg/kg IV slow bolus.
* Consider plasma filtration or dialysis.

Hypocalc:
Treat ONLY if symptomatic: there are risks of causing hyperphosphataemia.
Symptomatic hypocalcaemia should be treated with calcium gluconate as continuous infusion of 1mmol/kg/day in hydration fluid
If seizures occur in association with hypocalcaemia give 0.11mmol/kg up to max
4.5mmol ca gluc bolus

98
Q

plasma proteins

A

55% is albumin, its role to maintain osmotic pressure and transport some molecules

38% are globulins, immune related

7% is fibrinogen, for coag

<1% is various reg proteins and clotting factors

serum electrophoresis separates out the proteins by weight; globulins are heavier than albumin and in order lightest to heaviest go alpha 1 globulins, alpha 2 globulins, beta globulins, and gamma globulins

alpha globulins are usually ~32kDa; a1 incs a1at, a1 lipoprotein, serum amyloid A and others; a2 incs a2 macroglobulin, haptoglobin, caeruloplasmin, thyroid binding globulin, protein c, antiotensinogen, cortisol binding globulin, vit D binding protein

beta globulins inc beta 2 microglobulin, plasminogen, transferrin, sex hormone binding globulin

gamma globulins include immunoglobulins

99
Q

plasmacytoma

A

Solitary plasmacytoma is an early stage malignancy with a clinical course that lies between MGUS and multiple myeloma in the spectrum of plasma cell dyscrasias; a dd you can also consider is a non-secretory MM

typically present with local symptoms due to the growing mass of plasma cells such as the bone pain or pathologic bone fractures occurring in solitary plasmacytomas of bone or the headache, focal neurological deficits, and cranial nerve palsies occurring in extramedullary plasmacytomas of sellar and parasellar compartments of the brain, or spinal cord compression

single area of bone destruction due to clonal plasma cells;
* histologically normal marrow aspirate and trephine (<5% plasma cells);
* normal results on skeletal survey, including radiology of longbones
* no anaemia, hypercalcaemia or renal impairment due to plasma cell dyscrasia;
* absent or low serum or urinary level of monoclonal immunoglobulin

radical radiotherapy is the treatment of choice

100
Q

plasma cell dyscrasias

A

spectrum of progressively more severe monoclonal gammopathies in which a clone or multiple clones of pre-malignant or malignant plasma cells (sometimes in association with lymphoplasmacytoid cells or B lymphocytes) over-produce and secrete into the blood stream a myeloma protein, i.e. an abnormal monoclonal antibody or portion thereof (exception are the non-secretory forms eg plasmacytoma)

toxicity through depositing in kidney (GN), free kappa/lamda chains aggregating together to cause amyloidosis (organ failure) or autonomic neuropathy, hyperviscosity and cryoglobulinaemia, can trigger immune thrombocytopenia

MGUS -> smoldering multiple myeloma (higher level of monoclonal protein and more abnormal plasma cells in the bone marrow than patients with MGUS but no CRAB criteria aka end-organ dysfunction) -> multiple myeloma/waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

101
Q

MGUS

A

people living with MGUS have plasma cells that produce unusual proteins (M proteins) instead of normal antibodies. In most cases,
M proteins do not cause any problems. (m proteins also known as paraproteins); >50yo 5% chance have it, gets increasingly common >85yo
1-2% per year transformation; the M proteins may be IgG/D/A or E; IgM paraproteins similar to MGUS but can progress to waldenstroms
macroglubinaemia

A monoclonal paraprotein band less than 30 g/l (< 3g/dl);
Plasma cells less than 10% on bone marrow examination;
No evidence of bone lesions, anemia, hypercalcemia, or chronic kidney disease related to the paraprotein, and
No evidence of another B-cell proliferative disorder.

MGUS itself is benign (not cancer), and most people have no symptoms, but monitor blood and urine for progression as low risk of dev’g
multi myeloma or lymphoma, or amyloidosis; first every 3-4mo then every 6-12mo check; MGUS may cause numbness or tingling, or autonomic
effects (mild)

102
Q

multiple myeloma path, investigations (biochem, confirmatory, bone), 4x management

A

cancerous plasma cells invade the bone marrow. This is described as bone marrow infiltration. This causes suppression
of the development of other blood cell lines leading to pancytopenia
Myeloma bone disease is a result of increased osteoclast activity and suppressed osteoblast activity. Osteoclasts absorb bone and
osteoblasts deposit bone. This results in the metabolism of bone becoming imbalanced as more bone is being reabsorbed than constructed.
This is caused by cytokines released from the plasma cells
High levels of immunoglobulins (antibodies) can block the flow through the tubules
Plasma viscosity also increased

B – Bence–Jones protein (request urine electrophoresis)
L – Serum‑free Light‑chain assay
I – Serum Immunoglobulins
P – Serum Protein electrophoresis
Bone marrow biopsy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of myeloma

Imaging is required to assess for bone lesions. The order of preference to establish this is:

Whole body MRI
Whole body CT
Skeletal survey (only need one, whicever highest they can tolerate)

chemo (and may need VTE proph on certain regimes)
Myeloma bone disease can be improved using bisphosphonates. These suppress osteoclast activity.
Radiotherapy to bone lesions can improve bone pain.
Orthopaedic surgery can stabilise bones

103
Q

multiple myeloma - 10 classic sx, signs of cardiac amyloidosis, 8 initial ix/mx if suspecting, longer term ix and mx

A

Bone pain, lethargy, shortness of breath, constipation, confusion, weight loss, frequent infections, (macrocytic) anaemia, hypercalcaemia, end organ involvement (eg renal, heart)

cardiac amyloidosis: LVH (on echo) but relatively low voltage in the lateral leads on ECG (may also be effusion but echo would show that), HFpEF - may dev fairly fast from prev good baseline

treat any problems with end-organs (eg furo, consider need for dialysis, fluid restrict etc)

urgent x-rays for painful joints/back, CT skeletal survey on senior/haem advice, check for other causes of any anaemia, check serum globulin (and do albumin:globulin ratio), if not overloaded consider fluids for the hypercalcemia in the first instance, can send serum ACE ?sarcoidosis, send myeloma screen, analgesia if bone or abdo pain

biopsy will be done, and then therapy (1-2 chemo agents + dexamethasone); thalidomide or more potent analogue lenalidomide are often the agent used; lenal mechanism not entirely understood but seems it induces tumour cell apoptosis directly and indirectly by inhibition of bone marrow stromal cell support, by anti-angiogenic and anti-osteoclastogenic effects, and by immunomodulatory activity; side effects include low blood platelets, low white blood cells, and blood clots

104
Q

cryoglobulinaemia

A

Cryoglobulins are proteins that precipitate from an individual’s serum or plasma at temperatures lower than 37°C. They can be a mixture of immunoglobulin (Ig) and complement components or immunoglobulins alone; presents generally as a vasculitis

type I: monoclonal Igs, typically IgG or IgM, and develops in the setting of lymphoproliferative or hematologic disorders of B cell lineage (e.g., multiple myeloma, Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, or protein-secreting monoclonal gammopathies like monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS); presents with vascular symptoms including ischemia, livedo reticularis and skin necrosis -> distal gangrene, as well as hyperviscosity sx often

type II: Monoclonal IgM plus polyclonal IgG or, rarely, IgA associated with autoimmune diseases, malignancy, or infections, particularly hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection, also HBV, HIV; purpura, arthralgias, and weakness seen in this and type III, as well as eg mononeuritis multiplex, GN, raynauds etc

type III: Cryoglobulins are composed of a mixture of polyclonal IgG (all isotypes) and polyclonal IgM in type III; often secondary to autoimmune disorders. Sometimes, they can also be associated with infections (HCV most of the time)

in all cases treat cause, plasmapheresis if severe

105
Q

pancytopenia and furosemide risks

A

pancytopenia - before any anemia, look to see whether it is actually pancytopenia (could be leukaemia, lymphoma, myeloma, myelofibrosis,
medications, SLE, sepsis, TB, aplastic anemia, hypersplenism, copper or vit defs)

high doses or too rapid admin of furosemide can causes tinnitus or deafness

106
Q

platelets and primary haemostatic plug

A

discoid anuclear bodies made by cytoplasmic fragmentation of megakaryocytes in bone marrow with lifespan of ~7 days in circulation; activated by EMP (esp collagens) exposed when dnothelium damaged; adhere strongly to collagen (via von willebrands factor which binds to gp-1b-IX-V), change shape by extruding long processes, and secrete chemical signals (thromboxane A2, vasoactive amines inc 5HT, and ADP); signals promote vasoconstriction and aggregation, forming primary haemostatic plug which can temporarily resist dissolution by force of blood; adhesion, activation, aggregation; PGI2 raises cAMP in platelets, activating Ca pump to extrude Ca from platelet, ADP binds P2Y12 (Gi coupled, cAMP down, Ca up in platelet, also P2Y1 Gq coupled, collagen binding triggers PLCgamma -> Ip3)

after above, platelets contract and eventually fuse; mediated by ligands and homotypic CAMs including integrins (esp alpha 2b, beta3 -Ca triggers subunits to associate via PLA2, then binds fibrinogen which coagulation cascade turns to fibrin to stabilise clot by crosslinking), IG super family JAMs, endothelial cell specific adhesion molecules and eph/ephrin kinases; integrins and kinases are signalling molecules which alter cytoskeleton (myosin contraction); reduced platelet numbers can cause anything from purpura (bleeding from skin caps) to spontaneous haemorrhage

107
Q

coagulation cascade

A

result of cascade of proteolytic activation of zymogens; activated by several stimuli including tissue factor (from damage tissues and on surface of activated endothelial cells); activating factor X is major step, and penultimate step is thrombin activation; thrombin catalyses fibrinogen into fibrin monomers, which polynerise into strands; also thrombin activates platelets and catalyses several earlier steps in cascade (f5/8/9); most reactions that lead to factor X activation occur faster if on phospholipid surface as presented by platelets or other microparticles like monocyte fragments; fibrin strands form a meshwork with fused platelets to create relatively stable secondary haemostatic plug; plasminogen precipitated along with fibrin in interior of thrombus (shown in culture thrombin causes tPA release form endothelial cells) and activated their to form protease plasmin to disassemble the plug; intrinsic/extrinsic pathways, latter more important: subendothelial cells express tissue factor, activates f7, th-f7a activate f9/f10 , f9a also does f10 to f10a, that cleaves prothrombin; intrinsinc if HMWK, f12, prekallikrein come together on collagen, latter to kallikrein, f12-12a does f11-11a does f9-9a which does 10-10a, more involved in inflam, thrombin activates f13 which crosslinks fibrin to stabilise clot; f5a is cofactor for f10a, f8a cofactor for f9a

108
Q

endothelium in health (5 mediators) and injury (3 things)

A

health: inhibit haemostasis by insulating tissues from blood and releasing inhibitory factors: NO and prostacyclin inhibit platelet activation, antithrombin on cell surface binds/inactivates thrombin with complexes released and cleared by liver; tissue factor pathway inhibitor released, stops tissue factor activation of factor X (and causes the modified X to inactivate tf-f7a); thrombomodulin on cell surface changes config of thrombin so it’s less able to cleave fibrinogen, but is able to activate protein C (present in circulation); protein C inhibits coagulation cascade by inactivating factor V and factor VIII; they make protein S, a cofactor for protein C

injury: promote haemostasis: first tissue is exposed, activating both platelets and cascade; also synthesises enzymes and chemical mediators eg von willebrand factor to promote platelet adhesion to EMP and tissue factor (thromboplastin - mix of lipids and tissue factor) to activate coagulation; also expresses binding sites to increase activity of factors IX/X

109
Q

thrombosis and predisposing factors

A

occurs when haemostasis activated inappropriately; thrombus is mass formed from blood constituents within circulation during life, composed of fibrin and platelets with trapped RBCs/WBCs; may form in blood vessel or cardiac chamber and cause further damage by obstructing lumen or breaking off as embolus and obstructing circulation elsewhere; blood clots are formed in static blood, involve mainly the coagulation system without platelets interacting with vessel wall, seen in vitro and post mortem commonly; clot is soft and jelly like, and unstructured and composed of random mix of blood cells suspended in serum proteins

summarised by Virchow’s triad: changes in vessel wall, changes in blood flow, changes in constituents of blood; for vessel wall, changes occur to endothelial cells by injury/activation, eg ischaemic hypoxia (eg endothelium of cardiac chamber during coronary artery disease), infection, physical damage (atherosclerotic plaque rupture, haemodynamic stress in hypertension, crushing of veins), chemical damage (from lipids, toxins, bacti lipopolysaccharide), immunological damage (deposition of immune complexes)

changes in blood flow: disrupting the laminar flow means platelets come into contact with endothelium, there is impaired removal of pro-coagulants and delivery of anti-coagulants, and possibly direct injury/activation of endothelium; changes in flow in a’s often due to turbulence from narrowing (re = v.d.p/n), aneurysm, infarction, abnormal cardiac rhythm/valves; in veins, important cause is stasis due to heart failure, immobilisation/compressed veins (long flight, bed rest), varicose veins, increased blood viscosity (sickle cell, dehydration); veins most commonly affected are pelvic veins and deep/superficial leg veins; changes in constituents of blood lead to increased tendency to coagulate with specific genetic causes like deficiency of antithrombin III/protein C, blood O is 2-4x lower risk (more clearance of VWF, f13) or acquired causes like tissue damage (trauma/infarction), post-op state, malignancy, elevated blood lipids, smoking, oral contraceptive

110
Q

extrinsic and intrinsic pathways

A

intrinsic pathway responds to spontaneous, internal damage of the vascular endothelium, whereas the extrinsic pathway becomes activated secondary to external trauma -> they meet at a common pathway

intrinsic pathway consists of factors I, II, IX, X, XI, and XII
extrinsic pathway consists of factors I, II, VII, and X
common pathway consists of factors I, II, V, VIII, X

111
Q

interpreting coagulation screen

A

prothrombin time (PT) is a measure of the time taken for blood to clot via the extrinsic pathway (a good way to remember is that you ‘Play Tennis OUTSIDE’ therefore PT is EXTRINSIC

this test can be affected by liver disease, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), vitamin K deficiency and warfarin levels

activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is a measure of the time taken for blood to clot via the intrinsic pathway (a good way to remember, following PT, is that you ‘Play Table Tennis INSIDE’ therefore PTT is INTRINSIC).
Like with PT, APTT time will be affected by overall clotting factor synthesis or consumption (it can also be affected by DIC, liver failure, vitamin K deficiency and warfarin levels).
APTT, however, can indicate issues with factors VIII (and vWF), IX, and XI specifically.

main conditions that could result in an abnormal APTT include:

Haemophilia A (VIII – X-linked recessive)
Haemophilia B (IX – X-linked recessive)
Haemophilia C (XI – autosomal recessive)
von Willebrands disease (as vWF pairs up with factor VIII)
Note: anti-phospholipid syndrome can cause a high APTT

aPTT ratio is a derivate of aPTT used specifically to monitor unfractionated heparin

bleeding time (should be 1-6 minutes)
platelet specific disorders will increase the overall bleeding time - VWF disease, TTP/ITP/HUS/DIC, thrombocytopenia; note not formally tested any more but you can pay attention to if pt is taking a long time to stop bleeding

vit K def: aPTT and PT both raised, haemophilia just aPTT raised, VW disease aPTT raised or normal with prolonged bleeding time and normal plats, DIC PT aPTT and bleeding time raised and platelets down, ITP/TTP/HUS will find low plats and long bleeding time

112
Q

VTE proph and treatment does in renal impairment - liver v kidney clearance for 10 meds, then what to use based on eGFR/CrCl, UFH vs LMWH action and monitoring, long-term anticoag

A

enox, dabig, fonda more renal elim; dalte, tinza, rivaroxa middle but more renal, apix middle but more liver, warfarin, UFH, argatroban more liver

> 30 eGFR can use anything, <30 rivaroxaban and dabigatran tend not to; may need to dose adjust LMWHs, if CrCL <20 then use unfractionated heparin or apixaban

UFH exerts its anticoagulant effect by inhibiting factor Xa and thrombin equally; LMWHs preferentially inhibit factor Xa with less thrombin inhibition, providing a biologic rationale for reduced bleeding risk compared with UFH; UFH has shorter half life, necessitating more frequent doses; aPTT monitors UFH activity and anti-Xa hep level monitors LMWH, rarely done but maybe in eg liver disease or CKD 4/5 if given for long time

UFH best for short term treatment, can do heparin infusion if eGFR <20; apixaban also an option but caution esp if eGFR <15

long term anti-coag can be DOACs until CKD stage 5 where warfarin is preferred

113
Q

reversal of anticoags - UFH, LMWH, dabig, factor Xa inhibs

A

UFH: protamine, 1mg per 100 units UFH, 50mg max dose
LMWH: protamine, less effective than for UFH

dabigatran: Idarucizumab 5g, binds and inactivates
apix/rivarox: Andexanet alfa, decoy protein that you infuse; beriplex can be used but is less effective (note beriplex is brand name for human prothrombin complex and contains clotting factors II, VII, IX and X)

114
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia path, time course, sx/signs, mx; and overdose reversal (relative efficacy UH vs LMWH)

A

immune mediated - antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin
these antibodies bind to the PF4-heparin complexes on the platelet surface and induce platelet activation by cross-linking FcγIIA receptors
usually does not develop until after 5-10 days of treatment
despite being associated with low platelets HIT is actually a prothrombotic condition
features include a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis and skin allergy
address need for ongoing anticoagulation:
direct thrombin inhibitor e.g. argatroban
danaparoid

Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulphate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

115
Q

Heparin - UF vs LMWH (admin route, duration/mech of action, s/e, monitoring, when used)

A

Administration
Intravenous
Subcutaneous
Duration of action
Short
Long
Mechanism of action
Activates antithrombin III. Forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, Xia and XIIa
Activates antithrombin III. Forms a complex that inhibits factor Xa
Side-effects
Bleeding
Heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT)
Osteoporosis
Bleeding

Lower risk of HIT and osteoporosis with LMWH
Monitoring
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
Anti-Factor Xa (although routine monitoring is not required)
Notes
Useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly. Also useful in renal failure
Now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes

116
Q

anticoag vs antiplatelet

A

Arterial thrombosis is a platelet-predominant phenomenon, often associated with atherosclerotic damage and inflammation. Ruptured plaque and high shear forces promote the binding and unfolding of von Willebrand factor, inciting platelet aggregation and activation. Histopathology of the arterial clot is characterized by fibrin, leukocytes, and an abundance of platelets, providing a classic “white” appearance. Arterial thrombi most often present clinically as acute stroke, myocardial infarction, or peripheral arterial disease.

Venous thrombosis, on the other hand, is generally thought of as a disorder in plasma coagulation. Venous thrombi are fibrin-rich, originating in areas of slower blood flow such as the deep veins of the legs. It has been proposed that the endothelium becomes activated and sets off a cascade of inflammation and activation of the coagulation pathway. On histopathology, venous clots are composed of fibrin, leukocytes, and red blood cells, providing a classic “red” appearance; platelets are less prominent than they are in arterial thrombi. These distinctions notwithstanding, there is significant mechanistic overlap between arterial and venous thrombosis.

Anticoagulants work best in low-flow states with a high fibrin state, such as veins. Thats why you give anticoagulants after a DVT, PE to prevent clot propagation.

Anti-platelet work best in high-flow states, such as arteries. Here, only platelets can aggregate to endothelial damage. That’s why you give antiplatelets after a stent or suspected MI.

both agents do have effect on the other kind of problem, in particular anticoags can be useful in stopping thrombin contribution to clots in arteries (and platelets are superior to placebo in VTE prophylaxis, esp in certain lower limb ortho procedures with good mobility); however in the low flow state of ischaemic brain causes increased risk of haemorrhagic transformation so hold off for a while, whereas this risk not so high after ACS

117
Q

vena cava filters - 5 indications, what it does

A

indication: Absolute contraindication to anticoagulation in a patient with high risk of DVT/PE, or complication of anticoag requiring reversal, PE while fully anticoag’d, failure to achieve full anticoag; may be placed in ppl who are at risk of PE

doesn’t prevent DVTs, but can reduce PE frequency

118
Q

Warfarin reversal (and why hep cover when start)

A

Major bleeding
Stop warfarin
Give intravenous vitamin K 5mg
Prothrombin complex concentrate - if not available then FFP*
INR > 8.0
Minor bleeding

Stop warfarin
Give intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg
Repeat dose of vitamin K if INR still too high after 24 hours
Restart warfarin when INR < 5.0
INR > 8.0
No bleeding

Stop warfarin
Give vitamin K 1-5mg by mouth, using the intravenous preparation orally
Repeat dose of vitamin K if INR still too high after 24 hours
Restart when INR < 5.0
INR 5.0-8.0
Minor bleeding

Stop warfarin
Give intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg
Restart when INR < 5.0

INR 5.0-8.0
No bleeding
Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin
Reduce subsequent maintenance dose

when warfarin is first started biosynthesis of protein C is reduced. This results in a temporary procoagulant state after initially starting warfarin, normally avoided by concurrent heparin administration. Thrombosis may occur in venules leading to skin necrosis

119
Q

novoseven - what it is, mechanism, indications

A

recombinant factor VII activated

supranormal levels of above has interaction with platelets, involving factor X and cofactor Va to produce a “thrombin burst” leading to formation of fibrin and a stable clot

must have consultant recommendation to use; generally if ongoing massive haemorrhage with >10 units PRC despite plats, fibrinogen, pH, and temp being optimised - one common place is in massive obstetric bleeds

also used in various congen bleeding problems (haem A/B, factor 7 def, others) per haematology advice, may even be prophylactic

120
Q

haemophilia A

A

factor 8 deficiency, is on x cr so males get the severe disease
spontaneous bleeding, esp into joints and muscles; early onset in childhood (eg may find after a circumcision); repeated bleeds ma give joint disease; fascial bleeds may give pseudotumours; inc risk of post trauma/surgery H+; prolonged APTT, normal PT, plasma factor 8 reduced <40% (carries~50% of normal, severe disease if <1% normal, moderate if 1-5% of normal); vWF is normal; infuse factor 8 (recombinant or from donors) until up to 20-25% of normal, raise and maintain to 80-100% prior to surgery; desmopressin gives modest inc in factor 8 for mild cases; avoid aspirin, clopidogrel etc and giving IM injections; immunosuppresion needed in 15% cases due to Ig to factor 8

All children with SHA or SHB should receive primary prophylaxis.
Primary prophylaxis should be considered for all children with baseline factor levels of 1–3 iu/dl.
Prophylaxis should be offered to any person with haemophilia (PWH) who has sustained one or more spontaneous joint bleeds.
Prophylaxis should be offered to a PWH who has established joint damage due to haemarthroses who experiences ongoing bleeding

prophylaxis generally with recombinant factor 8, but emicizumab may be offered to a PWSHA aged >2 years without an inhibitor as an alternative to prophylaxis with FVIII

haem B - factor 9 deficiency
similar clinical picture to hA, x linked, 4x less common, usually milder; desmopressin not effective so give f9 concentrate

121
Q

haemophilia (inc what meds you shouldnt give)

A

avoid forceps and ventouse if child has suspected congen bleeding dis (haemophilia), normal vaginal delivery safest, then emergency c sec
don’t give IM to haemophiliac! - maybe huge bruising; also aspirin, nsaids no
vaccinations given subcut instead of IM; should avoid boxing etc due to risk of intracerebral bleed
severe haemophilia: <0.01, moderate 0.01-0.05 units/ml, mild 0.05-0.5units/ml
severe get prophylaxis through eg central venous catheter, moderate on demand treatment, mild only for eg surgery etc
20-30% develop inhibitor antibodies against these factors

122
Q

von willebrand disease (inc symptoms, inhertiance type, coag results, managament)

A

usually autosomal dominant; men and women equally affected
bleeding esp from mucous membranes (mouth, heavy periods, after dental treatment, epistaxes), heavy bleeding after trauma or surgery, muscle/joint bleeding is rare though
APTT prolonged, PT normal, f8 and vWF reduced; intermediate purity f8 concentrate (ie has vWF in too) is given to treat, desmopressin, fibrinolytic inhibitors like tranexamic acid to control

123
Q

vWD; coagulopathy with normal FBC/coag screen (inc mx - drugs to avoid, drugs to give)(what to give presurg)

A

mucosal bleeding, cutaneous haemorrhage, postop bleeding; type 1 is partial quantitative defect, type 2 mixed bag of qualitative
defects, type 3 is severe quant defect or total absence
must account for blood group - type O naturally have lower
avoid aspirin/nsaids; tranexamic acid good treatment; desmopressin releases stored vwF for 24 hours to cover surgery etc; factor 8 concentrate
for severely affected (has vWF in too)
consanguinity increases risk of recessive conditions (+ new dominant ones)
platelet function analysis > bleeding time (dont do latter anymore)

Quantitative deficiency - detected by vWF antigen assay.
Qualitative deficiency - detected by a number of methods including glycoprotein binding assay

normal FBC/coag may be vwd, rare/mild coag problems, factor 13, vit c deficiency, platelet/collagen function disorders

pre surgery: type 1 desmo, minor type 2 desmo and see if responds, major type 2 or type 3 factor vIII conc (also use this to stop bleeding for any type post-op)

124
Q

VWD ix and mx

A

When investigating a patient with mucocutaneous bleeding a diagnosis of VWD can be made when von Willebrand factor (VWF) activity is <0·30 iu/m.
Patients with an appropriate bleeding history and VWF activity 0·3–0·5 iu/ml should be regarded as having primary haemostatic bleeding with reduced VWF as a risk factor rather than VWD
The incidental finding of VWF activity <0·30 iu/ml should be taken to indicate VWD or acquired von Willebrand syndrome

Type 1 (common) Reduced levels of vWF Typically associated with mild bleeding
Type 2 (uncommon) Abnormal structure and function of vWF, several variants Variable bleeding pattern
Type 3 (rare) Near absence of vWF Patients may behave like those with moderate to severe haemophilia

In the initial investigation for VWD, FVIII, VWF:Ag and VWF activity should be measured.
VWF activity should be assessed by its ability to bind both GPIb and collagen

A trial of desmopressin should be carried out in patients with type 1 and 2 looking for an increase in factor VIII/vWF level
When shown to be effective, desmopressin should be used in preference to blood-derived products where possible
Fluid restriction (2/3 maintenance daily fluid requirement) is recommended in the 24 hour period following Desmopressin administration
Generally not used in children <3yo due to risk of hyponatremia and seizures
Plasma derived Factor VIII/vWF replacement may be required if bleeding not controlled with Desmopressin

Tranexamic acid administered topically, as a mouthwash, orally or parenterally remains a useful therapy for minor bleeding (including epistaxis, menorrhagia, oral bleeding) or surgery

For treatment of acute bleeding or emergency surgery, a VWF-FVIII concentrate or a combination of high purity FVIII and high purity VWF concentrates should be used

Prophylaxis should be considered for recurrent bleeding in all types of VWD.
In children with type 3 VWD, consider prophylaxis 2–3 times per week when joint bleeding develops (as for haemophilia).
Intermediate purity FVIII-VWF or high purity VWF concentrates are both appropriate for prophylaxis

125
Q

glanzmann thrombasthenia

A

congenital (AR) bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of the platelet integrin alpha IIb beta3. This integrin is the platelet fibrinogen receptor and is thus essential to platelet aggregation and haemostasis.

see mucocutaneous bleeding with prolonged bleeding time as in VWD with negative tests for VWD

platelet function studies and genetic testing will be needed

local pressure and TXA, if not responding or severe bleed then may need platelets and/or recombinant activated clotting factor VII (rFVIIa) may be required

126
Q

PT and aPTT (int or ext, factors affected, 4x long PT cause, 3x long aptt cause)

A

prothrombin time tests extrinsic pathway: factors 5/7/10/fibrinogen/prothrombin; Ca added to allow cascade to work, if PT long think DIC,
liver disease, warfarin, factor deficiencies
APTT is intrinsic pathway: add ca and thromboplastin as for PT; deficiencies of 8/9/11, VWD, action of heparin, lupus anticoags (thrombophilia)

127
Q

INR, PT, aPTT

A

PT varies from lab to lab (due to process used, different reagent availabilities etc), this also means each lab will give its own reference ranges

INR is the ratio of PT to a standardised sample normal PT - and so is universal and can be used to set guidelines etc

also note INR is non linear in terms of degree of anticoagulation. 4 is not twice as much as 2, and above 8 or 10 it may as well be 100 because there’s no way of accurately knowing, in fact only really accurate in range 1-4

in theory, PT tests the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation while aPTT tests the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation; warfarin acts on factors 2, 7, 9 and 10 and factor 10 is in the common pathway which is involved in both PT and aPTT, not to mention factor 9 is part of the intrinsic pathway

so warfarin does affect the APTT but it’s much more variable than PT

also intrinsic and extrinsic pathways are artificial ways of describing a complex multivariate system with loads of interacting proteins and enzymes which alter the homeostatic balance of pro-coagulant and anti-coagulant forces in response to physical and chemical stimuli which is part of why these tests don’t always predict bleeding/clotting risk

INR isn’t really useful for anything except warfarin and liver prognostication, and that’s not because it is a good test, but rather we have done so much research on INR values in warfarinised and liver disease patients - and note despite deranged INR/PT values liver pts may even be pro-thrombotic

128
Q

haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

A

suspect if GI bleeding in seemingly well baby between 2nd and 6th days of life

due to vit K def, babies most at risk inc breast fed, asphyxiated, premie or small for dates, maternal anticonvulsants

treat blees with FFP and prevent with oral/im vit K

129
Q

periorbital bleeding causes

A

bleeding disorders like haemophilia
leukaemia
neuroblastoma
rhabdomyosarcoma
basal skull fracture
NAI

may be periorb cellulitis

130
Q

DIC (11 causes)

A

causes inc tumours (solid and blood), pre-eclampsia, amniotic fluid embolism, placental abruption, trauma, burns, rhabdo, sepsis,
allergy/venom, transfusion reaction, surgery
TF released after tissue damage or cytokine release, excessively activating clotting cascade; coagulation factors rapidly consumed by tiny
clots all over giving pain, sob, maybe stroke or MI, and excessive bleeding
low platelets, high PT, high APTT, d dimer positive
treat underlying condition, maybe give platelets/FFP if low platelets or cryoprecipitate if low fibrinogen

131
Q

dic

A

most freq causes are infection, malignancy, obstetric complications
signs of multiorgan failure
also inc’d consumption of coagulation factors and platelets can result in bleeding eg into GI tract, around venepuncture sites, after trauam, and also due to purpura
coagulation and fibrinolysis lab tests will be abnormal and fibrin degradation products present in blood
treat cause, give plasma, heparin if thrombosis dominant, protein C and antithrombin in some patients

132
Q

thrombophilia

A

predisposition to venous thrombosis, suspect if patient has thrombosis and some of: is young, pos family history, recurrent thrombosis or in unusual site, or a female with rec foetal loss
commencing on oral contraceptives, after surgery or pregnancy may precipitate the first DVT
antiphospholipid syndrome most commonly; factor 5 leiden is most common inherited cause (resists protein C); other reasons may be deficiecnies in pC, pS, AT

133
Q

thrombocytopenia

A

thrombocytopenia <150, but major bleeding rare if >10 (but risk of major bleeding begins to inc sig <20); may see some petechia, purpura, maybe mucosal bleeds

causes of thrombocytopenia are diverse, but can be considered as arising from three main causes:
Reduced platelet production as a result of marrow-based disorders — for example, leukaemia, myelofibrosis, sarcoidosis, nutritional deficiency, chemotherapy, azathioprine, aplastic anemia.
Increased platelet destruction — for example, immune thrombocytopenic purpura, disseminated intravascular coagulation, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, and drug-related thrombocytopenia (for example, quinidine, quinine, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs], penicillin, and anticonvulsants).
Increased platelet sequestration — for example splenomegaly, due to portal hypertension that may be caused by cardiac failure, hepatic vein thrombosis or vena cava thrombosis (Budd-Chiari syndrome), cirrhosis (such as due to chronic viral hepatitis or alcoholic liver disease) and, rarely, arteriovenous malformation of the splenic vessels.
also dilutional if 1-2 units blood given or in pregnancy

hypersplenism (malaria, sickle cell, portal hypertension)

134
Q

pruritus and purpura causes

A

pruritus: chronic liver/kidney disease, fe def anaemia, polycythemia, lymphoma, hyper/hypothyroid, DM, rashes, scabies

purpura: meningococcal, ALL, thrombocytopenia (all causes), NAI, bleeding disorders; bone marrow failure, vit c def, certain drugs

135
Q

itp

A

acute onset of purpura/petechiae, nosebleeds, or bruising in otherwise well chil, usually between 1 and 5yo; bleeding only when plat coun <20 x10^9, most often following viral illness
will see lack of weight loss, absence of lymphad, no indicators of other illness
platelets low and bleeding time prolonged but no other abnorms, except perhaps but not always antiplat antibodies; bone marrow only is worried about eg leukaem or aplastic or if intending to give steroids; will be normal or show inc’d megakaryocytes

5-15% cases last for >6mo; intracranial bleed in <1%

50% resolved by 2mo, so treatment reserved for plat count <30 or severe bleeding, and you’d give IVIG (block Fc receptors in spleen), steroids, poss splenectomy (reserved for if life threatening or failure to respond to steroids esp if chronic); plat transfusion if severe bleeing but will be rapidly cleared

136
Q

9 causes of neonatal thrombocytopenia

A

maternal idipathic thrombocytopenic purpura: look at mothers count, may be normal if she had splenectomy; look for antibodies, resolves after 1-3mo

isoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia - as for rh but with anti-PLA1 antibodies passing to fetus; plat count normal; lasts 1-3mo

sepsis (inc TORCH)

birth aspyhxia (depresses bone marrow)

DIC

congenital (eg wiskott-aldrich syndrome)

haemangioma destroying platelets

maternal drugs eg some abx

tumours (leukaemia, neuroblastoma)

137
Q

neonatal thrombocytopenia

A

Early-onset thrombocytopenia (<72 hours old)

This is the commonest time to present with thrombocytopenia and most cases are seen in preterm neonates born to pregnancies complicated by placental insufficiency (e.g. maternal pre-eclampsia, hypertension or diabetes) and/or chronic fetal hypoxia / idiopathic intrauterine growth restriction. Affected neonates often have a low normal or modestly reduced platelet count at birth (120-200x109/L), which falls to a nadir of 80-100 at day 4 -5 of life before recovering to >150x109/L by 7 -10 days of age.

In contrast to the mild-moderate thrombocytopenia seen in most cases of placental insufficiency, severe early onset severe thrombocytopenia (<50x109/L) requires urgent investigation. The two most important causes are neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT), which is discussed in detail below, and hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy (HIE), latter precipitated by DIC

Late-onset thrombocytopenia (>72 hours old)

This is often severe, develops acutely and may be prolonged. Most cases are secondary to sepsis or necrotising enterocolitis (NEC), often associated with DIC

NAIT (neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia) is the commonest cause of severe thrombocytopenia in well, term infants and is caused by maternal sensitisation to paternally derived fetal platelet antigens
The most feared complication is intracranial haemorrhage
diagnosis of NAIT involves assays to detect maternal anti-HPA antibodies; both parents as well as the infant should be genotyped for the most common HPA alloantigens

All cases of suspected NAIT should undergo cranial ultrasound scans to exclude ICH. Most cases of NAIT resolve within a week without long-term sequelae. Since the platelet count usually falls over the first 4-7 days of life, all thrombocytopenic neonates with NAIT should be monitored until there is a sustained rise in their platelet count into the normal range. In well neonates with documented or suspected NAIT who have no evidence of haemorrhage, transfusion of HPA-compatible platelets is recommended only when the platelet count is <20-30. n the event of major haemorrhage, including ICH, the platelet count should be maintained >50

In some cases, thrombocytopenia may persist for up to 8 -12 weeks; in these babies IVIG is usually a better option than repeated platelet transfusions (and IVIg can be given instead of special plats if can’t get them)

Neonatal autoimmune thrombocytopenia caused by transplacental passage of maternal platelet autoantibodies due to maternal immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) or systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE); Severe thrombocytopenia (<50x109/L) occurs in about 10% neonates with maternal platelet autoantibodies of whom about half have platelet counts of <20x109/L; All neonates with history of maternal thrombocytopenia should have their platelet count checked at birth; if found to be >150x109/L, no further action is necessary. Thrombocytopenic neonates should have their platelet count rechecked after 2-3 days, as the platelet count often drops to its lowest levels at this age, after which it tends to resolve spontaneously by 7 days of age in the majority; When the thrombocytopenia is severe (platelet count <30 x 109/L in the first week of life and <20x109/L thereafter), treatment with IVIG may be useful

also consider TORCH infections, sepsis due to perinatal bacti infection, and seen in up to 86% of cases of trisomy 18, 31% of trisomy 13, 75% of triploidy and 31% of Turner syndrome babies as well as babies with ts21; also congen causes like Bernard Soulier syndrome, congenital amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia (CAMT) or thrombocytopenia with absent radii (TAR) syndrome

138
Q

transfusion threshold - plats (+when not to consider)

A

Offer platelet transfusions to patients with thrombocytopenia who have clinically significant bleeding – and a platelet count below 30×109 per litre.
Use higher platelet thresholds (up to a maximum of 100×109 per litre) for
patients with thrombocytopenia and either of the following:
* severe bleeding (WHO grades 3 and 4)
* bleeding in critical sites, such as the central nervous system (including eyes)

Offer prophylactic platelet transfusions to patients with a platelet count below 10×109
per litre who are not bleeding or having invasive procedures or surgery

Consider prophylactic platelet transfusions to raise the platelet count above 50×109
per litre in patients who are having invasive procedures or surgery

Do not routinely offer prophylactic platelet transfusions to patients with any of the following:
* chronic bone marrow failure
* autoimmune thrombocytopenia
* heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
* thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

Only consider fresh frozen plasma transfusion for patients with clinically significant bleeding but without major haemorrhage if they have
abnormal coagulation test results (for example, prothrombin time ratio or
activated partial thromboplastin time ratio above 1.5).
Do not offer fresh frozen plasma transfusions to correct abnormal
coagulation in patients who:
* are not bleeding (unless they are having invasive procedures or surgery with a
risk of clinically significant bleeding)
* need reversal of a vitamin K antagonist.

Consider cryoprecipitate transfusions for patients without major haemorrhage who have:
* clinically significant bleeding and
* a fibrinogen level below 1.5 g/litre.

139
Q

central venous catheter

A

main three types: a tunnelled central venous catheter, a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) and a subcutaneous (implanted) port; main reasons to have inc dialysis, oncology, TPN, ICU (inc CVP readings)

PICC lines should always have a dressing to secure and prevent infection of the line.
* Dressings for STC lines can be removed when the exit sutures have been removed and the site is healed (21 days)
Transparent semi permeable dressings should be changed every 7 days or when soiled or they are no longer intact, or required

The catheter hub should be cleaned, and allowed to air dry, with 70% alcohol or an alcoholic solution of Chlorhexidine Gluconate before and after the system is accessed

The patency of the catheter will be checked prior to the administration of medications and/or solutions.
* Affirming patency by aspirating for the blood in the line is indicated when the patient is to receive chemotherapy via the line
When sampling a line for routine blood a discard of 3-5 mls should take place depending on
catheter internal volume.
* If obtaining blood for cultures a discard should not take place

PICC routine flush of 10mls sterile sodium chloride 0.9% weekly.
o STC routine flush of 5mls Heparin (50u/5mls) weekly

this is to promote and maintain patency, reduce incidence
of intraluminal infection and to prevent the mixing of incompatible medications

management of catheter infections remains controversial.
* Attempts should be made to make a microbiological diagnosis by culturing blood from all catheter lumens and peripheral samples before commencing antibiotics.
* However, in clinical practice, it is usual for broad-spectrum antibiotics to be initiated while awaiting culture results; if septic thrombophleb then remove CVC and send line tip for culture

catheter lock: If a catheter is not in use, it is locked. For years, it has been thought that the catheter has to be filled with an anticoagulant to prevent catheter occlusion. Heparin has played a key role in locking venous catheters. However, the high number of risks associated with heparin forces us to look for alternatives. A long time ago, 0.9% sodium chloride was already introduced as locking solution in peripheral cannulas. More recently, a 0.9% sodium chloride lock has also been investigated in other types of catheters. Thrombolytic agents have also been studied as a locking solution because their antithrombotic effect was suggested as superior to heparin. Other catheter lock solutions focus on the anti-infective properties of the locks such as antibiotics

antibiotic lock: Antibiotic concentrations must
be 100-1000 times greater to kill bacteria covered in biofilm. The antibiotic lock is
a highly concentrated antibiotic solution administered in a volume sufficient to fill
and dwell in the catheter lumen, can be used to manage certain CVC infections when goal is to salvage line, must be done in discussion with microbiologist

140
Q

central venous access device flushing and procedure for blood sampling

A

Hickman Lines® need flushing at least once a week to maintain patency.
For most children it is practical to flush:
* Before and after drug administration with 5mls Sodium Chloride 0.9%
* After withdrawing blood or flushing off TPN, with 5-10mls Sodium Chloride 0.9%
* Prior to blood sampling (Lipids usually turned off for a minimum of 2 hours) when TPN is running, with 5-10mls Sodium Chloride 0.9%
* At the end of each access with 5mls Heparin Sodium 10 units per ml

Implantable Ports need flushing at least once a month to maintain patency - practical to flush at similar occasions as above but for heparin use 100 units per ml not 10

PICCs need flushing at least once a week to maintain patency, options to do so as above, heparin may be used

In babies you can halve the volumes above

Prior to taking blood samples for U&Es, FBC etc, the CVAD should be aspirated and the
first 2-5mls of fluid (depending on the size of the CVAD) should be discarded, UNLESS
being used for blood cultures

141
Q

blood bottle - 7 colours for what, contain what, how to use and how much they need to be filled; 7 things that need to go on ice; correct order of draw

A

purple for tests where whole blood is needed for analysis (FBC, ESR); contains EDTA, an anticoag that works by binding Ca and other metal ions (hence why also used as a chelator); 1 ml is enough for FBC, full bottle needed for ESR; invert 8 times to mix; pink work like purple but for transfusion lab (G+S, crossmatch)

blue is for haematology tests involving clotting system, where inactivated whole blood is needed; contains citrate which is reversible anticoag by binding Ca ions; bottle needs to be filled to line so these coag tests can be done accurately and not eg over-anticoagulated - machines are calibrated for set ratio of blood to anticoag; for INR, PT, apTT, D-Dimer etc; note EDTA not reversible where citrate is, hence why there are two different bottles

yellow for biochem; contains silica particles and serum separating gel, former activates clotting and second floats between cell and plasma layers to physically separate them; at least 1mL needed, a full bottle can get about 12 tests

grey is for biochem tests where whole blood is needed - only 2, glucose and lactate; has an anticoag and an antiglycolytic agent to stop glucose breakdown; 1 mL needed for lactate, only small amount needed for glucose

red is for biochem tests that need serum like yellow but where the separator might affect the test; varies based on hospital but eg some viral serology, tox screens etc

green is used for biochem that requires heparinised plasma/whole blood to run; ammonia, insulin, sometimes renin/aldos

things that need to go on ice: ammonia, PTH, ACTH, plasma metanephrines, porphyria screen, calcitonin, insulin

correct order of draw is: cultures, sodium citrate (blue), serum (red, yellow), heparin (green), EDTA, grey

142
Q

explaining different kinds of access lines

A

midlines are inserted in the arm and stay in for up to 4 weeks, and they don’t go in as far as central venous access, generally going as far as the top of the brachial vein; they can be useful if central line infected as can replace said line and aren’t as central; less risks than a PICC line but can only stay in for 4 weeks instead of weeks to months

CVCs are typically smaller length lines, around 15-30cm or so. Preferably you stick it in a neck vein, usually the IJ but can do subclavian, and can even go femoral vein in the instance the neck is a no go area
quick to insert and easy to train to do. Unfortunately it’s got the potential to be dirty. You’ve got now got a direct path from skin to large vessel, so you can’t leave it in as long as the others - generally change every 7 days

PICC line is a Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter. As the name suggests you stick it in a peripheral vein in the upper arm, such as the basilic. It then runs up the arm, through the subclavian and sits again at the SVC they can sit in the arm for weeks to months

hickman is a type of tunnelled CVC. Another form of a tunnelled CVC is a permacath used in dialysis

get inserted (usually subclavian and IJ) and are “tunneled” subcutaneously for a certain length before coming back out. This means it gets an extra tether by the skin and is very secure. These can stay for months even years.

duration of need guides which you go for: CVCs or midlines are shorter (weeks) , PICCs for longer (weeks to months) and tunneled (months to years), is the rough guideline

infected lines are generally removed, then infection treated and new line put in once BC negative; however, another option is to try and save the line by locking it with abx, essentially giving abx and not flushing afterwards so it stays in the line

143
Q

ABO inheritance

A

The ABO blood group antigens are encoded by one genetic locus, the ABO locus, which has three alternative (allelic) forms—A, B, and O. A child receives one of the three alleles from each parent, giving rise to six possible genotypes and four possible blood type - to be type O needs to inherit O from both parents, otherwise the other letter they inherit will form the blood group

144
Q

haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Presentation

hydrops fetalis
pallor, poor feeding, cardiac failure
jaundice / unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (very suggestive of a haemolytic process)
may be asymptomatic

FBC blood film and reticulocyte count (normal reticulocyte count in the newborn is 110-450 x109/l on day 1 of life falling to 10-80 x109/l by 1 week of age)
blood group and direct Coomb’s test (DCT)
serum bilirubin

commonest cause is ABO incompatibility
maternal alloantibodies (eg Rh, Kell) can cross the placenta and cause haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) and so all infants born to women who have clinically significant antibodies should be closely observed for evidence of HDN. A DCT should be performed and if positive, haemoglobin and bilirubin levels should be measured
IF DCT is positive, it is important to establish both the maternal and infant blood group and maternal antibody screen

Anti-D prophylaxis is being increasingly used antenatally. This can cross the placenta and bind to fetal cells; consequently, up to 3-6% of D positive cord or infant samples will have a positive DCT in the absence of significant haemolysis.

manage jaundice with UV light as otherwise would if at treatment line; exchange transfusion if severe hyperbili or if v anaemic

Give folic acid to all babies with haemolytic disease of the newborn, from 14 days of
age or on discharge until weaned onto a mixed diet.
- Dose: 0.5 mg once daily PO
- Use intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) as an adjunct to continuous multiple phototherapy in cases of Rhesus or ABO haemolytic disease when the serum bilirubin continues to rise by > 8.5 micromol/L per hour

145
Q

haemolytic disease of the newborn prevention

A

Following potentially sensitising events, anti-D Ig should be administered as soon as possible and always within 72 h of the event. If, exceptionally, this deadline has not been met some protection may be offered if anti-D Ig is given up to 10 days after the sensitising event

In pregnancies <12 weeks gestation, anti-D Ig prophylaxis is only indicated following ectopic pregnancy, molar pregnancy, therapeutic termination of pregnancy and in cases of uterine bleeding where this is repeated, heavy or associated with abdominal pain. The minimum dose should be 250 IU. A test for fetomaternal haemorrhage (FMH) is not required
For potentially sensitising events between 12 and 20 weeks gestation, a minimum dose of 250 IU should be administered within 72 h of the event. A test for FMH is not required

For potentially sensitising events after 20 weeks gestation, a minimum anti-D Ig dose of 500 IU should be administered within 72 h of the event. A test for FMH is required

Appropriate tests for FMH should be carried out for all D negative, previously non-sensitised, pregnant women who have had a potentially sensitising event after 20 weeks of gestation, and additional dose(s) of anti-D Ig should be administered as necessary

All D negative pregnant women who have not been previously sensitised should be offered routine antenatal prophylaxis with anti-D Ig (RAADP) either with a single dose regimen at around 28 weeks, or two-dose regimen given at 28 and 34 weeks

Following birth, ABO and Rh D typing should be performed on cord blood and if the baby is confirmed to be D positive, all D negative, previously non-sensitised, women should be offered at least 500 IU of anti-D Ig within 72 h following delivery. Maternal samples should be tested for FMH and additional dose(s) given as guided by FMH tests

146
Q

splenic trauma

A

splenic rupture can lead to large intraperitoneal haemorrhage, rapidly leading to fatal haemorrhagic shock

majority of cases of splenic injury are secondary to abdominal trauma – particularly blunt trauma. Common situations in which the spleen is injured include seat-belt injuries in road traffic collisions and falls onto the left side
minority of cases are iatrogenic, or secondary due to underlying splenomegaly from haematological malignancy or infective causes (such as Epstein-Barr virus). In these cases, as the spleen grows, the capsule stretches and thins

patients may complain of abdominal pain, however a proportion will only present with the clinical features of hypovolaemic shock. Only work-up imaging will confirm the diagnosis.

On examination, patients may have left upper quadrant tenderness and / or peritonism (often becoming more generalised as the blood loss increases). Free blood can irritate the diaphragm and cause a radiating left shoulder pain

Patients who are haemodynamically unstable with peritonism following trauma have abdominal bleeding until proven otherwise and require immediate laparotomy.

Those who are haemodynamically stable with suspected abdominal injury will need an urgent CT chest-abdomen-pelvis with intravenous contrast

grading as follows:
1
– Capsular tear <1cm parenchymal depth
– Subcapsular haematoma <10% surface area
2
– Capsular tear 1-3cm parenchymal depth
– Subcapsular 10-50% surface area, or intraparenchymal <5cm
3
– Capsular tear >3cm parenchymal depth, or any tear involving trabecular vessels
– Subcapsular >50% surface area, or intraparenchymal >5cm, or any expanding or ruptured haematoma.
4
– Laceration involving segmental or hilar vessels, devascularising >25% of the spleen
5
– Completely shattered spleen or hilar vascular injury, devascularising the entire spleen

Patients who are haemodynamically unstable* or with a grade 5 injury (a shattered spleen or major hilar vascular injury) need urgent laparotomy and splenectomy.

Haemodynamically stable patients with grade 1–3 injuries without active extravasation can be considered for conservative treatment. They should be resuscitated using the principle of permissive hypotension, admitted to a high dependency area for observation, and have serial abdominal examinations for any evidence of deterioration, with a low threshold for repeat imaging

Splenic artery embolisation by interventional radiology is an important alternative management option, where available, potentially negating the need for laparotomy and preserving splenic function. This should be used haemodynamically stable with high grade splenic injuries.

For multifocal injuries, a proximal embolisation involving the splenic artery can be used, whilst in more focal bleeding, a targeted distal embolisation can be performed

main complications following splenectomy include intra-abdominal collections, thrombocytosis* (typically transient), and Overwhelming Post-Splenectomy Infection; advice from a haematologist for ongoing management (e.g. aspirin therapy) should be taken if the platelet count rises above 1000 x109/L

Consideration should be given for prophylactic vaccinations (against Strep Pneumoniae, Haemophilus Influenzae B (HIB) and Meningococcus) and prophylactic PenV

147
Q

approach to bleeding infant

A

majority of haemorrhagic problems in the neonatal period are due to acquired haemostatic defects, either thrombocytopenia or coagulation disorders

excessive oozing from venepuncture / heel prick is the commonest presenting feature
intracranial / extracranial haemorrhage - accounts for a third of bleeding reported in haemophilia during the first month of life and is common in severe FVII, X and XIII deficiencies
umbilical bleeding / delayed cord separation - classically associated with homozygous FI or FXIII deficiency and relatively uncommon in haemophilia
GI bleeding is uncommon
NAIT may present as an isolated purpuric rash in an otherwise well neonate

coagulation screen, FBC and film - requires 1ml citrated blood for coagulation plus 0.5 mls EDTA sample for FBC and film
heel pricks shouldn’t be used for coags

A cord blood sample should be sent for relevant factor assays where the neonate:

is male and may have haemophilia
has a parent with moderate/severe VWD (e. Type II VWD, Type III VWD or Type I VWD with baseline VWF RiCof <20%)
may have inherited a bleeding disorder that has been defined as moderate or severe
has excessive bleeding or bruising at time of delivery

ddx:
DIC (often sepsis related), vit K def, liver disease, haemophilia A/B, VWD; also thrombocytopenia (see separate card)
For infants presenting with isolated gastrointestinal bleed, intussusception can be a differential

For DIC, treatment of the underlying cause (including management of sepsis, correction of acidosis etc.) is paramount. Correction of coagulation using appropriate blood products should occur if the patient is bleeding or at very high risk of significant bleeding

Can give oral vit K if suspect congen bleeding disorder, hold giving IM until excluded with factor essays

148
Q

vitamin K deficiency bleeding

A

common cause of haemorrhagic disease of newborn

Vitamin K is a mainly synthesized in adults by gut bacteria. Newborns, have minimal vitamin K reserves in their liver during the time of delivery and are not able to synthesize vitamin K due to a sterile gut; breast milk also does not contain enough vitamin K

Early: Occurs within the first 24 hours of birth, can also occur in-utero or during delivery.
Classical: 1 week of neonatal life (2nd through 7th day)
Late: From 8 days to up to 6-12 months

  1. Full blood count- will have normal platelet levels (1.5-4 lacs/cubic mm)
  2. Clotting profile:

International normalized ratio (INR) greater than or equal to 4
Prothrombin time (PT) more than 4 times the normal - increased due to decreased activity of factor 7
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) will also be increased due to decreased activity of factors 2,9 and 10
Clotting time will be increased due to clotting factor deficiency
Fibrinogen levels will remain normal

Should get CrUSS to exclude intracranial bleed

Needs oral or IM vit K to reverse coagulopathy -> follow protocol

Babies routinely given prophylactic vit K to prevent:
Healthy Neonate of 36 weeks
gestation or older or preterm weighing >2.5kg gets 1mg IM (once) or 2mg oral (at birth and d4-7, with rpt for exclusively breastfed babies at 1 month of life); preterm not PO but can get IV 1mg

Preterm neonate of less than 36
weeks gestation and weighing less
than 2.5k gets IM 0.4mg/kg

Parents of healthy term babies have the right to refuse consent for vitamin K prophylaxis by any or all routes.
Where a baby is clearly at high risk of bleeding however, vitamin K is required as treatment rather than prophylaxis and should always be administered in the best interests of the baby.

Such cases would include:

Prematurity
Sepsis
Liver disease
Maternal treatment with enzyme inducing drugs including e.g. Anticonvulsants and Rifampicin
Prolonged Prothrombin time

149
Q

blood donor eligibility

A

To donate blood you need to:

be generally fit and well
be aged between 17 and 65
weigh between 7 stone 12 lbs (50kg) and 25 stone (158kg)
have suitable veins
meet all donor eligibility criteria

You can’t donate blood if you:

have had most types of cancer
have received blood, platelets, plasma or any other blood products after 1 January 1980
have tested positive for HIV
have had an organ transplant
are a hepatitis B carrier
are a hepatitis C carrier
have injected non-prescribed drugs including body-building and injectable tanning agents.

You may have to wait up to 3 months before you can donate if:

you have had anal sex with a new partner in the last 3 months

you finished taking Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) or Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) in the last 3 months
in the last 3 months you have had sexual contact with a partner who is:

HIV positive
HTLV positive
a hepatitis B carrier
a hepatitis C carrier
syphilis positive
has received money or drugs for sex
has injected non-prescribed drugs including body-building and injectable tanning agents

You will need to wait before you can donate if you:

feel ill
are pregnant or had a baby in the last 6 months
have recently got a tattoo or piercing
travel to and from certain countries outside the UK

Men can give blood every 12 weeks and women can give blood every 16 weeks.