Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the causes of a microcytic anaemia?

A

Fe deficiency
Thalassaemia
Chronic disease

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2
Q

What are the FBC/hematinic findings suggestive of Fe deficiency anaemia?

A

FBC - Hb low, MCV low, MCH low
Haem - Fe low, Ferritin low, transferrin high

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3
Q

How is Thalassaemia classified?

A

Alpha
Beta

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4
Q

What is Thalassaemia?

A

Gene disorder causing decreased/absent synthesis of a/b globin chains

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5
Q

What are the subtypes of alpha thalassaemia?

A

Vary depending on how many genes deleted
1 - minima
2 - minor
3 - HbH
4 - Bart’s

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6
Q

Describe alpha thalassaemia minima

A

aa/a-
Low Hb/MCV
Normal RDW
Asymptomatic

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7
Q

Describe alpha thalassaemia minor

A

aa/– OR a-/a-
cis deletions more common in asians –> risk hydrops
Low Hb/MCV
Raised RDW
Asymptomatic

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8
Q

Describe alpha thalassaemia HbH

A

a-/–
VERY low Hb/MCV
VERY raised RDW
Haemolytic anaemia after birth

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9
Q

How is thalassaemia diagnosed?

A

HPLC/electrophoresis

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10
Q

How is alpha thalassaemia HbH managed?

A

Fe transfusion
Splenectomy (splenomegaly)

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11
Q

Describe alpha thalassaemia Bart’s

A

–/–
severe intrauterine haemolytic anaemia
fetal hydrops
fatal in utero

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12
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of thalassaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive
2x alpha genes on Chr 16
1x beta gene on Chr 11

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13
Q

What are the subtypes of beta thalassaemia?

A

Minor/trait
Intermedia
Major

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14
Q

Describe beta thalassaemia trait

A

B2/-
Low Hb/MCV/MCH
Target cells
Clinically asymptomatic

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15
Q

Describe beta thalassaemia intermedia

A

B0/B2 OR B+/B-
High HbF
Low Hb
VERY low MCV/MCH
Splenomegaly, bone changes
Variable transfusion dependency

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16
Q

Describe beta thalassaemia major

A

B0/B0

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17
Q

Describe beta thalassaemia major

A

B0/B0
HbF >90%
VERY low MCV/MCH
Severe haemolytic anaemia
-chronic transfusion dependency
Hepatosplenomegaly, bone changes

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18
Q

How should beta thalassaemia be treated?

A

Folate supplementation
Chronic transfusion w/ desferroxamine chelation
Ascorbate (removes Fe in urine)
GH Tx for endocrine complications
Bone marrow transplant (curative)

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19
Q

Why is excess Fe problematic in thalassaemia?

A

Causes endocrinopathy
-diabetes
-thyroid/adrenal/pituitary problems

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20
Q

What are the major complications of thalassaemia?

A

Aplastic crises if Parvovirus B19 infection
Osteopenia

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21
Q

What causes anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Chronic inflammation –>
Fe sequestration in macrophage stores –>
Reduced erthyropoiesis

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22
Q

What are the FBC/hematinic findings suggestive of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Can be micro (late) OR normocytic (initial)
LOW transferrin

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23
Q

How is anaemia of chronic disease treated?

A

Treat underlying cause
Exogenous EPO (cancer, CKD)
IV Fe (not PO)

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24
Q

What are the causes of a macrocytic anaemia?

A

Folate deficiency
B12 deficiency
EtoH
Hypothyroidism
Drug-induced
Myelodyplastic syndromes

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25
What are the causes of Folate deficiency?
Poor diet (folate in foliage) Increased demand (pregnancy, dialysis, liver disease) Inhibited (antifolates) Malabsorption (resection, coeliac)
26
What commonly prescribed drugs are antifolates?
MTX Phenytoin (EtoH)
27
What are the FBC/hematinic findings suggestive of Folate deficiency?
Megaloblastic anaemia Folate low B12 normal Hypersegmented neutrophils on blood film
28
How is Folate deficiency treated?
Folate replacement w/ B12
29
What is the potential complication of folate replacement alone?
Precipitation of subacute combined degeneration of cord if B12 drops too low
30
In which patients should prophylactic folate replacement be considered?
Pregnancy Long term MTX usage
31
What are the causes of B12 deficiency?
Pure vegan diet Defect in processing pathway/malabsorption -pernicious anaemia -gastric bypass -terminal ileitis (Chron's) -pancreatic insufficiency
32
What is Pernicious anaemia?
Autoimmune destruction of parietal cells Associated autoimmune disease (vitilligo, Hashimoto's) Increased risk of gastric ca
33
How can B12 deficiency present clinically?
Glossitis + angular stomatitis Sensory polyneuropathy Cognitive impairment Optic atrophy (nutritional) SACD Osteoporosis
34
What are the FBC/hematinic findings suggestive of B12 deficiency?
Megaloblastic anaemia Folate normal B12 low Hypersegmented neutrophils
35
How should B12 deficiency be treated?
B12 img IM inj for life
36
What are the causes of a normocytic anaemia?
Haemolysis Underproduction
37
How can haemolytic anaemias be distinguished from underproductive anaemias?
Corrected reticulocyte count <3% = underproduction -would be elevated in haemolysis
38
What are the two types of haemolysis?
Intravascular -RBCs broken down w/i vessels Extravascular -RBCs destroyed by reticuloendothelial system (macrophages liver/spleen/LN)
39
What is a major complication of intravascular haemolysis?
Tubular necrosis 2o haemosiderin
40
What is Hereditary Spherocytosis?
Autosomal dominant condition causing spherocytosis of RBC -prone to haemolysis
41
Describe the presentation, ix, tx and cx of hereditary spherocytosis
Mild haemolytic anaemia, high unconjungated bilirubin Ix - SDS-PAGE (electrophoresis) Tx - Folate, splenectomy Cx - B19 crisis
42
What is Sickle Cell disease?
Autosomal recessive mutations of B-chain Hb
43
What are the two types of Sickle cell disease?
SC trait Sickle cell disease/anaemia
44
Describe Sickle Cell Trait
Heterozygous mutation Generally asymptomatic Protective against malaria
45
Describe Sickle Cell Anaemia
Homozygous mutation (can co-exist w/ B-thal) Fragile cells --> haemolysis (both intra/extra)
46
How does Sickle Cell Anaemia present?
Facial/cranial bone abrormalities Hepatomegaly Autoinfarction of spleen Aplastic crises (B19 risk) Vaso-occlusive crisis
47
What is a Sickle Cell crisis?
Vaso-occlusion in microcirculation caused by extensive sickling Precipitated by: -hypoxia -cold -dehydration -infection
48
How can sickle cell crises present?
Dactylitis Avascular necrosis Acute chest syndrome Renal papillary necrosis Pain CNS infarct --> stroke/seizures Priapism
49
How is priapism treated in sickle cell crises?
A-agonist OR blood aspiration OR saline irrigation
50
What is the acute chest syndrome in sickle cell crisis?
Vaso-occlusion in pulmonary microcirculation w/ 2o infiltrates Presents with: -fever -cx pain -SOB -wheeze -cough -tachypnoea -pain
51
What are the complications of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell crisis?
Acute - ventilation, death (MCC) Chronic - fibrosis --> Pulm HTN --> cor pulmonale
52
How should an acute chest syndrome in sickle cell crisis be managed?
Bronchodilators Abx Transfusion Ventilation Exchange transfusion
53
What are the chronic complications of Sickle Cell Anaemia?
Auto-splenectomy/infarction -increased risk of infection w/ encapsulated organisms Sickle cell retinopathy -non-proliferative OR proliferative
54
How is Sickle cell Retinopathy managed?
Non-proliferative - Hydroxyurea Proliferative - anti-VEGF, lasers, surgery
55
What is a sequestration crisis?
Pooling of blood in spleen +/- liver --> severe anaemia + shock -mainly occurs in children -requires uregent transfusion
56
What are the FBC/hematinic findings suggestive of B12 deficiency?
Normocytic anaemia Sickle cells w/ target cells on film Howell-Jolly bodies on film Bili high
57
How should Sickle Cell anaemia be ix?
HPLC/electrophoresis PCR
58
How is Sickle cell anaemia treated?
Hydroxyurea (reduces f of crisis) Immunization/PPx abx Folate supplement Transfusions Bone marrow transplant CURATIVE
59
What is G6PD deficiency?
XLR deficiency of G6PD Causes haemolytic crises
60
What are the precipitants for a G6PD crisis?
Drugs (aspirin, sulphonamides, quinine, dapstone) Fava beans Henna tattoo Infections
61
How does G6PD present?
Sudden haemolytic crises -anaemia -jaundice -flank pain (Hb nephrotoxic)
62
How should G6PD be ix?
Blood film - Heinz bodies, bite cells Enzyme assay
63
How is G6PD managed?
Self limiting Transfusion if severe
64
What is autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
Ig directed RBC destruction -mediated by macrophages IgG or IGM disease
65
How should autoimmune haemolytic anaemia be ix?
DIRECT coomb's test + agglutination -warm = IgG -cold = IgM
66
Describe IgG autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
WARM agglutinin Extravascular, central body Associated w/ autoimmune disease/drugs
67
How should IgG autoimmune haemolytic anaemia be managed?
Treat underyling cause Steroids IVIG Splenectomy
68
Describe IgM autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
COLD agglutinin Intravascular, peripheries Associated w/ EBV, HBV, mycoplasma
69
What is Porphyria?
Inherited metabolic disorders caused by abnormal heam synthesis
70
How dose acute intermittent porphyria present?
20-40ys Painful abdomen Polyneuropathy Port-wine urine on sunlight exposure Psych disturbances PPT by drugs (P450 inducers, EtOh, starvation)
71
How is acute intermittent porphyria treated?
Glucose Heme
72
How does porphyria cutanea tarda present?
Photosensitive blistering milla -slow to heal -hyperpigmentation
73
How should porphyria cutanea tarda be ix and rx?
Ix - uroporphyinogen (deficient), pink fluorescence of urine, ferritin Rx - Chloroquine, venesection
74
What are the potential reactions to a blood product transfusion?
Non-immune mediated (hypoCa, CCf, infection, hyper K) Acute -febrile reaction -minor allergic -anaphylaxis -acute haemolysis -TACO -TRALI (ARDS) Chronic (delayed haemolysis) GVHD (ciclosporin)
75
What are the common myeloproliferative disorders?
Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia Polycythaemia Vera Myelofibrosis Essential thrombocytopenia
76
What gene abnormality is high risk for CML?
Philadelphia t9:22
77
How does CML present?
Fatigue Wt loss Night sweats Priapism Tinnitus Maturing granulocytes
78
How should CML be investigated?
FISH/karyotype/PCR FBC -WBC 50-400 -Plt normal/high -Hb low Film - <10% blasts BM hypercellular
79
What is the treatment for CML?
Imatinib (tyrosine kinase inhibitor) Hydroxycarbamide
80
What is the progression of CML?
Chronic --> accelerated --> blast crisis (ALL/AML)
81
How does PV present?
Viscosity headache Dizziness CVA Pruritis Ruddy complexion VTE Bleeding Hepatosplenomegaly Gouty arthritis Peptic ulcers
81
What gene mutation is high risk for PV?
JAK2 (95%)
82
What are the 2o causes of PV?
High altitude RCC Von Hippel-Lindau PKD COPD Heart disease
83
What is the progression of PV?
15% progress to MF
84
How should PV be investigated?
Flow cytometry FBC -high Hb -high platelets -low neutrophils Low EPO
85
How is PV treated?
Venesction Low dose aspirin Hydroxycarbamide
86
How does MF present?
Lethargy Wt loss Night sweats Fever Pallor Hepatosplenomegaly High urate
87
How should MF be investigated?
FBC -high platelets -high WCC BM biopsy -fibrosis -dry tap Teardrop cells on film High urate/LDH
88
How is MF treated?
Hydroxycarbamide Thalidomide
89
How does ET present?
Thrombosis/bleeding -digital ischaemia -CVA -budd-chiari
90
How should ET be investigated?
Screen for JAK2 (50%) High platelets (>500) Calreticulin (20%)
91
How should ET be treated?
a-interferon (avoided in pregnancy) Hydroxycarbamide Low dose aspirin Anagrelide
92
What are the common types of Leukaemia?
Acute Myeloid Leukaemia Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia Myelodysplastic Syndromes
93
What is a Leukaemoid reaction?
Leukocytosis 2o stress/infection/haemolysis as opposed to Leukaemia
94
How can a Leukaemoid reaction be distinguished from Leukaemia?
Clinical context High Leukocyte Alanine Phosphatase Dohle bodies LEFT shift
95
What are the risk factors for AML?
Down's Radiation Benzene exposure (smoking, paints/solvents, gasoline) Mutations -t(15;17) - good prognosis -trisomies - poor prognosis
96
How is AML classified?
FAB classification (M0-M7) -M3 = Acute promyelocytic -M7 = Acute megakaryoblastic
97
What are the key features of Acute promyelocytic leukaemia?
10% of AML t(15;17) can cause DIC treated w/ retinoids good prognosis
98
How does AML present?
Older patients Bone marrow failure Pallor Fatigue Exertional SOB Recurrent infection Bleeding Gum infiltrates (M5)
99
How should AML be investigated?
Platelets (low) Blood film -Blasts >20% -auer rods Immunophenotyping
100
How is AML treated?
CTX (80% remission) Platelet/RBC tranfusion Bone marrow transplant
101
What are the two main subtypes of ALL?
Bcell-ALL (most common) Tcell-ALL
102
How does ALL present?
2-4yrs Weakness Bruising Otitis media Bone pain Enlarged LN Headache
103
What factors are suggestive of poor prognosis in ALL?
FAB L3 type T/B cell surface marker Philadelphia t(9;22) Age <2 or >10 Male CNS involvement Initial WBC >100 Non-caucasian
104
What factors are suggestive of good prognosis in ALL?
FAB L1 type Low initial WBC del9p t(12;21) t(1;19)
105
How is ALL treated?
4 phase CTX
106
How does CLL present?
>50 y/o ASYMPTOMATIC Constitutional sx Immune thrombocytopenia (bleed) Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (10%) Hypogammaglobulinaemia (infections) Red cell aplasia Angioedema
107
What is Richter's transformation?
Transformation of CLL into more aggressive large cell lymphoma -3% of cases
108
Which cell-line is most commonly implicated in CLL?
>95% B-cell clonal
109
What factors suggest a poor prognosis in CLL?
Male >70 y/o Lymphocyte >50 Prolymphocyte >12 Doubling of lymphocytes <12mo Raised LDH CD38, TP52, del17p
110
What factors suggest a good prognosis in CLL?
Del13q -most common mutation in CLL (50%)
111
What findings suggestive of CLL can be seen on a blood film?
Lymphocytes +++ Smear/smudge cells
112
How should CLL be treated?
Watch and wait High WCC NOT an indication to treat Treat when other cell lines start to fall -Fludarabine -Ciclosporin -Rituzimab -Ibrutinib
113
What is Hairy Cell Leukaemia?
Subtype of CLL
114
How does Hairy Cell Leukaemia present?
Pancytopenia Splenomegaly Skin vasculitis
115
How should Hairy Cell Leukaemia be investigated?
Bone marrow biopsy -dry tap TRAP stain +ve
116
How should Hairy Cell Leukaemia be treated?
CTX Immunotherapy
117
What is Myelodysplasia?
Dysplasia in 2 or more cell lines
118
How does Myelodysplasia present?
Elderly Anaemia 30% progress to AML
119
How should Myelodysplasia be treated?
Supportive CTX not effective
120
When should an enlarged LN be investigated?
If LN >1cm present for >6/52 needs excision biopsy
121
What staging system is used for lymphoma?
Ann-Arbor 1 - (single group) 2 - 2+ regions on one side of diaphragm 3 - Both sides of diaphragm 4 - Extralymphatic manifestations
122
What are the two main types of Lymphoma?
Hodgkin's (rarer) Non-Hodgkin's
123
At what ages does Hodgkin's lymphoma present?
Bimodal distribution -15-35 ->60
124
What are the main histological subtypes of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Nodular sclerosing (70%, women) Mixed cellularity (20%) Lymphocyte predominant (5%) Lymphocyte depleted (rare)
125
What factors suggest a poor prognosis in Hodgkin's lymphoma?
B sx Age >45 Stage IV Hb <10.5 Male Albumin <40 WBC >15
126
How should Hodgkin's lymphoma be treated?
External beam radiation therapy Brentuximab ABVD chemo
127
What are the common subtypes of Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Waldenstrom macroglobulinaemia Follicular Mantle cell Marginal zone Diffuse large B-cell Burkitt
128
How does Walendstrom macroglobulinaemia present?
>50 Headache Hepatosplenomegaly Visual disturbance Cold AIHA Hyperviscosity Raynauld
129
How should waldenstrom macroglobulinaemia be treated?
Exchange therapy Ciclosporin
130
What are the key features of mantle cell lymphoma?
Presents >60 y/o Widespread (LN/liver/GI) Aggressive w/ poor prognosis
131
What are the key features of marginal zone lymphoma?
Extranodal -gastric MALT -thyroid -salivary nodes -lungs -spleen
132
What are the key features of B-cell lymphoma?
V. common (40%) Fast/high grade B-sx Spreads to GI/testis/bone Can require surgical removal of masses
133
What is Paraproteinaemia?
Group of related diseases characterized by excess proliferation of Ig secreting cells Spectrum from MGUS to myeloma
134
How does myeloma present?
CRAB sx -hypercalcaemia -renal failure -anaemia (bone marrow failure, other penias) -bone pain (lumbar spine) Amyloidosis
135
What are the sx of Amyloidosis?
Peripheral neuropathy Macroglossia Cardiomegaly Carpal tunnel syndrome Hyperviscosity Encapsulated bacteria infection
136
How should suspected myeloma be investigated?
Film - Roleaux formation, anaemia (norm/norm) Raised ESR, hyperCa, AKI SPEP (M-spike) UPEP (10% no M-spike, Bence-Jones) Serum free light chain Bx/radiology
137
How should myeloma be managed?
HyperCa - IVI, bisphosphonates Anaemia - EPO Plasma exchange, dialysis Chemo/radiotherapy Autograft stem cell therapy
138
Which clotting factors affect APPT?
12, 11, 9, 8, 10 5, 2, 1 (intrinsic)
139
Which clotting factors affect PT?
7, 10, 5, 2, 1 (extrinsic)
140
What can prolong the Thrombin time?
Heparin Fibrinogen deficiency
141
What clotting factor does LMWH work against?
Factor Xa
142
What are the common causes of thrombocytopenia?
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia DIC
143
What are the causes of ITP?
1o - IgG antibodies 2o - SLE, leukaemia, quinine, heparin, HIV, hep C, antiphospholipid syndrome
144
What is Evans Syndrome?
Autoimmune condition causing ITP + AIHA
145
How does ITP present?
Acute form (children) -self-limiting post viral infection Chronic form (adults) -women of childbearing age -purpura, epistaxis, menorrhagia
146
How is ITP investigated?
Dx of exclusion (low platelet and normal clotting)
147
How is ITP treated?
Steroids IVIg Splenectomy Rituximab (if refractory) NOT platelet transfusion
148
What is thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura?
Congenital lack of VWF cleaving protein (ADAMTS13) Leads to platelet microthrombi that shear RBC --> microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
149
How does TTP present?
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia Thrombocytopenia Neurological abnormalities Fever Renal dysfunction
150
How is TTP treated?
Steroids Plasma exchange Rituximab AVOID platelet transfusion
151
What is Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome?
Vasculitis common in children -90% post E.coli (0157:H7 infection) -10% atypical Most common cause of AKI in paeds
152
How does HUS present?
Profuse diarrhoea --> bloody stools 1-3/7 later Abdo pain Vomiting Fever Rash
153
How is HUS treated?
Supportive therapy +/- dialysis
154
What is DIC?
Consumptive coagulopathy Microthrombi and bleeds
155
How is DIC treated?
Platelet replacement Cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen + factors 8, 13, VWF) FFP RBC
156
How does thrombophilia present?
Thrombosis -DVT -CVA -VST -PE -Budd-Chiari -MI
157
What are the inherited causes of thrombophilia?
Factor V LEiden Prothrombin 20210A gene mutation Protein C or S deficiency Antithrombin III deficiency
158
What are the acquired causes of thrombophilia?
Tamoxifen Olanzapine HRT OCP
159
What is Von-Willebrand's disease?
AD inherited deficiency of VWF
160
What are the subtypes of VWD?
Type 1 (80%) - partial deficiency Type 2 - abnormal form Type 3 - total lack of factor (AR)
161
How does VWD present?
Mild mucosal/skin bleeding
162
How should VWD be investigated?
APTT (high) but PT normal Bleeding time increased Ristocetin test
163
How is VWD treated?
Desompressin (increases VWF release)
164
What is the action of Von-Willebrand factor?
Promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium Stabilizes FVIII
165
What is haemophilia?
X-linked deficiency of clotting factors
166
What are the two main types of haemophilia?
A - lack of factor 8 B - lack of factor 9
167
How does haemophilia present?
DEEP TISSUE BLEEDING Haemarthroses Haematomas
168
How should haemophilia be investigated?
Prolonged APTT ONLY
169
How should haemophilia be treated?
Minor - elevation, pressure, TXA Severe - recombinant FVIII/FIX
170
How does unfractionated heparin work?
Unfractionated - Inhibits Xa + IIa LMWH - binds ATIII Xa
171
What reversal agent is available for heparin?
Protamine sulphate -UFH full reversal -LMWH partial reversal -Fondaparinux no reversal
172
What are the s/e of heparin?
HIT (not Fondaparinux) Osteoporosis HyperK
173
What are the indications for DOACs?
Non-valvular AF VTE
174
How are DOACs eliminated?
Dabigatran (renal) Rivaroxaban (liver) Apixaban (faecal)
175
What drugs commonly interact w/ DOACs?
Antiepileptics Anti-retrovirals Anti-fungals Rifampicin
176
How do DOACs work?
Dabigatran - inhibits thrombin Others - inhibit Xa
177
What reversal agent is available for DOACs?
Beriplex (PCC) Dabigatran - Idarucizumab
178
How does Warfarin work?
Vit K antagonist Reduces II, VII, IX, X, protein C
179
What are the s/e of Warfarin?
Haemorrhage Teratogenic (can be used in breastfeeding) Skin necrosis Purple toes
180
What factors can cause a high INR in warfarin pts?
Change in diet Liver disease ODEVICES -omeprazole -disulfiram -erythromycin -valproate -isoniazide -cipro/cimetidine -acute EtoH -sulphonamide PCBRAS inducers Cranberry juice NSAIDs Foods high in Vit K (leafy greens)
181
What reversal agents are available for Warfarin?
Vit K 4 factor prothrombin complex
182
When should Warfarin be used instead of a DOAC, and vice-versa?
Warfarin - CrCl <30, extracranial bleeding, poor compliance, wt >120kg, arterial thrombosis DOAC - non valvular AF, VTE, prev. ICH, polypharmacy, good control