Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

when might MCV be normal in anaemia?

A
  • normocytic anaemia

- mixed microcytic AND macrocytic anaemia

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2
Q

causes of microcytic anaemia?

A
  • Fe def
  • chronic disease
  • thalassaemia
  • sideroblastic anaemia
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3
Q

causes of macrocytic anaemia?

A
  • B12 def
  • folate def
  • XS alcohol
  • reticulocytosis
  • hypothyroidism
  • multiple myeloma
  • myeloproliferative disorders
  • myelodysplasia
  • aplastic anaemia
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4
Q

causes of normocytic anaemia?

A
  • chronic disease
  • haemolytic anaemia
  • acute blood loss
  • marrow infiltration
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5
Q

where is iron absorbed? which form is it in when it gets absorbed?

A
  • upper small bowel

- ferrous (Fe2+)

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6
Q

what are the components of an iron profile?

A
  • serum iron
  • serum TIBC
  • serum ferritin
  • transferrin saturation
  • serum soluble transferrin receptors
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7
Q

describe the iron profile for someone who is iron deficient

A
  • low serum iron
  • high TIBC
  • low serum ferritin
  • low transferrin
  • high transferrin receptors
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8
Q

what is the single best blood marker for iron deficiency?

A
  • serum ferritin

- (but be careful bc it’s also an acute phase reactant)

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9
Q

what might cause iron overload?

A
  • haemochromatosis

- frequent blood transfusions

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10
Q

describe the iron profile of someone with iron overload

A
  • high serum iron
  • high ferritin
  • high transferrin
  • low TIBC
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11
Q

describe the iron profile in anaemia of chronic disease (ACD)

A
  • normal / low serum iron
  • low TIBC
  • low transferrin
  • high ferritin (if inflammation)
  • normal transferrin receptors
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12
Q

give an example of ileal disease which could lead to B12 def. how could this be diagnosed?

A
  • small bowel bacterial overgrowth
  • trialling ABx and then checking B12 levels
  • hydrogen breath test
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13
Q

how can hereditary spherocytosis be tested for? what happens?

A
  • osmotic fragility test

- spherocytes are fragile and breakdown more easily

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14
Q

how can autoimmune haemolytic anaemia be tested for? what happens?

A
  • direct antiglobulin test (DAT) / coombs’ test

- the cells agglutinate (stick together)

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15
Q

how can haemolytic anaemia be classified?

A
  • inherited

- acquired

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16
Q

examples of inherited causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A
  • spherocytosis
  • thalassaemia
  • SCA
  • G6PD
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17
Q

examples of acquired IMMUNE causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A
  • autoimmune warm type
  • autoimmune cold type
  • transfusion reaction
  • HDN
  • adverse drug event
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18
Q

examples of acquired NON-IMMUNE causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A
  • malaria
  • hypersplenism
  • burns
  • mechanical heart valve
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19
Q

how can polycythaemia be classified?

A
  • apparent (low blood volume making RBC look high)

- true

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20
Q

key cause of apparent polycythaemia?

A

dehydration

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21
Q

underlying disease which could give polycythaemia?

A

polycythaemia rubra vera

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22
Q

secondary causes of polycythaemia?

A
  • lung disease
  • chronic smoking
  • high altitude environment
  • renal cell carcinoma
  • polycystic kidneys
  • HCC
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23
Q

causes of neutrophilia?

A
  • bacterial infection
  • inflammation
  • malignancy
  • myeloproliferative disorders
  • post-MI
  • corticosteroid use
  • renal failure
24
Q

causes of neutropenia?

A
  • post-chemo
  • post-radio
  • clozapine / carbimazole use
  • viral infection
  • felty syndrome (along with RA and splenomegaly)
25
Q

causes of lymphocytosis?

A
  • viral
  • chronic infections (TB)
  • CLL
  • lymphoma
26
Q

causes of eosinophilia?

A
  • allergic disorders
  • parasitic infection
  • eczema and other skin stuff
  • hodgkin’s disease and other malignancies
27
Q

causes of thrombocytosis? (non-reactive)

A
  • essential thrombocythaemia
  • CML
  • myelodysplasia
28
Q

causes of reactive thrombocytosis?

A
  • infection / inflammation
  • malignancy
  • bleeding
  • pregnancy
  • post-splenectomy
29
Q

causes of thrombocytopenia relating to bone marrow failure?

A
  • infectious mononucleosis
  • drug-induced
  • leukaemia
  • aplastic anaemia
  • myelofibrosis
  • myeloma / bony mets (BM infiltration)
  • myelodysplasia
  • megaloblastic anaemia
30
Q

causes of thrombocytopenia relating to increased platelet destruction?

A
  • autoimmune idiopathic thrombocytopenia (AITP)
  • heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
  • hypersplenism
  • TTP / HUS
  • DIC
  • post-blood transfusion
31
Q

causes of pancytopenia?

A
  • aplastic anaemia
  • myeloma / bony mets (BM infiltration)
  • hypersplenism
  • megaloblastic anaemia
  • sepsis
  • SLE
32
Q

what is pancytopenia?

A

low RBCs, WCC and platelets

33
Q

causes of a raised ESR?

A
  • infectious disease
  • multiple myeloma
  • GCA, PMR
  • anaemia
  • renal disease
34
Q

when are acanthocytes seen on blood film?

A
  • post-splenectomy

- liver disease

35
Q

when are target cells seen on blood film?

A
  • thalassaemia
  • iron deficiency
  • post-splenectomy
  • liver disease
36
Q

when are burr cells seen on blood film?

A
  • post-splenectomy
  • liver disease
  • uraemia
37
Q

when are fragmented cells seen on blood film?

A
  • haemolytic anaemia
  • HUS
  • TTP
  • mechanical heart valves
  • DIC
38
Q

when are “tear drop” cells seen on blood film?

A

myelofibrosis

39
Q

what kinds of abnormalities can be seen inside RBCs on blood film?

A
  • heinz bodies
  • howell-jolly bodies
  • pappenheimer bodies
  • basophilic stippling
  • cabot rings
40
Q

which conditions can cause heinz bodies to form?

A

any unstable state of Hb

41
Q

which conditions can cause howell-jolly bodies to form?

A
  • hyposplenism

- post-splenectomy

42
Q

which conditions can cause pappenheimer bodies to form?

A
  • post-splenectomy
  • haemolytic anaemia
  • sideroblastic anaemia
43
Q

which conditions can cause basophilic stippling to form?

A
  • lead poisoning
  • thalassaemia
  • myelodysplasia
44
Q

which conditions can cause cabot rings to form?

A
  • myelodysplasia

- megaloblastic anaemia

45
Q

what kinds of abnormalities can be seen inside WBCs?

A
  • hypersegmented neutrophils
  • toxic granulation of neutrophils
  • auer rods
  • smear cells
46
Q

which conditions can cause hypersegmented neutrophils to form?

A
  • megaloblastic anaemia

- chronic infection

47
Q

which conditions can cause toxic granulation of neutrophils to form?

A
  • bacterial infection
  • poisoning
  • burns
  • chemotherapy
48
Q

which condition can cause auer rods to form?

A

AML

49
Q

which condition can cause heinz bodies to form?

A

CLL

50
Q

what is the most effective blood test to assess liver function?

A

prothrombin time (PT)

51
Q

when should a pt have a target INR of 3.5 (3-4)?

A

where there is recurrent DVT / PE in a pt with a therapeutic INR

52
Q

what might bloods show in DIC?

A
  • high PT and APTT
  • low fibrinogen
  • high D-dimer
53
Q

what is APTT used for most commonly?

A

to monitor a heparin infusion

54
Q

causes of bleeding where INR is raised?

A
  • warfarin
  • heparin (sometimes)
  • liver disease
  • DIC
55
Q

causes of bleeding where APTT is raised?

A
  • heparin
  • haemophilia A / B
  • liver disease
  • DIC
56
Q

give a cause of bleeding where fibrinogen is affected. what happens?

A
  • DIC

- it drops