Haematological cancers Flashcards

1
Q

CML
a) Presentation and diagnosis
b) Aetiology
c) Phases
d) Management (drug also used in what other cancer?)
e) vs. myelofibrosis

A

a) Very high WCC (often >100), splenomegaly, infections, commonly thrombocytosis (unlike any other leukaemia)
- “Left shift” - myelocytes, metamyelocytes and banded neutrophils present in higher levels
- Basophilia, neutrophilia, myeloid cells on blood film
- Diagnose via cytogenetics - PCR for BCR-ABL (serum analysis)
- May then proceed to a bone marrow biopsy (to know % blast cells)

b) Philadelphia chromosome:
- BCR from Ch22 translocates to ABL on Ch9
- Tyrosine kinase activation

c) - Chronic phase (< 10% blasts)
- Accelerated phase (10 - 19% blasts)
- Blast transformation (>20% blasts)

d) Tyrosine kinase inhibitors, which all end in -tinib (e.g. imatinib), given orally. Also used to treat GIST cancers
- Monitor PCR for BCR-ABL levels
- If blast transformation present, treat as for AML

e) - Both conditions can cause raised WCC with myeloid cells of varying stages seen, and both have massive splenomegaly, however:
- CML will have a grossly elevated WCC (>100 often)
- Both may cause a raised PLT*
- Myelofibrosis causes dry tap (so diagnosis requires a bone marrow ‘trephine’ - core biopsy)
- Myelofibrosis will have a leukoerythroblastic picture with “teardrop” cells on blood film (CRY-elo-fibrosis)
- 50% myelofibrosis are JAK-2 positive and may have a history of PRV

*CML is only leukaemia to commonly cause thrombocytosis

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2
Q

AML treatment
a) Phases and usual treatment
b) What is remission defined as?
c) If very high WCC, what therapy may also be used?
d) Why is it important to do clotting screen on all likely AML diagnoses?

A

Induction:
- Cytarabine (ara-C) + anthracycline drug such as daunorubicin or idarubicin
- Given in a 7+3 regime

After induction, a bone marrow biopsy is done:
- Remission is defined as <5% blast cells.
- If >5% blast cells present, a further induction regime is given.
- If <5% blast cells, remission is successful and proceed to consolidation therapy

Consolidation
- Further cycles of cytarabine, or
- Allogeneic (donor) HSCT
- Autologous HSCT

Leukostasis:
- Respiratory (SOB, hypoxia) and neurological symptoms (headache, dizziness, confusion, vision loss, etc.)
- Treated with leukapheresis

d) Clotting screen:
- On all AML diagnoses to look for any evidence of DIC (would suggest APML)

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3
Q

Richter syndrome
a) Which cancers can transform into this? What is it? How common is it?
b) How does it present?
c) Treatment

A

a) - CLL or hairy cell leukaemia
- Transform into high grade B-cell lymphoma
- Around 2-10% of CLL

b) Presentation:
- B symptoms
- Enlarging LN
- Splenomegaly
- Hypercalcaemia

c) Diagnose with LN biopsy
Treatment as for high grade lymphoma:
- R-CHOP (rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxyrubicin, vincristine, prednisolone)
+/- stem cell transplant

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4
Q

CLL
a) Aetiology
b) Poor prognostic factors
c) Presentation and diagnosis
d) Treatment - indications, strategies

A

a) Genetic abnormalities:
- del(13q), del(11q), or del(17p)
- Sometimes there is an extra chromosome 12 (trisomy 12)

b) - p53 gene
- Zeta associated protein (ZAP-70)

c) - Incidental high WCC
- Immunophenotype for diagnosis to look for circulating clonal B-lymphocytes expressing CD5, CD19, CD20, CD23, pathological expression of T-cell marker CD5 and absence of FMC-7 staining
- (do not routinely need a bone marrow biopsy)
- Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
- Hypogammaglobulinaemia

d) - Most patients will be a W&W
- Indications for treatment: drenching night sweats, lymphadenopathy, weight loss, anaemia
- Types of treatment:
1. Fit, younger patients = R-FC (rituximab, fludarabine, cyclophosphamide)
2. Chlormabucil + rituximab
3. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
- Splenectomy may be offered for resistant haemolytic anaemia

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5
Q

Graft versus host disease
a) What is it?
b) Risk factors
c) Presentation of acute vs chronic
d) Acute GvHD staging
e) Management
f) Reducing the risk of tranfusion associated GvHD

A

a) - T-cells in the graft attack the host’s cells following bone marrow or stem cell transplant, as a result of HLA-mismatch (type 4 hypersensitivity reaction)
- It is where the GRAFT rejects the host
- May also rarely occur following blood transfusion in immunocompromised individuals

b) Degree of HLA mismatch, sex difference between donor-recipient, older age of recipient, reduced intensity pre-chemo

c) Diagnosis is clinical
Acute GvHD:
- Classically presents <100 days post-transplant (if >100 days with features of acute GvHD, termed late-onset acute GvHD)
- Classically attacks cells in the gut (abdo cramp, diarrhoea), skin (sunburn like rash), liver (LFT derangement), bone marrow (pancytopenia)
- Skin - maculopapular rash (starts on palms and soles), may ulcerate, may produce TEN-like reaction in severe cases
- GI - diarrhoea, vomiting, pain, anorexia, mucosal ulceration (poor prognosis), might have “ribbon sign” on CT abdomen
- LFT derangement - high bilirubin, cholestatic picture

Chronic GvHD:
- Classically presents >100 days post-transplant
- Skin - poikiloderma, lichen planus, alopecia, nail dystrophy, dyspigmentation
- Lichen-type changes on mucous membranes (such as the mouth or genitals)
- MSK - fasciitis, joint contractures, myositis
- Other - mouth ulceration, xerostomia, conjunctivitis
- Can affect heart, lungs, kidneys, GI tract, etc.
- May also have features of acute GvHD in an overlap syndrome

d) Stage 1: skin rash <25% body, bilirubin 26-60, GI losses 500-1000ml per day
Stage 2 and 3 - in between
Stage 4: bullous desquamation of skin; bilirubin >257, GI losses >2500 ml/day or ileus

e) - Topical steroids/tacrolimus* if pure skin involvement and mild
- Systemic steroids if more severe/extensive
- Other immunosuppressants if steroids ineffective

  • Tacrolimus and ciclosporin are useful in GvHD as they are T-cell mediators

f) Gamma-irradiated blood - should be used in any severely immunocompromised individual (e.g. chemotherapy)

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6
Q

Myeloma
a) Chemotherapy regime
b) MGUS vs smouldering myeloma vs active myeloma
c) Risk of progression to myeloma for MGUS and smouldering myeloma
d) Renal disease associated with findings

A

a) Thalidomide containing regimes (e.g. CTD - cyclophosphamide, thalidomide, dexamethasone)

b) MGUS:
- Serum monoclonal protein < 3 g/dL (no urinary paraprotein)
- Clonal bone marrow plasma cells < 10%, and
- Absence of end-organ damage (CRAB)

Smouldering:
- Serum monoclonal protein (IgG or IgA) ≥ 3 g/dL and/or clonal bone marrow plasma cells ≥ 10%, and
- Absence of end-organ damage (CRAB)

Active myeloma:
- Plasma cells >10%, and
- Presence of urinary or serum paraprotein, and
- End-organ damage (CRAB)

c) - MGUS: 1% per year
- Smouldering: 10% per year for the first 5 years, then risk reduces

d) Cast nephropathy, caused by light chains forming plugs (eosinophilic, dense, homogenous casts) in the tubules and resulting in renal failure

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7
Q

Which haematological malignancy is a more common cause of DIC?

A

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

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8
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma
a) Classification. Which has better prognosis?
b) Ann Arbor staging (used for HL and NHL)
c) Common skin presentation
d) Renal disease associated
e) Most common chemotherapy regime

A

a) Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin’s lymphoma (better prognosis)
Classical Hodgkin’s lymphoma - i) nodular sclerosis, ii) mixed cellularity, iii) lymphocyte-rich, iv) lymphocyte-depleted

b) - I = Single LN (or single extra-lymphatic organ including spleen)
- II = 2 or more LNs on same side of diaphragm
- III = LNs on both sides of diaphragm
- IV = diffuse/disseminated involvement of 1 or more extra-lymphatic organs, or affecting liver/bone marrow/pleura/CSF

Also substaged A or B for asymptomatic or B symptoms present (fever >38, or drenching night sweats, or weight loss >10%)

c) - Erythema nodosum
(note: in Adult T-cell lymphoma - may have scaly rash)

d) Minimal change disease

e) ABVD:
Doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine

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9
Q

Adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma
a) What is it?
b) Cause
c) Presentation
d) Treatment

A

a) Type of NHL:
- Most commonly acute high-grade lymphoma (60%)
- 15% leukaemia
- 15% chronic lymphoma
- 10% smouldering

b) HTLV-1 virus
(Adult T cell - hTlv1)

c) - Lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, B symptoms, infections
- Hypercalcaemia
- Skin rash - plaque like lesions, may ulcerate, may be cancerous lesions

d) R-CHOP (note: poor prognosis)
HSCT

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10
Q

Hairy cell leukaemia
a) What is it?
b) Presentation
c) Diagnosis
d) Treatment

A

a) A type of slow-growing B-cell leukaemia

b) Pancytopenia - anaemia, infections, bleeding, etc.
B symptoms
Hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy

c) Blood film - “hairy” cells seen

d) - Watchful waiting
- If severe symptoms, significant pancytopenia or massive hepatosplenomegaly, chemotherapy started
- Chemo drugs - cladribine, or pentostatin
- May also have splenectomy if severely enlarged spleen

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11
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma
a) Common translocation
b) Proto-oncogene
c) Presentation of endemic vs sporadic form
d) Diagnosis and typical finding
e) Prognosis

A

a) t (8: 14)
= 8urk14tts

b) c-Myc

c) Endemic - jaw/facial bone involvement with painless neck LN
Sporadic - abdominal involvement with ascites

d) LN biopsy - “starry sky” appearance of macrophages phagocytosing cell debris
(also seen in other high grade lymphomas)

e) 2/3 curative with intensive chemotherapy (even though it is a VERY high grade lymphoma)

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12
Q

Acute pro-myelocytic leukaemia (APML)
a) What is it?
b) Common presentation
c) Mutation
d) Cell types present
e) Treatments

A

a) Variant of AML

b) DIC

c) t (15: 17) - affecting the RAR-alpha gene on Ch15 and APML gene on Ch17

d) - Promyelocytes
- Faggot cells

e) ATRA - all trans retinoic analogues (vitamin A analogues)

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13
Q

Waldenstroms Macroglobulinaemia
a) What is it?
b) Presentation
c) Diagnostic tests
d) Treatment

A

a) Type of Non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma involving lymphoplasmacytic (LPL) cells*, which produce excess IgM monoclonal antibodies, resulting in hyperviscosity

*Halfway between a small lymphocyte and mature plasma cell

b) Pancytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy
- Features of hyperviscosity*. Triad of neurological deficits, visual changes, and mucosal bleeding, e.g. headaches, dizziness, papilloedema, nosebleeds, thrombosis

*30% WM patients get HVS at some stage. Other causes of HVS include myeloma, cryoglobulinaemia, more rarely inflammatory diseases like RA/ Sjogren’s/ SLE, HIV.
Treat with IV fluids, PLEX +/- chemo

c) Serum protein electrophoresis - for IgM

d) - Watch and wait
- Chemotherapy (often with rituximab, e.g. R-CHOP)
- Stem cell transplant
- Plasma exchange (especially if HVS)

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14
Q

MDS
a) Primary vs secondary
b) Classification
c) Presentation
d) Diagnosis
e) Treatment
f) Complications

A

a) Primary (majority) - idiopathic
Secondary - related to previous chemo/RT
Risk factors include chemical benzene exposure

b) MDS-SLD:
- Single lineage dysplasia - 1 abnormal cell line (RBC, WBC or PLT) in bone marrow
1 or 2 out of anaemia, leukopenia or thrombocytopenia

MDS-MLD:
- Multiple lineage dysplasia - 2 or 3 abnormal cell lines in bone marrow
- 2 or 3 out of anaemia, leukopenia or thrombocytopenia

MDS-EB
- 1-3 abnormal cell lines and 1-3 cytopenias
- Excess blasts in bone marrow: 5-9% (EB-1) and 10-19% (EB-2).
- >20% would be AML

MDS with isolated del(5q)
- Chromosome del(5q) mutation - this mutation confers the worst prognosis in patients with AML
- 1-3 abnormal cell lines and 1-3 cytopenias

c) May be asymptomatic
May have features of cytopenia, HSM

d) - FBC, blood film (poikilocytosis: >10% abnormal cells)
- Suspect if macrocytic anaemia but normal folate/B12
- Bone marrow aspirate for Cytogenetic studies

e) HSCT
- chemo if not eligible (e.g. >75)

f) - Bone marrow failure (main cause of death)
- AML transformation

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15
Q

ALL
a) Poor prognostic features
b) Cause of stroke in AML and ALL
c) Why is intrathecal chemotherapy given?
d) Finding of mediastinal mass indicates what?

A

a) Philadelphia chromosome, male sex, uncommon phenotype, older age >60

b) Hyperleukocytosis and leukostasis

c) Some blast cells can cross BBB and cause CNS disease, so this is given to all ALL patients to treat any disease here

d) T lymphoblastic disease

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16
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
a) Most common type
b) Other types
c) Risk factors
d) Investigations
e) Management - low grade (e.g. follicular) vs high grade (e.g. DLBCL) vs CNS

A

a) Most common are high grade B-cell lymphomas:
- Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL); 30-58% of all NHLs

b) Other high grade B-cell lymphomas:
- Mediastinal large B cell.
- Primary central nervous system lymphomas (PCNSL).
- Primary effusion lymphoma.
- Burkitt’s lymphoma.
- Mantle cell lymphoma

Low-grade BCL:
- Follicular lymphoma; 20-25% of all NHL.
- Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma
- Waldenström’s macroglobulinaemia.

Others include mature T-cell lymphoma, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma and T-lymphoblastic lymphoma

c) - EBV - Burkitt’s, Hodgkin’s, lymphoma in immunosuppressed individuals
- HIV - HL and NHL, CNS lymphoma
- HTLV-1 - Adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma
- H. pylori - MALT lymphoma*
- Coeliac - enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma
- Chemoradiotherapy

*H pylori eradication therapy leads to cancer regression in 75%

d) - FBC - anaemia (bone marrow failure, or haemolytic), lymphocytosis, low/high platelets
- Lymph node excision biopsy for diagnosis
- CT neck/TAP + PET-CT - staging

e) - Follicular - stage 1-2 (watchful waiting, or radiotherapy), stage 3-4 (R-CHOP)
- DLBCL - Rituximab + CHOP (R-CHOP) chemotherapy
- CNS - intrathecal methotrexate and dexamethasone

17
Q

Myeloma immunology
a) What are the heavy and light chains?
b) What do the levels and ratios of free light chains indicate?
c) How is the myeloma type diagnosed?
d) Beta-2-microglobulin levels
e) ANCA

A

a) - Myeloma plasma cells produce excess immunoglobulins, a monoclonal antibody called ‘M’ protein
- This is made up of a heavy chain* and a light chain (the combination indicates the ‘type’ of myeloma)
- The light chain is either ‘Kappa’ or ‘Lambda’

*In 60-70% of patients, the heavy chain is IgG, in about 20% it is IgA myeloma. The rest have IgM, IgD or IgE.

b) Higher free light chain levels = more aggressive/advanced disease
- A higher Kappa/Lambda ratio (or vice versa) indicates a higher proportion of one over the other, and therefore excess production of the one associated with that individual’s myeloma
- As the ratio increases (one high, one low), this indicates disease activity. Myeloma will cause suppression of the other Igs
- Normalisation of the ratio is a good indicator of remission
- If both are Kappa and Lambda are high, this generally indicates alternate pathology (e.g. kidney disease)

c) The combination of heavy chain (IgG, IgA, etc.) and light chain (Kappa or Lambda) is found by protein electrophoresis. Type is e.g. ‘IgG kappa’

d) Prognosticator - higher levels confer worse prognosis
(note - also a marker of dialysis related amyloidosis)

e) p-ANCA positivity is common in myeloma

18
Q

What is a plasmacytoma?

A

A localised tumour of malignant plasma cells
May be precursor to myeloma

19
Q

Tumour lysis
a) Most at-risk malignancies
b) Presentation
c) Management

A

a) Lymphocytic/lymphoblastic Ca:
- ALL
- Lymphoblastic lymphoma (especially bulky disease)

b) - May present with tumour lysis, or may occur early in chemotherapy
- High K+, high Phos, high uric acid (can cause urate nephropathy), hypoCa+
- May cause DIC

c) - Prehydration
- Prophylactic allopurinol or rasburicase*
- Rx hyperkalaemia/hyperphosphataemia

*Beware G6PD - can cause haemolysis

20
Q

AML diagnosis
a) How is it diagnosed
b) Poor prognostic factors
c) Good prognostic factors

A

a) Bone marrow biopsy

b) Ch 5 or Ch 7 abnormalities:
- additions or deletions
- monosomies
Philadelphia chromosome
FLT3 mutation

c) t (15:17) - common in APML
t (8:21)

21
Q

Common chemotherapy regimes.
a) Hodgkin disease
b) NHL
c) CLL
d) AML
e) ALL
f) Myeloma

A

a) ABVD:
Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vincristine, Dacarbazine

b) CHOP or R-CHOP:
Cyclophosphamide, Hydoxydaunorubicin, Oncovin, Prednisolone

c) FCR:
Fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, rituximab

d) Daunorubicin + cytarabine

e) Vincristine + dexamethasone

f) CDT:
Cyclophosphamide, dexamethasone, thalidomide